Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Z MD 2 > neuro > Flashcards

neuro Flashcards

1
Q

what will a CT contrast imaging show of a basal subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

blood in the interhemispheric fissure and the sylvian fissure and all the sulci ventricles can be enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the acute demyelinating polyneuropathies

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

AIDS-seroconversion phase

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pathological spreading is a sign of

A

UMN lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of ischaemic stroke

A

alteplase

decompressive craniotomy

angiography - remove clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why do you give vancomycin in the AB cocktail for meningitis

A

to try and gain some cover for high level resistant strains of strep pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is claudication

A

ischaemic pain in exercising muscles - due to the imbalance between workload of muscles and the ability to maintain aerobic metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do you tell which eye is the dud one in diplopia

A

the one that moves the least = dud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lacunar infarcts affect which vessels

A

vessels to the basal ganglia, thalamus or deep white matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

differential diagnosis in someone with a new onset headache with cancer or IS

A

meningitis

brain abscess

metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the term for worsening of sensory symptoms with heat?

A

Uhthoff’s phenomenon - relatively specific for MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is dystonia

A

abnormal muscle activity/tone leading to sustained postures and movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for ecephalitis

A

dexamethasone preceding ceftriaxone + vancomycin + penicillin (to cover for meningitis) + ACYCLOVIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

two common causes of acute vestibulopathy

A

vestibular neuronitis

brainstem/cerebellar stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what causes aneurysms (pathology)

A

weakness in elastin and collagen in the adventitia and media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do mass lesions/tumours in the brain cause headache

A
  • traction on large blood vessels and dura
  • direct pressure on pain-sensitive areas
  • elevated ICP from hydrocephalus, mass effect or haemorrhage into or around the tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 most common triggers for seizures

A

alcohol

sleep deprivation

non-compliance from meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

symptoms of carpal tunnel

A

pain in the whole hand, tingling discomfort which is most prominent at night

patients tend to shake their hand for the pain

fingers feel like sausages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

major diagnostic finding to diagnose myopathy

A

CK >1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is primary lateral sclerosis

A

similar to ALS but no LMN signs –> better prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you diagnose myasthenia gravis

A
  • tensilon test with short acting ACh antagonist (edrophonium)
  • blood test for autoantibodies
  • ACh R, MuSK
  • CT chest (for thymoma)
  • EMG studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when someone has an intention tremor.. what do you think

A

cerebellar lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the complications of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

hydrocephalus –> increased ICP vasospasm –> infarction

hypernatraemia

seizures

neurogenic pulmonary oedema

MI

late complications = PE, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the common features of raised ICP headache

A

worse in the mornings

better after vomiting

exacerbated by cough or straining

drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the clinical features of myasthenia gravis

A

no muscle wasting or fasiculations

proximal weakness > distal normal reflexes and sensation weakness increasing with repetitive exercise

early involvement of extraocular muscles and lid opening muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

signs and Sx of optic neuritis

A

RAPD

Swelling of the optic disc

painful eye movements

decreased visual acuity

decreased red colour saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tests for cranial nerves III, IV and VI

A

H test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

treatment for demyelinating polyneuropathy

A

intragam

plasma exchange

Steroids (CIDP only)

immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

signs of motor neuron disease

A

muscle wasting

fasiculations

LMN and UMN signs

generalised weakness

reflexes preserved unti late

plantars may be upgoing

no sensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

why do you give dexamethosone to patients with suspected meningitis prior to giving them ABs

A

to try and prevent 8th nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how can you tell the difference between peripheral and central nystagmus

A

peripheral - nystagmus doesnt direction change (beats away from affected ear), mixed horizontal and torsional nystagmus

central - nystagmus direction changes, any kind of nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what 3 inherited conditions can predispose you to getting a brain tumour

A

neurofibromatosis 1 and 2

Li Fraumeni syndrome (p53 loss –> glioma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a positive Head impulse test

A

when you see the correctional movement of the eyes going back onto the target (catch up sarcade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

acute treatment of stroke before knowing whether ischaemic or haemorrhagic

A

NIL oral

IV fluids of Normal saline

aspirin

clexane 40mg

neurological examinations 2 hourly

inform relatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what signs do PD patients get due to their rigidity

A

stooped posture

reduced arm swing

stiffness through ROM in a joint

  • cog wheeling or lead pipe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

explain the 2 phases of nystagmus

A

slow phase - retinal slip

fast phase - re-fixate on target alternate between slow and fast phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the 2 prognostic factors that make it more likely for a patient to progress to having MS from a single presentation

A
  • the number of inflammatory lesions of baseline MRI brain
  • the presence of oligoclonal bands in the CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

symptoms of severe ischaemia of the lower limbs

A

pain

parasthesia

pale

coolness

pulseless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how can you tell the difference in presentation between vestibular neuronitis and brainstem stroke

A

vestibular neuronitis - can stand on their own, unidirectional nystagmus, may be suppressed by fixation, HIT positive

brainstem stroke - cannot stand on their own, head impulse test negative, direction change nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the characteristic sign of BPPV during a Hallpike

A

period of latency and then a torsional nystagmus, then passess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

explain the gait of someone with PD

A
  • short, shuffling
  • reduced speed
  • narrow base
  • forward trunk flexion (stooping)
  • reduced arm swing
  • festination or freezing
  • difficulty turning/changing direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

characteristic histological sign for meningioma

A

meningioma “whorls”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the red flags for headache

A
  • first/worst headache
  • abrupt onset
  • change or progression of pre-existing headache pattern
  • abnormal findings on physical/neurological exam
  • new headache in patients aged >50
  • new headache in patients with cancer, IS, pregnancy
  • triggered by exertion, sexual activity, Valsalva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

most common cause of encephalitis

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

secondary prevention of stroke

A

BP lowering

statins

antiplatelet

AF prevention

carotid revascularization

anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what disorder/disease is associated with myasthenia gravis

A

thymic hyperplasia

thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

in which reflex is spreading normal

A

brachioradialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

risk factors for stroke

A

hypertension, AF, acute MI, ventricular aneurys, RHD, prosthetic valves, Diabetes, cigarette smoking, increased W:H, heavy alcohol intake, polycythaemia, hypercholesterolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

meningiomas are most common in which population

A

women middle age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

difference between simple and complex seizures

A

simple - no effects on awareness

complex - affects awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

two main DDx for headache + seizures

A

tumour

haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

main treatment for PD

A

Levodopa + carbidopa (peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

localisation of a tumour in a patient with dysphasia

A

dominant frontal or temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what causes the meningism symptoms associated with sub arachnoid haemorrhage

A

due to blood in the subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the acute treatment of MS flare

A

1g IV methylprednisolone for 3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

most common symptom of low grade glioma

A

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which primary tumours commonly metastasise to the brain

A

lung, breast, melanoma, kidney, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

causes of peripheral nystagmus

A

BPPV

vestibular neuronitis

Meniere’s disease

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is it called when a focal seizure starts off and then spreads for eg. up the arm

A

Jacksonian March

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

ACh antagonists

plasma exchange

IV immunoglobulin

immunosuppression - steroids, azathioprine thymectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

principles of treatment of brain metastases

A
  • commence dexamethasone
  • reduction in ICP and oedema
  • surgery to remove the metastasis if solitary or the patient has a reasonable life expectancy (occasionally some are removed for palliation)
  • whole brain radiotherapy
  • for multiple mets
  • stereotactic radiotherapy
  • for 1-3 mets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the signs/symptoms associated with segmental radiculopathy

A

pain/paraesthesia in a dermatomal distribution

weakness of muscles innervated by the root –> may atrophy

May have diminished/absent reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

lacunar infarcts are associated with

A

hypertension!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

differential diagnosis in someone with headache triggered by exertion/sexual activity/valsalva

A

aneurysm

chiari malformation

posterior fossa tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what causes spinal compressive syndrome

A

epidural abscess - extension from spinal discitis or bacterial

osteomyelitis - bacteriaemia with seeding to epidural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

treatment of raised ICP caused by subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

elevation of the head (encourages venous return)

diuresis to reduce cerebral oedema/ECF

hyperventilation - intubate and ventilate if necessary

sedate/paralysis

remove mass

drain hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the causes of transverse myelitis

A

MS (common)

infectious

autoimmune disorders

No aetiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is Tod’s paresis/palsy

A

after a focal seizure the part where the seizure started in may have paralysis/paresthesia for a while after the seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

survival with a low grade glioma

A

years to decades - eventually will progress to a higher grade and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is an ataxic gait

A

gait with a broad base (10-15cm) - looks drunken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how much time must pass between presentations for MS to classify them as disseminated

A

at least 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are the 4 common disorders of neuromuscular junctions

A

post synaptic - myaesthenia gravis

pre synaptic - Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

botulism

tick paralysis

72
Q

how to test for dysphasia

A

No ifs ands or buts

73
Q

what are the clinical patterns of generalised epilepsy

A

absence

myoclonus

tonic-clonic

74
Q

what is the histological feature typical of gliomas

A

necrotic region with tumour cells “pallisading” at margin

75
Q

most common cause of nerve root injury

A

herniated intervertebral disk

76
Q

what is dysmetria

A

overshooting (in finger-nose test)

77
Q

primary prevention of aneurysms

A

stop smoking

control of hypertension

78
Q

the level of sensory deficit tells you what about the level of injury

A

the lowest possible level of injury (could be anywhere higher than this)

79
Q

explain the pathology behind parkinson’s

A

reduction in dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra –> reduction of dopamine in the striatum –> increased inhibition of cortical motor areas

80
Q

two causes of motion induced vertigo

A

uncompensated peripheral vestibular lesion (following vestibular neuronitis)

BPPV

81
Q

3 surgical options for claudication

A
  • angioplasty +/- stenting - best for short segments in proximal arteries
  • endarterectomy - for short segments
  • bypass- for longer blocks
82
Q

tests for cranial nerve II

A

pupil reflexes

visual fields

acuity

83
Q

what is ischaemic rest pain

A

perfusion is so poor that there is pain at rest in the most distal part of the limb - some relief from perfusion by gravity

84
Q

symptoms of radial nerve lesion

A

wrist drop and cant extend their fingers

sensory disturbances in the dorsal, lateral part of the hand

85
Q

which is more common in Australia - infarct or haemorrhage

A

infarct (80%)

86
Q

what is an intention tremor

A

when the tremor gets larger when closer to the object

87
Q

hallmarks Sx for: meningitis encephalitis SOL syndrome spinal compressive syndrome

A

meningitis = headache

encephalitis = altered conscious state

SOL syndrome = focal neurological problems

spinal compressive syndrome = agonizing back pain

88
Q

differential diagnosis for abrupt onset headache

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage until proven otherwise

  • pituitary apoplexy
  • bleed into a mass or AVM
  • mass lesion (especially posterior fossa)
89
Q

principles of treatment of a meningioma

A
  • total surgical excision and obliteration of the dural attachment is the most effective treatment
  • Rx for small, residual recurrent or malignant tumours
90
Q

what is oscillopsia

A

sensation that the visual world is moving

91
Q

management of ALS

A

speech pathology - swallow and communication

NIV

mobility

aids

riluzole (glutamate antagonist)

92
Q

what is dyskinesia

A

reversible levodopa-induced motor complication - abnormal involuntary movements

93
Q

principles of treatment for an astrocytoma

A
  • commence dexamethasone
  • reduction of cerebral oedema and ICP
  • resection of as much of the tumour as safely possibly
  • adjuvant therapy
  • Rx and Cx
94
Q

how can you tell if someone has internuclear opthalmoplegia

A

when you do the horizontal part of the H test - eyes wont move together - failure of adduction of one eye (stops at midline) with the other eye having nystagmus

95
Q

system for grading power

A

0 = nothing

1 = visible twitch

2 = movement with gravity

3 = suboptimal movement against gravity

5 = normal movement against resistance

96
Q

in the hospital, what is the likely Tx given to someone with suspected meningitis

A

dexamethasone preceding ceftriaxone + vancomycin + penicillin -> then do CT -> LP

97
Q

how do you die of a stroke (if you were to die of the stroke and not pneumonia)

A

oedema –> brain swelling –> raised intracranial pressure –> brainstem herniation –> death

98
Q

explain the blood supply to the brain

A

via internal carotid arteries (70%) and vertebral arteries (30%) which anastomose at Circle of willis (base of brain)

99
Q

what is the difference in the effect on the 3rd nerve between an intracranial mass and diabtes

A

intracranial mass - affects dilatory fibres more = pupillary dilation

diabetic = affect motor fibres more = pupillary constriction

100
Q

pharmacological treatment of generalised seizures

A

first line = Sodium Valproate

  • benzos
  • lamotrigine
  • ethosuximide
  • ?phenytoin
101
Q

what are the 4 clinical stages of spinal compressive syndrome

A

nuchal pain –> nerve root pain –> weakness –> paralysis

102
Q

describe the headache associated with a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

sudden, severe headache at the back of the head associated with nausea and vomiting and photophobia and neck pain

103
Q

proximal weakness suggests which DDx

A

myopathy

myasthenia gravis

104
Q

what causes myasthenia gravis

A

antibodies that cross react with the ACh receptor as the neuromuscular junction

105
Q

How do you test cranial nerve V

A
  • Mastication/bite down on own teeth and feel masseter bulk
  • Corneal reflex (also tests VII)
  • check sensation in the 3 areas
  • ask to open their mouth
  • if weakness the jaw will move across
  • jaw jerk = absent is normal
106
Q

What do you think of with vertigo that lasts hours

A

migraine

Meniere’s disease

107
Q

goals of management for a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

prevent rebleed - secure the aneurysm prevent complications pain relief

108
Q

types of delirium

A

hyperactive

hypoactive

mixed

109
Q

What do you think of with vertigo that lasts seconds

A

BPPV

uncompensated peripheral lesion

110
Q

how do you test for cranial nerve XI

A
  • ask to shrug shoulders and leave them up and then try to push them down (upper trapezius)
  • ask to get them to turn their head (opposite SCM to the way the head is turning)
111
Q

what is the most common type brain tumour

A

glioma (52%) - of these astrocytoma is the most common 44%

112
Q

what is the clinical sign of brainstem herniation

A

fixed dilated pupil (3rd nerve palsy (squished against cerebellar peduncle))

113
Q

what is an aneurysm

A

a focal dilatation of the artery

114
Q

management of spinal compressive syndrome

A

MRI ASAP –> neurosurgery or AB alone is neurosurgeons say so

115
Q

when you see multiple cerebral infarcts.. what should you think

A

watershed infarcts, emboli or vasculitis

116
Q

metabolic causes of secondary headache

A

OSA

present upon awakening

thyroid disease

B12 deficiency

exposure to CO and other toxins

hepatitis, renal disease, anaemia

117
Q

what inflammatory causes can cause myopathy

A

polymyositis

dermatomyositis

includion body myositis

118
Q

what is transverse myelitis

A

inflammatory demyelination of segment/s of spinal cord

119
Q

why do you give penicillin in the AB cocktail for menigitis

A

to treat for Listeria

120
Q

common levels of cervical stenosis

A

C5-6

C6-7

121
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome

A

hemisection of the spinal cord causing:

  • contralateral impairment of pain and temp
  • ipsilateral weakness and impairment of proprioception, vibraction and light touch
122
Q

where are watershed infarcts

A

at the edge of two vascular territories

123
Q

signs/symptoms for spinal cord injury

A

reduced reflexes

weakness

paraesthesia

pain in the distribution of the nerve root

124
Q

what is a hemiplegic and diplegic gait

A

hemiplegic - circumduction with one leg (because foot is plantar flexed)

diplegic - cirumduction of both legs

125
Q

when is the peak incidence for gliomas

A

6-8th decade

126
Q

normal ICP

A

10-15mmHg

127
Q

what are the red flags associated with headache flagging sub-arachnoid haemorrhage

A

sudden onset

family history

hypertension

128
Q

when is the greatest risk of rebleed of a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

first 24-48 hours

129
Q

how do you test for cranial nerve XII

A
  • muscle bulk
  • deviated tongue on protrusion (deviation will be towards the affected side)
130
Q

typical histological findings in polymyositis biopsy

A

inflammatory infiltrate around and INTO the muscle fibres

131
Q

what causes the raised ICP with a brain tumour

A

tumour mass surrounding oedema

hydrocephalus if CSF pathways are blocked

132
Q

most common form of motor neuron disease

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

133
Q

how is nystagmus named

A

as per direction the quick phase

134
Q

typical bacterial meningitis LP

A

>1000 polymorphs, mostly leukcocytes protein >1g/L sugar decreased

135
Q

how do you test cranial nerve VII

A
  • corneal reflex (with V)
  • close your eyes tightly (orbicularis occuli) -> dont let me open your eyes (weakeness = opens)
  • smiling and bearing teeth
  • bear teeth and tighten neck muscles
136
Q

list the different ways an intracranial mass can present

A

Sx of raised ICP - headache, photophobia, drowsiness, confusion, seizures

focal neurological deficit

137
Q

safest seizure medication if pregnant

A

tegretol (carbamazepines)

138
Q

average life expectancy for ALS

A

if bulbar onset - 6-12 months

if limb onset - 2-5 years

139
Q

what is critical limb ischaemia

A

ischaemic rest pain with ulcers/gangrene and low trans-cutaneous oxygen pressure

140
Q

most dangerous seizure medication if pregnant

A

sodium valproate = Epilim (teratogenic)

141
Q

2 broad categories of seizures

A

generalized

focal/partial - often due to structural abnormalities

142
Q

what are the 4 primary symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome

A

dysgraphia/agraphia

dyscalculia/acalculia

finger agnosia

left-right disorientation

143
Q

prognosis for gliomas

A

7-14 months

144
Q

Treatment of Meniere’s disease

A

strict sodium restriction

diuretics

Surgery

145
Q

what do you see in a lumbar puncture for a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • bloodstained CSF that does not clear on 3 consecutive collection tubes
  • xanthochromia (yellow staining due to breakdown of haemoglobin)
146
Q

what do you see in the CSF in someone with MS

A

oligoclonal bands (90%)

147
Q

common first presentations of MS

A

transverse myelitis

optic neuritis

brainstem/cerebellar presentations

148
Q

How do you diagnose MS

A

At least 2 clinical presentations disseminated in time and space, unattributable to other causes

149
Q

pharmacological treatment of partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

Sodium valproate

phenytoin

benzos

vigabatrin

lamotrigine

gabapentin

150
Q

definition of stroke

A

sudden cerebrovascular accident with abrupt onset of symptoms

151
Q

common presentation of a meningioma is symptomatic

A

raised ICP

focal neurological deficit

seizures

152
Q

What do you think of with vertigo that lasts days

A

vestibular neuronitis

stroke

153
Q

work up for an abrupt onset headache

A

neuroimaging

lumbar puncture

154
Q

what are the signs of anterior horn cell diseases

A

early muscle wasting

fasiculations

common diffuse weakness

reflexes normal or increased sensation normal

155
Q

which type of brain tumour can typically grow very large without symptoms

A

meningioma

156
Q

other treatments for PD

A

COMT inhibitors

MAO-I

Dopamine agonists

anticholinergics

amantadine

157
Q

what common drugs can cause myopathy

A

alcohol

statins

158
Q

two main bacterial causes of bacterial meningitis

A

N. meningitidis Strep pneumonia

159
Q

how do you test for cranial nerves IX and X

A
  • Gag reflex
  • look for normal movement of the soft palate
  • look for central uvula (deviation will be towards normal side)
160
Q

what causes dysarthria

A

impaired movement of the muscles required for speech

161
Q

severe/sudden ischaemia in the lower limbs is usually due to

A

embolus

162
Q

side effects of reperfusion of the lower limb in acute severe ischaemia

A

acute: shock
chronic: compartment syndrome

163
Q

how do you test balance

A

Romberg test - standing feet together and eyes closed standing on one foot and hopping

164
Q

symptoms of ulnar nerve lesion

A

wasting of pretty much all the small muscles of the hand

weakness and fasciculations

numb/tingling in medial 1.5 fingers

165
Q

Explain the look of an MS plaque on MRI

A

hyperintense lesion on T2 weighted MRI with active lesions showing enhancement with gadolinium

166
Q

Crossed sensory signs indicates

A

damage to spinal cord (on one half)

167
Q

cardiogenic embolism usually obstructs which cerebral artery

A

MCA

168
Q

4 main motor features of Parkinsons

A

rigidity

bradykinesia

pill rolling tremor

postural instability

169
Q

what sign is distinct for a headache caused by decreased ICP

A

headache relieved by lying down

170
Q

typical signs of claudication

A

pain on exertion

onset and severity related to workload

relieved with rest reproducible

171
Q

clinical presentation of cauda equina syndrome

A

acute lower back pain radiating to legs

bilateral sensory loss

saddle anaesthesia

172
Q

What is Meniere’s disease

A

Oedema of the inner ear

173
Q

which imaging would you order if you suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

CT

174
Q

explain the principles of treatment of a low grade glioma

A
  • removal of as much as the tumour as safely possible
  • defer Rx and Cx until tumour progression
175
Q

what are the other symptoms of meningitis other than headache

A
  • fever/constitutional symptoms
  • photophobia
  • vomiting
  • neck stiffness on FLEXION
  • altered conscious state
  • vomiting
176
Q

what are the MS subtypes

A

relapsing remitting

secondary progressive

primary progressive

Z MD 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions