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MNT2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Extract macronutrients (PRO, CHO, Fat, water and ethanol) from ingested foods and beverages
  2. Absorb necessary micronutrients and trace elements
  3. Serve as a physical and immunologic barrier to microorganisms, foreign material and potential antigens consumed with foods or formed during the passage of foods throughout the GI tract
    are the three
A

primary roles of the GI tract

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2
Q

What is the life span of the cells lining the GI tract?

A

3-5 days

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3
Q

Where is the cardiac sphincter and what’s its other name?

A

Located upper abdomen near the heart, lower esophageal sphincter

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4
Q

How long is the small intestine?

A

10 ft long 1 in diameter

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5
Q

Pancreatic juice is considered ______ on the pH scale.

A

basic / alkaline

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6
Q

After absorption the water-soluble nutrients and fat soluble nutrients are released where?

A

water soluble go through the portal vein to the liver.

Fat soluble go into the lymphatic system

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7
Q

What lifestyle factors regulate digestion and absorption?

A
  1. Rest
  2. Physical Activity
  3. Mental State
  4. Diet of balance, moderation, variety, and adequacy
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8
Q

What is reverse peristalsis called?

A

vomiting

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9
Q

What are three solutions to help constipation?

A

↑ Fiber, water, and activity

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10
Q

xerostomia means ________

A

dry mouth

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11
Q

What are symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

↓ tears and saliva

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12
Q
  1. Excess food/drink
  2. Back-pressure from the stomach
  3. Smoking
  4. Delated Gastric emptying
  5. Tight clothing
  6. Changes of position
  7. Pregnancy
  8. Recurrent vomiting
  9. Factors that lower the LES sphincter pressure
    are all causes of
A

GERD

Gastro Esophageal Reflux Disease

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13
Q

What are factors that lower the LES sphincter pressure?

A
  1. high fat
  2. alcohol
  3. peppermint/spearmint
  4. coffee/caffeine
  5. smoking
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14
Q

What surgical procedure is used to solve GERD?

A

Nissen Fundoplication

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15
Q

What procedure treats GERD and chronic vommitting by raising stomach above esophagus & wraps around. Strengthens sphincter

A

Nissen Fundoplication

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16
Q

What does a hiatal hernia cause?

A

reflux

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17
Q

What is responsible for most causes of a peptic ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori

Gram -, attached to flagella

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18
Q

What is the role of alcohol in PUD?

A

excessive or continuous forms of ethanol (alcohol) can damage gastric mucosa, worsen symptoms of peptic ulcers, and interfere with ulcer healing

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19
Q

What is the nutrition management of Gastritis and PUD?

A
  1. CAP Free Diet ( ↓ Coffee/Caffeine, Alcohol, Pepper-spices)
  2. Increase n-3 & n-6 fatty acids
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20
Q
  1. Motility of the stomach

2. Stimulating the parietal cells to secret acid are the two things the

A

Vagus Nerve is responsible for

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21
Q

What is dumping syndrome usually occurs as a result of

A

surgical procedures that allow excess amounts of liquid or solids to enter si in concentrated form

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22
Q

Bacterial fermentation can be caused by what factors in legumes?

A

Stachyose & Raffinose

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23
Q

Fiber + other ingredients not absorbed is

A

residue

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24
Q

edible plant material not digested is

A

dietary fiber

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25
Q

How should extra fiber be implemented?

A

SLOWLY!

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26
Q

______ is present in the guy and are things that favors the maintenance of healthy bacteria (Pectin, insulin, oats, banana flakes, chicory)

A

prebiotics

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27
Q

_______ is the bacteria itself or sources of bacteria used to replenish the beneficial gut flora (cultured food)

A

Probiotics

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28
Q

What is the MNT for Steatorrhea used for?

A

To increase energy to reverse weight loss

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29
Q

In wheat, gluten sensitivity is actually due to what fraction?

A

Gliadin fraction

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30
Q

To omit sources of gluten, what should be avoided?

A
  1. Wheat
  2. Rye
  3. Barley
  4. Perhaps Oats
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31
Q

Lactose intolerance is genetically more common in

A

African-Americans, Asians, and South Americans

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32
Q

Undigested lactose ferments in the colon to

A

SCFAs, CO2, H

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33
Q

The two types of inflammatory bowel disease are

A

Crohns & Ulcerative colitis

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34
Q

What diseases both cause diarrhea, fever, weight loss, anemia, food intolerances, malnutrition, growth failure?

A

Crohns & Ulcerative Colitis

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35
Q

Chron’s usually is in what part of the GI tract?

A

Mostly in distal ileum and colon

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36
Q

What is a disease of the large intestine?

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

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37
Q

Diverticular disease is the herniation of the

A

colon

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38
Q

Chronic diverticulosis is treated by what kind of diet?

A

↑ Fiber diet + adequate fluid intake

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39
Q

Acute diverticulitis is treated by what kind of diet?

A

low-residue or alimental diet

possibly low-fat diet

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40
Q

Short bowel syndrome occurs when how much small intestine has been removed?

A

70-75% of S.I.

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41
Q

If the ileum is removed, what absorption is compromised?

A

B12 and Bile Salt absorption

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42
Q

What is a fistula?

A

An abnormal opening between organs.

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43
Q

Which results in a more runny stool? Ileostomy or Colostomy?

A

Illeostomy

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44
Q

After recovery from a hemorrhoidectomy, what diet is recommended?

A

↑ Fiber diet

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45
Q

cells invading other tissue by direct growth into adjacent tissue is

A

invasion

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46
Q

cells invading other tissue by migration of cells to distant sites is

A

metastasis

47
Q

What are the most common 3 cancers in women?

A

Lung and Bronchus
Breast
and
Colon and rectum

48
Q

What percentage of cancer deaths is attributed to diet and exercise?

A

33% or 1/3

49
Q

What is inversely related to cancer risk?

A
  1. Consumption of fruits and vegetables
  2. whole grains
  3. fiber
  4. certain micronutrients
  5. certain fat (omega-3, omega3/6 ratio)
50
Q

What is directly related to cancer risk?

A
  1. Total Fat
  2. Saturated Fat
  3. Alcohol
  4. Obestity
  5. Food preparation (smoking, salting, and pickling foods and high temp cooking of meats)
51
Q

What are the steps a normal cell takes to become a cancer cell?

A

Initiation → Promotion → Progression

52
Q

Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
CA-125
Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)
are three

A

Tumor Markers

53
Q

What are the three most common cancer treatments?

A

Chemotherapy
Radiation
Therapy

54
Q

What are the three most common cancers in men?

A

Lung & Bronchus
Prostate
Colon & Rectum

55
Q

Chemotherapy affects what types of cells?

A

rapidly dividing cells

56
Q

what is inflammation of mucous

A

mucositis

57
Q

What is altered taste

A

dysgeusia

58
Q

What causes radiation enteritis?

A

Radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic area

59
Q

The primary goal of nutrition therapy for cancer patients is to

A

prevent malnutrition

60
Q

what is cancer cachexia characterized by?

A

involuntary weight loss
tissue wasting
inability to perform daily activities
metabolic alterations

61
Q

What are causes of N&V in cancer patients?

A
  1. chemotherapy
  2. radiation
  3. narcotic analgesics
  4. odors ( food & perfume )
  5. delayed gastric emptying
62
Q

What is early satiety caused by in cancer patients

A

delayed gastric emptying

63
Q

a sensation of dry mouth is

A

xerostomia

64
Q

difficulty speaking is

A

dysphonia

65
Q

Nutrition support is considered an aggressive form of MNT, and should only be used when treating

A

the cancer aggressively

66
Q

What is the accumulation of fluids, protein, and electrolytes within the peritoneal cavity?

A

ascites

67
Q

What ducts are involved in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

intermediate-size intrahepatic ducts

68
Q

What ducts are involved in sclerosing cholangitis?

A

extrahepatic bile ducts

69
Q

What is an iron overload where patients absorb excessive iron from the gut and may stone 20 to 40 gr of iron compared with the .3 to .8 in normal persons?

A

Hemochromotosis

70
Q

What mineral is associated with Wilson’s disease?

A

Copper excretion

71
Q

What can be supplemented to help Wilson’s disease?

A

zinc

72
Q

What is fluid from the abdomen that contributes to malnutrition

A

paracentesis

73
Q

Vitamin A deficiency can result in

A

impaired dark adaptation

74
Q

Thiamine deficiency can lead to

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

75
Q

Portal hypertension can result in

A

varices

76
Q

With hyponatremia, fluid intake is usually restricted to

A

1.0-1.5 Liters/day

77
Q

With hyponatremia, sodium intake is restricted to

A

3-4 g

78
Q

What is the main source of endogenous ammonia?

A

From the metabolism of protein and from the degradation of bacteria and blood from GI bleeding

79
Q

What 2 medications are given to decrease ammonia levels?

A

Lactulose & Neomycin

80
Q

Do supplements enriched with BCAAs have a significant effect on encephalopathy?

A

No!

81
Q

Which proteins improve mental status?

A

vegetable proteins and casein

82
Q

Corticosteroids can result in what bone disease?

A

Osteopenia

83
Q

What is bilirubin derived from?

A

from the release of HGB from RBC destruction

84
Q

Where are bile salts resorbed?

A

portal system (interohepatic circulation)

85
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

A

The formation of gallstones in the absence of infection of the GB

86
Q

What may dispose a present to gallstone formation?

A
  1. female
  2. pregnant
  3. older age
  4. family hx
  5. obesity
  6. truncal body fat
  7. DM
  8. IBD
  9. drugs
87
Q

What is cholecystectomy?

A

is the surgical removal of the gallbladder

88
Q

What causes a person to be jaundiced?

A

When bile is backed up and returns to the circulation, the overflow in the general circulation causes the yellowish skin pigmentation and eye discoloration

89
Q

When feedings are resumed in a person with cholecystitis, what diet is recommended?

A

Low fat diet of 25-30% calories

90
Q

What do pancreatic cells secrete?

A

secretin & cholecystokinin

91
Q

Factors that influence pancreatic secretions can be divided into what 3 phases?

A
  1. Cephalic phase
  2. Gastric phase
  3. Intestinal phase
92
Q

Who identified 11 signs to be watched during pancreatitis?

A

Ranson

93
Q

When solids are begun after acute pancreatitis, the diet is

A

clear liquid diet to low fat diet, then regular with adequate protein

94
Q

Whipples procedure is also known as

A

pancreaticoduodenectomy

95
Q

What is a deficiency of the size or number of red blood cells or the amount of hemoglobin they contain?

A

Anemia

96
Q

larger than normal cell size is

A

macrocytic

97
Q

normal cell size is

A

normocytic

98
Q

smaller than normal cell size is

A

microcytic

99
Q

pale hemoglobin content is

A

hypochromic

100
Q

normal color hemoglobin content is

A

normonchormic

101
Q

folic acid supplementation can mask

A

Vit B12 deficiency

102
Q

What iron is approximately 15% absorbable and is the organic form in meat fish and poultry

A

Heme Iron

103
Q

What iron is approximately 3 & 8% absorbable and can be found in MFP as well as eggs, grains, vegetables and fruits but it is not part of the heme molecule?

A

nonheme iron

104
Q

What are considered iron inhibitors?

A

Phytate, oxalate, phosphate and calcium

carbonates, vegetable fiber, tannins in tea and coffee, Phosvitin in egg yolks

105
Q

How much iron do americans typically consume?

A

6mg/1000 cal of iron

106
Q

How is Vitamin B12 deficiency diagnosed?

A

shillings test

107
Q

How does Vitamin B12 become deficient

A

Lack of Intrinsic Factor

108
Q

What does the RBC look like with folate deficiency?

A

Macroytic, megaloblastic

109
Q

Factors formed by the liver that help with blood clotting

A

Fibrinongen
prothrombin
serum proteins including albumin, alpha-globulin, bear-globulin, transferring, cerulopasmin, and lipoproteins

110
Q

What are the four phases of Hepatitis G?

A
  1. early prodromal phase
  2. preicteric phase
  3. icteric phase
  4. convalescent phase
111
Q

Fulminant hepatitis is characterized by impaired mentation, neuromuscular disturbances, and altered consciousness that is accompanied by

A

hepatic encephalopathy (condition that affects brain)

112
Q

What is the most common liver disease in the US?

A

Alcoholic Liver Disease

113
Q

Fatty infiltration is also known as

A

hepatitis steatosis

114
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A 
Metabolism of CHO, PRO, & Fat
Storage & Activation of vitamins and minerals
Formation & Excretion of bile
Conversion of ammonia to urea
Metabolism of Steroids
Detoxifies drugs & alcohol
Filter and Flood Chamber
are the functions of the

MNT2 (3 decks)

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