CRJ Limitations Flashcards

2
Q

Max airspeed with gear extended

A

250kts

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3
Q

Use of reverse thrust is prohibited during ________ taxi opertions.May be used during emergency situations.

A

Normal

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4
Q

Takeoff with fuel loads in excess of (1) _____ lbs in the center tank is permitted unless each wing tank is above (2) ______ lbs.

A

1) 500 lbs2) 4,400 lbs

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5
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

47,000 Ibs

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6
Q

Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight below an altitude of ________ AGL.

A

800ft AGL

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7
Q

Max gear extended speed

A

250 kts

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8
Q

APU bleed air limitations Condition: engine start during flight Limitation: ______________

A

Not permitted for single engine operations. Permitted for double engine failure conditions, limited to 13,000 ft and below.

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9
Q

Max operating speed for flaps 20

A

215

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10
Q

Engine operation at or near shaker and pusher settings is predicated on a operable ___________.

A

Auto-ignition system

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11
Q

Engines should be operated at (1) ______ for (2) _______ minute prior to shutdown. Key N2 setting for cool-down period? (3)

A

1) idle 2) two (2) minutes3) 80% N2

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12
Q

When must continuous engine ignition be used?Five (5) items

A

1) takeoff on contaminated runway 2) takeoffs with high crosswinds3) moderate or greater rain4) moderate or greater turb5) flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms

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13
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flaps extended?

A

15,000 ft

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14
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)

A

53,250 Ibs.

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15
Q

Maximum tailwind component

A

10kts

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16
Q

APU startingstart cycles Max time ON for all attempts?

A

30 seconds

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17
Q

What exceptions may a pilot not comply with a TCAS RA?1) 2)

A

1) aircraft performance is limited such as with an engine failure 2) conditions are such that it can be seen that there is an obvious error or malfunction in theTCAS

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18
Q

During pre-flight check of the thrust reverses with the airplane stationary, reverse thrust must remain at ____ ______.

A

Reverse idle

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19
Q

APU starting Start cycles Min time OFF for attempts two (2) and four (4)

A

Attempt 2: 20 minutes OFF Attempt 4: 40 minutes OFF

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20
Q

APU bleed air limitations Conditions: engine start during groundLimitations: ________ (and key N2 setting?)

A

No limitation. May be used, but engines’ thrust must not exceed 70% N2

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21
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

10,000 ft

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22
Q

Flex (reduced) thrust must not be used during the following conditions:1)2)3)4)

A

1) first flight of the day2) in wing/cowl anti-ice bleeds are in use3) contaminated runways4) windshear conditions exist or have been forecast

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23
Q

Engine start cranking limitsStart attempts one, two, three and any subsequent attempts have a max time ON of ____.

A

One (1) minute

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24
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the left main tank and right main tank?

A

800 lbs

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25
Q

What two anti-ice devices must be on in super-cooled large droplet icing conditions?

A

1) wing anti-ice 2) cowl anti-ice

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26
Q

Maximum ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

ISA+35C

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27
Q

Stall protection switches must be _________ ______ for all phases of flight.

A

Remain on

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28
Q

Dry motoring cycle Start 1 has a max time on of (1) ____ followed by (2) _____ off.

A

1) 90 seconds On2) five (5) minutes off

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29
Q

En-route use of flaps are ______.

A

Prohibited

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30
Q

Max operating speed for flaps 30

A

185 kts

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31
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

41,000 ft

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32
Q

APU cranking How long of a delay should be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of starter and start contractor ad for APU drainage?

A

Two (2) minutes

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33
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

44,000 Ibs

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34
Q

Flight spoilers must not be deployed when within what airspeed

A

Approach speed plus 17 kts

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35
Q

APU 1) max rpm: ____ %2) max EGT: ____ C

A

1) 107%2) 743C

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36
Q

In a cold soak at -30C or less for more than eight (8) hours, thrust reverses must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are less than _____ seconds.

A

Five (5) seconds

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37
Q

Wing anti-ice must be on when:- ground operations 1)2)3)

A

1) must be on for takeoff when OAT is 5C or less and visible moisture2) must be on for takeoff when OAT is 5C or less and on contaminated runway3) when Type II of Type IV anti-icing Has been applied

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38
Q

If reduced thrust can be used, the fan speed for the reduced engine thrust must not be lower than __________ % N1

A

85%

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39
Q

What is the wait period between a rejected takeoff and of landing stop that triggered a BTMS indications and a future takeoff?

A

15 minute cool-down period

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40
Q

Engines must be running for (1) ____ minutes prior to (2) _____.

A

1) two (2) minutes 2) takeoff

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41
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)

A

53,000 Ibs.

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42
Q

EICAS Color meanings?1) red2) amber3) green

A

1) maximum and minimum limitations 2) caution range 3) normal operating range

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43
Q

(1) ______ lbs is the maximum fuel quantity for a go-around.Assuming a maximum airplane climb attitude of (2) _____ degrees up.

A

1) 450 lbs2) 10 degrees

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44
Q

Engine start cranking limits Start attempts three and any subsequent attempts have a max time on of one (1) minutes, followed by ___ minutes off.

A

5 minutes

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45
Q

Associated conditions for movement from shut off to idle 1) ITT for ground2) ITT for air

A

1) ITT ground: 120C or less for all ground starts2) ITT air: 90C or less for all air starts

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46
Q

APU bleed air limitations Condition: air conditioning Limitation: ___________

A

No bleed air extraction above 15,000 ft

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47
Q

Integrated standby instrument May you use the ISI for backcourse approaches?

A

Never. Backcourse approaches are prohibited when using the ISI.

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48
Q

Below (1) ______ kts, reverse thrust must be reduced to (2) _______.

A

1) 60 2) idle

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49
Q

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff?

A
  • 40C
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50
Q

For the following conditions:First flight of the day, cold soak at less than -30C for more than 8 hoursEngines must be motored for (1) _____ seconds and rotations must be (2) ______.

A

1) 60 seconds 2) verified

51
Q

Maximum approved runway slope for takeoff and landing?Uphill: Downhill:

A

+ 2% uphill- 2% downhill

52
Q

How much delay should be observed between APU cranking attempts

A

2 minutes

53
Q

APU starting Min temp for start? _________ C

A

-40C

54
Q

Minimum flight crew

A

1 pilot 1 co-pilot

55
Q

Max airspeed gear should be retracted

A

200 kts

56
Q

Taxi lights mut be switched (1) ______ whenever the airplane is stationary more than (2) _______ minutes.

A

1) off 2) ten (10) minutes

57
Q

Engine start The starter must not be used if indicated N2 RPM exceeds ____ %

A

55%

58
Q

Engine start cranking limitsStart attempts one and two have a max time off of one (1) minute, followed by ____ seconds offs.

A

10 seconds

59
Q

Wing anti-ice must be on when: -flight operations 1)2)

A

1) when ice is annunciation by the ice detection system2) in icing conditions and airspeed is below 230kts

60
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with what the reverse EICAS messages displayed?

A

1) THRUST REVERSER UNLK light2) REV icon on N1 gauge 3) L or R REV UNLOCKED caution light

61
Q

Max operating speed for flaps 8

A

215 kts

62
Q

Cargo compartment is limited to ________ lbs

A

3,500 lbs

63
Q

Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight when wing-flaps are extended beyond ______ degrees.

A

30 degrees

64
Q

Dry motoring cycleStarts 2 and any subsequent starts have a max time on (1)___ followed by (2) ____ off.

A

1) 30 seconds on 2) five (5) minutes off

65
Q

Max operating speed for flaps 45

A

170 kts

66
Q

Maneuvering Limit Load Factor

A

Flaps Up: -1.0G to 2.5GFlaps Down: 0.0G to 2.0G

67
Q

When is use of DES sub mode not permitted?

A

DES submode is not permitted on approaches

68
Q

Crosswind Limitations

A

The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway is 27 kts. But is not a limitation. The following are limitations:Wet Runway: 27 ktsBraking action less than good runways: 15ktsCaptain has less than 100 hours PIC in type: 27 kts

69
Q

Max differential pressure during taxi, takeoff, and landing

A

Must not exceed .1 psi

70
Q

Minimum Flying Weight

A

33,000

71
Q

Immediate Action Items: Stabilizer Trim Runaway

A
  1. Control Wheel………………………………..Assume manual control and override runaway2. Both STAB TRIM DISC switches………Press, Hold, and Release3. Aircraft control………………………………..Transfer to Captain4. STAB CH1 and CH2 HSTCU cbs (2F5 and 4A1)……..Open
72
Q

Lowest altitude you can use autopilot on a precision approach?

A

80 ft AGL, but not lower than 50 ft below DA, whichever is higher

73
Q

Immediate Action Items: Double Engine Failure

A
  1. Continuous Ignition………..On2. Airspeed……………………….240 KIAS
74
Q

Max Windshield Wiper Operation

A

220 KIAS

75
Q

Max permissible time for ground operations with DC power only is…

A

5 minutes

76
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

A

280 KIAS or .75 Mach whichever is lower

77
Q

Lowest altitude you can use autopilot (except on approaches)?

A

600 AGL

78
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

47,000

79
Q

Immediate Action Items: Cabin Altitude MSG or Emergency Descent Procedure

A
  1. Oxygen Masks……………….Don and 100%2. Crew Communications…….Establish
80
Q

Max relief differential pressure

A

Max positive 8.7 psi Max negative is -0.5 psi

81
Q

Prior to opening any doors

A

Completely depressurized

82
Q

Side Slip Maneuvers

A

Avoid unnecessary and large side slip maneuvers in low speed operations

83
Q

Immediate Action Items: Aborted Takeoff

A

Simultaneously: 1. Thrust levers…………Idle2. Wheel Brakes……….Maximum until safe stop3. Thrust Reversers…..Maximum consistent with directional

84
Q

When low pressure air source is utilized….

A

Ensure the passenger door or avionics bay door remains open

85
Q

Max Cargo Weight

A

3,500

86
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

44,000

87
Q

The hydraulic 3B pump switch must…

A

Be on for all phases of flight

88
Q

Wind Limitations

A

No taking off or landing in winds in excess of 60 kts or more than a 55 kt headwind component

89
Q

Lowest cabin pressure altitude when system is in manual mode

A

-1500

90
Q

The ADC source coupled to the active autopilot must…

A

Be the same as that coupled to the ATC transponder during flight in RVSM airspace

91
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

41,000

92
Q

In flight, a circuit breaker must…

A

Not be reset or recycled unless a checklist or interest of safety suggests so

93
Q

When is EICAS amber caution OXY LO PRESS illuminated?

A

At 1410 PSI

94
Q

Minimum Operating Limit Speed

A

No speed less than the onset of the stall warning as defined by the stick shaker operation

95
Q

Lowest altitude you can use autopilot on a visual or non precision approach

A

400AGL, but not lower than 50ft below the applicable MDA, whichever is higher

96
Q

The bleed air 10th stage valves must…

A

Be closed for takeoff and landing if the engine cowl and/or wing anti-ice systems have been selected on

97
Q

Max Airport Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

A

10,000

98
Q

Immediate Action Items: Configuration Warning

A

Abort Takeoff

99
Q

Immediate Action Items: During Landing- Excessive loss of symmetry or Loss of Braking

A
  1. Wheel Brakes……………………Release Momentarily2. Anti-Skid…………………………..Off3. Wheel Brakes……………………Reapply as required
100
Q

When must a Category II approach briefing be conducted?

A

Before commencing a Category II approach

101
Q

You flight must be within 45 minutes of the nearest suitable airpourt under what condiations?

A

If cargo is carried in the cargo compartment

102
Q

What is the maximum BTMS readout allowed prior to takeoff?

A

Stable or decreasing with warmest brake 06 or lower. For BTMS readout greater than 05, see Volume 1 QRH PERF 04

103
Q

What is the maximum flaps operating speed (Vfo) for flaps 8?

A

200 KIAS

104
Q

What is the maximum flaps operating speed (Vfo) for flaps 20?

A

200 KIAS

105
Q

What is the maximum allowable tire speed?

A

182 knots ground speed

106
Q

Under what circumstances and for how long may 250 KIAS be exceed with the ADG deployed?

A

When operations necessary up to 330 KIAS for 12 minutes, and between 331 and 335 for 4 minutes

107
Q

What is the maximum speed for ADG deployment for test flights or pilot training?

A

215 KIAS

108
Q

What is the maximum cruise speed allowed during flight in RVSM airspace?

A

.85 Mach

109
Q

What is the Maximum Mmo

A

.85

110
Q

May a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance to comply with a TCAS RA?

A

Yes

111
Q

What are the maximum wind compenents for Category II operations?

A

15 knots crosswind17 knots headwind10 knows tailwind

112
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff?

A

-30C for Jet A

113
Q

What is the maximum engine ITT allowed during engine start?

A

900C

114
Q

What is the max N2 split (engine to engine) at idle power?

A

2%

115
Q

After starting the left engine you note the N2 stable at 60%. What is the acceptable N2 range for right engine?

A

58% to 62%

116
Q

During cold weather oeration (OAT -20C or less) what minimum N2 is required to accelerate above idle?

A

57%

117
Q

What is the minimum engine oil temperature for starting?

A

-40C

118
Q

What is maximum permissible oil temperature?

A

163C (for 15 minutes max)

119
Q

For how long may engine oil temp be at above 155C?

A

15 minutes, not to exceed 163C

120
Q

What is the minimum idle oil presure?

A

25 PSI

121
Q

What minimum oil pressure is required for takeoff?

A

45 PSI

122
Q

What is the maximum continuous engine oil pressure?

A

115 PSI

123
Q

What is the maximum transient oil pressure during a cold engine start?

A

156 psi max, then 130 psi when at idle for 10 minutes