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Epi (Elise) > Epi Exam 2 > Flashcards

Epi Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

HACCP is required for what facilities?

A
  • Meat
  • Seafood
  • Juice

Applies to almost any step in the production chain “farm to fork”

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1
Q

Which gram neg. seafood pathogen is most common and is transmitted to humans by ingestion of improperly cooked seafood/oysters and by direct skin contant with infected water?

A

Vibrio vulnificus + parahaemolyticus

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1
Q

What is the CAC?

A

Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)

  • Intergovernmental body that coordinates food standards at the international level
  • Main objectives are to protect the health of consumers and ensure fair practices in food trade
  • Used by governments to determine and refine policies and programs under their national food control system
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2
Q

How are humans infected by WNV?

A

Primarily through the bite of infected mosquitoes.

Also through blood, lab exposure and breast milk.

there is NO EVIDENCE of humans being infected through handling dead/ill birds

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of foodborne illness?

A

Norovirus

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2
Q

What is most important way to prevent norovirus infection?

A

Proper preparation, cooking and handling of food

Also sanitation, water treatment, personal hygiene

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3
Q

Bites from __________ animals NEVER pose a rabies threat

A

non-mammalian

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3
Q

T/F: TB reactors cannot be slaughtered for any form of human consumption due to the risk of zoonosis.

A

False

TB reactors are considered “suspect” and have a extra postmortem inspection.

Once TB infected tissue is removed, the remainder of the carcass may be only passed for human food that is COOKED

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3
Q

Norovirus infections provide _____ cross protection to other strains

A

poor

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4
Q

T/F: people believe that nutrients are lost by pasteurization and that pasteurization causes milk allergies….

A

true…

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4
Q

What is the case definition of Hep A?

A
  • CS/ jaundice/elevated serum aminotransferase

AND

  • Positive IgM or epidemiological link to confirmed case
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5
Q

What should you do if your poultry meat is contaminated?

A

trim and wash with chlorinated water if possible; otherwise, condemn

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5
Q

What foodborne bacterial infection cause hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

STEC E.coli O157:H7

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6
Q

These are all things that the _______ Meat Inspection does

  1. Ensure that food products are free of foodborne pathogens
    • ​​Antemortem & Postmortem inspection
    • HACCP and risk based approaches to reducing pathogens
  2. Clearly label foods that pass inspection
  3. Minimize contamination during processing
  4. Monitor for drug residues and pathogens
A

Federal

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7
Q

Rickettsia felis can maybe cause ________-like illness in humans and survives in a cat-flea cycle.

A

typhus

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8
Q

What inherited syndrome in pigs is characterized by malignant hyperthermia in response to stress that affects survival and meat quality?

A

Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS)

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9
Q

What are the 5 National Food Control Components?

A
  • *1. Food Law and Regulations**
  • *2. Food Control Management-** consist mostly of USDA and FDA
  • *3. Inspection Services- USDA-FSIS & FDA (80%)**
  • *4. Laboratory Services:** Food Monitoring and Epidemiological Data- USDA & FDA
  • *5. Information, Education, Communication and Training**
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11
Q

Rocky Mounted Spotted Fever (Richettsia rickettsii) is transmitted by __________________ in the USA

A

BOTH species of Dermacentor

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11
Q

What are some examples of corrective actions that could be taken if a cooking temperature is not met in a HACCP facility?

A
  • Check that the thermometer is working (he repeated this ALOT)
  • Pull the batch until the problem is resolved
  • Repeat the cooking step
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11
Q

T/F: TB positive animals can be passed with restrictions if the lesions are localized, ecapsulated/calcified and trimmed from the carcass

A

True

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11
Q

What is unique about the intoxication by C. perfringens?

A

Toxins form in the GI tract, not in the food prior to ingestion

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12
Q

In the USA, do abattoirs monitor for Trichinella spiralis

A

Nope, they assume consumers are educated and know to cook meat

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13
Q

Ixodes ticks must be attached for > ____ hours to transmit lyme disease

A

>48 hours

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13
Q

Persons _____years of age have the highest risk of presenting with severe WNV symptoms

A

>50 years

_______

1/150 people get neuroinvasive signs

20% of people have mild febrile illness

80% of humans are asymptomatic

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13
Q

Animal suspected of having diseases or conditions that would make part or all of the carcass unfit for food that need a detailed postmortem inspection are considered _____ animals

A

Suspect

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13
Q

Can “Downer Cattle” be slaughtered?

A

Nope, they have a higher probability of being infected with BSE prions

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13
Q

What does it mean for a meat to be adulterated?

A

Including an added, foreign or interior substance, that cannot be removed by trimming

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13
Q

What is the best way to reduce meat-associated parasitic diseases?

A

Cook meat thoroughly!

Also:

  • Avoid food animal exposure
  • Meat inspection
  • Freezing (some parasites)
  • Hygeine
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14
Q

What is the main causative agent of Cat scratch disease?

A

**Bartonella henselae**

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14
Q

When clinical signs are present in an animal at the slaughter house, what generality determines if the animal is “suspect” vs “condemned”?

A

Suspect- signs indicate a localized disease

Condemned- signs indicate a generalized disease

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15
Q

What are SRM? What do they include at all ages? and if >30 months?

**** IMPORTANT****

A

SRM = specific risk matrial that are defined as “inedible” based upon risk of BSE transmission to human

All ages: tonsils and distal ilium

>30 months: brain, skull, eyes, terminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertenral column, dorsal root ganglia

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15
Q

Define Food Control

A

Mandatory regulatory activity of enforcement by national or local authorities to provide consumer protection, wholesomeness, safety, quality and accuratly labeled products.

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16
Q

T/F: Raw milk sale is legal in the USA

A

False! It is illegal in some states. Some “Cow-shares” can bypass the law if milk is used for own consumption.

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17
Q

What obligate parasitic protozoa, that are vectored by insects, infect dogs in the USA?

A

Leishmania infantum and T. cruzi (Chagas disease)

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18
Q

What causes 30% of chronically infected humans to develop heart disease and 10% of chronically ill humans to develop megaesophagus/colon?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi in southern AMERICA

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19
Q

spillover hosts (humans, equids, cattle) of rabies have _______ transmission

A

inefficient

but still possible

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19
Q

Which tapeworm causes minor bloating & anemia after ingestion of raw infected fresh water or anadromous fish: Ceviche, sushi, pickled herring? how is it prevented?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

prevent via cooking or freezing fish at appropriate temp and time

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20
Q

T/F: WEEV is rare in humans and equids and causes similar clinical signs to EEEV, but are less severe/common

A

true

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21
Q

In EEEV, _______ cases often appear ~ 2weeks before humans

A

equine

______

Begin with fever, lack of appetite and lethargy
– Progresses to various degrees of excitability and then drowsiness, ultimately ending in paresis, seizures and coma in fatal cases (5-­‐10 day course)

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22
Q

Babesia’s life cycle is between which two hosts?

A

Small rodents and ticks (Ixodes spp.)

Other species, such as dogs, can contract the disease and have a hemolytic anemia.

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23
Q

How do humans become infested wth Cuterebra?

A

Broken skin, intact skin, and mucous membranes

____

uncommon in humans

enzootic in USA and southeast canada in dogs, cats and rabbits

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23
Q

What pathogen is the second largest cause of death from boodborne dz in the US?

A

Toxoplasma gondii - cause issues in healthy, immunocompromised and pregnent women

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24
Q

What diseases do Ixodes ticks transmit? What is their distributionin the USA?

A

(1) Borrelia burgdorferi - lyme disease
(2) Anaplasma phagocytophilum - similar to lyme
(3) Babesia- hemolytic anemia

See map for distribution. All of these disease are increasing

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24
Q

Does the AVMA support breed bans to prevent biting?

A

NOPE

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24
Q

Animals are considered immunized ____ days after their first rabies vaccine

A

28

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24
Q

Critical limitsfor each CCP must be able to be _____

A

measured (ie. temp, time)

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25
Q

How do you prevent/control mosquito borne-disease?

A

Larvae control

Source Reduction (reduce standing water)

Adulticide

Public Education

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25
Q

How are humans and livestock infected with T. gondii?

A

People: (1) eating oocytes in litter soil, contaminated food/water (2) Eating bradyzoite in undercooked meat (3) Vertical

Livestock: (1) eating oocyst (2) eating bradyzoite in rodents, birds and other animals (food contamination)

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26
Q

These 4 roles are part of what veterinary service agency?

  1. Management- policy development, risk assesment, auditing
  2. On Farm Food Safety Programs- health and hygeine
  3. Meat Inspection Programs- direct inspection, supervision, HACCP
  4. Certification of products for international trade
A

USDA-FSIS

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27
Q

What are the regulations of seafood?

** Learning objective**

A
  • FDA- limited, gives “warning”
  • HACCP is required for all USA seafood plants
  • Dept. of Commerce (NOAA) - voluntary seafood inspection program
  • Pulblic Health services - can close waters
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27
Q

How is swine cysticercosis prevented?

A

Target vehicle (treat and educate humans) & human sewage management

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28
Q

What are the enzootic and epizootic reservoir hosts of VEEV?

A

enzootic: rodents
epizootic: horses

Mosquitoes are biological vectors

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29
Q

Canine rabies may be eliminated by ________

A

mass dog vaccination!

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29
Q

Define Food Safety

A

prevent hazards from entering and remove/reduce hazard from the food chain to ensure food safety.

Consist of pre-harvest and post-harvest components.

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30
Q

Which intoxication bacteria is associated with improper canning of food?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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31
Q

In what species is electricity used for stunning of animals? What happes if there is excessive amps?

A

Calves, sheep, goats, swine, cattle (rare)

excessive amps –> petechial hemorrhages –> condemned

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32
Q

What is a typical mosquito life cycle?

A

E-L-P-A

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34
Q

Reservoir hosts (Carnivora and Chiroptera) of rabies have _______ interspecies transmission/maintenance

A

sustained

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35
Q

Why are there no human cases of Leishmania infantum in the USA?

A

no vector (sandfly) - it is a TROPICAL disease

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35
Q

Trypanosoma brucei isTransmitted by
bite of ________ flies in Africa

A

tsetse

_________

causes sleeping sickness in humans and cattle that can last for years and ends in death

T. b. rhodesiense – cattle are primary reservoir; causes fast onset acute trypanosomiasis in humans

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35
Q

These are objective to what process?

  • Protect public health
  • Consumer confidence
  • Surveillance of animal health problems
  • Improved access to international export markets
A

Meat Inspection

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35
Q

___________ is a leading cause of postmortem condemnation due to neoplasia

A

Epithelioma / Squamous cell carcinoma

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35
Q

What is the difference between the typical symptoms of foodborne intoxication and infection?

A
  • Intoxication
    • rapid onset- 30 mins to hours
    • duration - 1-2 days
    • Damage enterocytes
      • EXCEPTION - botulism toxin= neurotoxin
  • Infection
    • ​onset- several hours to days
    • duration- several days
    • enterotoxin production –> watery diarrhea
    • some kill enterocytes –> dysentery, fever and septicemia
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36
Q

What are the clinical signs of Cat Scratch Disease (Bartonella) in immunocompetent and immunocompromised people?**********

A
  • Immunocompetent adults = fairly mild disease
    • – Fever + lymphadenopathy of draining LN
    • – Papule often seen at site of bite/scratch
    • – Can last a few months if untreated
  • Immunocompromised people = severe!!!!
    • – Bacillary angiomatosis
    • – Chronic fever
    • – Endocarditis, hepatitis, encephalitis …
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36
Q

T/F: Grade A milk is defined and regulated by Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO). This is revised every other year by at the NCIMS with representatives of the FDA, USDA, State govt, local gov’t, dairy industry and academia

A

true!

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38
Q

When is carbon dioxide used to stun animals? what species is it used in?

A

It is used to depopulate pigs and chicken farms

Can also be used in swine, sheep and calves

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39
Q

Animals being boostered for rabies after one year of their initial vaccine are consided immunized ________

A

immediately

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40
Q

T/F: The pre-exposure rabies vaccine is protective against all species/genotypes of Lyssavirus that cause rabies

A

FALSE! it is ineffective against several bat and foreign rabies viruses.

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40
Q

What are the benefits of pasteurization of milk?

A

Destroys pathogens (Coxiella burnetii etc.)

Inactivates enzymes in milk (lipase)

Enhances shelf life

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41
Q

Where is Amblyomma americanum located? What zoonotic diseases does it transmit?

A

Transmits:

(1) Ehrlichia chaffeensis & E. eqingii - infecrs humans and dogs
(2) Panola Mt. Ehrlichia- infects humans and goats
(3) Tularemia/Francisella tularensis -infects rabbits and humans

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41
Q

What dermatophytosis is most common in the developed world? Which animals spread it to people?

A

Microsporum canis

Usually spreads form cats (asymptomatic carriers) to dogs and to humans

-

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41
Q

These are all _______inspection legands

A

USDA

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41
Q

What is the reservoir of Bacillus cereus? What are the two clinical presentations?

A

SOIL!

Enteric Form (vomiting) and Diarrhea form

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42
Q

Untreated, infected ______ can serve as “domestic sources of infected ticks

A

dogs

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43
Q

How do humans and animals develop cysticercosis?

A

Ingestion of human (DH) feces!

People get this by consuming tape worm eggs (T solium only)
Cattle, sheep, pigs get cysticercosis by consuming tapeworm eggs from human feces

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45
Q

What makes up 59% of veterinarian and vet staff workmans comp claims?

A

bite wounds

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45
Q

Which nematode causes tingling in throat, coughing up worms, acute abdominal pain (mimic appendicitis, crohns and stomach cancer) that is acquied by ingestin crustaceans, fish or squid worldwide?

A

Anisakis spp.

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45
Q

What virus is the most common cause of severe diarrhea in children around the world?

A

Rotavirus

+++ in winter

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47
Q

After exposure, Wild mammalian carnivores or bats that are not available or suitable for testing for rabies should be regarded as ____ animals

A

rabid

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49
Q

What should you do if a rabies vaccinated dog/cat/ferret bites a human?

A

Quarantine animal for 10 days with daily exams, have a veterinarian exam the animal at beginning and end of quarantine

If symptomatic= euthanize & test

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50
Q

How are humans infected with Cat Scratch Disease (Bartonella)?

A

bitten or scratched by an infected cats

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52
Q

What are signs of a effective captive bolt/gun shot stun?

A
  • Animal immediately collapses
  • Becomes rigid with forelimbs extended for 10-­‐20 seconds followed by involuntary kicking movements then relaxation
  • Eyes will be central and fixed
  • No corneal reflex
  • No rhythmic breathing
  • Heart beat will continue for some time
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53
Q

What food does the USDA regulate?

A

Meat, poultry

catfish

egg products

imported shell eggs

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54
Q

What causes a self-limiting superficial fungal skin infection in humans that is transmitted by direct contact and through spores on fomites with abraded skin?

A

Dermatophytosis (“Ringworm”)

_____________

introduced into abraded skin

requires a strong CMI response to recover

Microsporum canis is most common in the developed world

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55
Q

What are the two groups of zoonotic diseases that Borellia causes & what are their vectors?

A

–Lyme disease type = Ixodes spp. hard ticks
–Relapsing fever type = soft ticks

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57
Q

______________________ causes mild rashes (compared to sarcoptes) in humans. Although humans are highly susceptible, this pruritic rash usually stops once the animal is treated.

A

Cheyletiella spp. - Walking dandruff

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57
Q

T/F: only some dogs, cats, ferrets and horses should be vaccinated for rabies

A

False! All should be legally vaccinated

only some livestock (valuable, in contact with people) should be vaccinated

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58
Q

True or False

Mites and Ticks are Insects

A

FALSE
Insects = 6 legs

Mites/Ticks (Acari)= 8 legs

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58
Q

Rabies virus is present in saliva late in infections is usally transmitted to susceptible host by _______

A

bite wounds

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60
Q

How do humans get taeniasis?

A

Eating undercooked meat with tapeworm cycst

———-

Develop adult stage tapeworms within the intestinal tract

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61
Q

What is the most common pathogen in dog bites?

A

Pasteurella

____

(only 3-18% of wounds get infected)

Others: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Moraxella, Corynebacterium, Neisseria

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61
Q

What are 4 poultry-specific diseases that lead to a carcass being condemned?

A
  • Chlamydia psittaci (chlamydiosis, etc.) – Zoonotic! lung congestion, cardiac enlargement, fibrinous exudates
  • Mycobacterium avium (“TB”)
  • Leukosis complex (incl. Marek’s)
  • Airsacculitis – condemn if extensive
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62
Q

What three groups are most likely to be bitten by a dog?

A

children > elderly > postal service workers

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64
Q

Meat can be Passed with_______ when the zoonotic risk is minor and can be mitigated by cooking, freezing, etc.

A

Restrictions

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66
Q

All species with rabies present with paralysis of the muscles in the ______ which may present as dysphagia, salivation, “hydrophobia” and may resemble “choke” in cattle

A

throat

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66
Q

Pasteurization if a function of ____ and _____

A

time and temperature

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67
Q

What factors determine the incubation period of rabies?

A

Number of viruses innoculated

vacinity to the head

innervation

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68
Q

When do you trim? when do you condemn?

A

Trim = localized

Condemn= generalized, zoonotic, unappealing

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69
Q

What is the main reservoir of Bartonella henselae?

A

Cats = “Cat Scratch Disease”

Most cats are asymptomatic

Kittens more likely to be shedding bacteria

More common in warm & humid climates from July- October

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70
Q

Rig provides immediate passive immunity to rabies for ___ to ____ days

A

7-10 days

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71
Q

Most common etiology of mastitis is ___

A

S. aureus

Also caused by Streptococcus spp., E. coli, Klebsiella,
Mycoplasma spp., Serratia etc

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72
Q

When are children usually bitten by dogs?

A

when theiris an absence of an able-bodied person to intervene (87%)

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74
Q

T/F: WEEV requires an additional bridge mosquitoe,

A

False. WEEV only requires Culex tarsalis. No additional mosquito is needed.

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75
Q

Lyme disease is vectored by ___________ ticks and its reservoir is usually ___________. It is NOT reservoired by _______, which only carry/transport the tick

A

Lyme disease is vectored by __Ixodes spp._ ticks and its reservoir is usually _sylvantic rodents__.

It is NOT reservoired by _deer_, which only carry/transport the tick

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75
Q

WNV is maintained in a mosquito-­‐________-­‐mosquito cycle

A

bird

___________

Primarily transmitted by Culex spp. mosquitoes
Birds maintain viremia for 1-­‐4 days post exposure

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75
Q

What is the term to describe an Animal is bought by plant operator, subject to passing inspection. Seller is only paid for those parts passing inspection.

A

Subject to Inspection

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76
Q

T/F: contact with blood, urine, and feces are not considered exposures to rabies

A

true- only if through bite or non-bite routes (organ transplant, aerosol, butchering carcass, unpasteurized milk)

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77
Q

What is the distribution of Chikungunya? How is it transmitted?

A

mosquito vectored

Typically “lives” in Asia, Africa, and the Indian Subcontinent,

BUT it recently spread to St. Marten and then spread from there

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79
Q

These are the 7 steps for what program?

  1. Analyze hazards.
    2. Identify critical control points (CCP)
  2. Establish preventive measures with critical limits for each CCP
  3. Establish procedures to monitor the CCP
  4. Establish corrective actions to be taken.
  5. Establish procedures to verify that the system is working.
  6. Establish effective recordkeeping to document the system.
A

***HACCP ***

81
Q

_________ is the single most important global animal reservoir of rabies (>95% of human cases)

A

the domestic dog

—–

Wildlife (racoons, foxes, skunks, mongoose, bats) are important, especially in developed countries, such as Europe and North America, where dog prevention programs are highly effective

82
Q

How is cats scratch disease transmitted between cats?

A

Cat fleas

83
Q

To reduce DFD meat, what should you do?

A
  1. Ensure adequate muscle glycogen
    • proper feeding before and during transport
    • dont overnight in plant
    • more common in summer due to hear
  2. Reduce glycogen consumption= reduce stress
    • calm, dont mix animals
  3. Remove hormonal implants
84
Q

In the USA, majority of human rabies is caused by _____ varient of rabies virus

A

bat

____

the minor bite wound of a bat aredifficult to detect and people often sleep through exposure. It is usually diagnosed post-mortem (without known exposure history, doctors dont consider rabies…)

85
Q

Leishmania is transmitted by ________

A

sand flies!

87
Q

When will you condemn or trim a liver for human food?

A
  • Condemned for human food if:
    • – Abscesses
    • – Fasciolosis
    • – Cirrhosis
    • – Contamination with dirt, feces
    • – Hydatid cyst, Echinococcus granulosus
  • Parasitic scars may be passed after trimming
  • Fatty liver may be passed for food (depending on appearance)
88
Q

When should you trim or condemn tissues with Taenia spp.?

A
  • Taenia saginata
    • Trim w/ restictions= localized
    • Condemn= extensive
  • Taenia solium
    • condemn = extensive ** most common**
    • trim w/ restriction = localized (rare)
89
Q

Which shellfish toxin is associated with the finoglagellate that causes red tides?

A

Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)

90
Q

If a animal is currently vaccinated for rabies, what is the protocol after exposure?

A

Immediatly revaccinat and have 45 day at home observation.

Euthanize & test if symptoms occur

90
Q

What are two reasons to preform an antemortem inspection of livestock?

A
  • Keeps ill animals out of food chain
  • Reduces contamination of abattoir
91
Q

What are the standards for Grade A milk?

A

Cooled to 7C (45F) within 2 hrs
Certain Somatic Cell Count & Bacterial count

No drug residues

93
Q

How do you prevent rabies in humans after exposure?

A

Wound care: clean with soap and water irrigate wound with virucidal agent (ie. iodine)

Previously vaccinated: vaccine on day 0 & 3

Unvaccinated: Immune globulin infiltration into wound on day 0 and vaccination on day 0, 3, 7, and 14

94
Q

What is the common reservoir of S. aureus?

A

human skin

*** Most common foodborne intoxication***

only one that does NOT form spores

95
Q

Who is the reservoir for Leishmania infantum?

A

Domestic dogs

vector= sandfly

causes visceral leishmaniasis

95
Q

What is the difference b/w traditional and risk based meat inspection?

A

Traditional- sensory/organoleptic inspection of all carcasses. Does not detect high risk, microscopic pathogens.

Risk Base- EVIDENCE BASED targeted reduction and prevention of high risk pathogens to reduce the burden of foodborne disease.

96
Q

What are the 3 main places that Babesiosis occurs in the USA?

A

New england, Wisconsin, Minnesota

98
Q

What process removes sediment from milk by pumping milk through a centrifugal device to remove large particulate matter

(ie Removes dirt, straw, blood, somatic cells, manur)
BUT Does not remove bacteria

A

Clarifier

99
Q

T/F: Hand rubs are not very effective against protozoans, non-enveloped virsus and organic debree

A

True, you should wash your hands with soap and water

100
Q

Meat producers must abide by the ________________ Act if they wish to ship products between states

A

Federal Meat Inspection

101
Q

What is the average incubation period of rabies?

A

1-2 months (can range from weeks to years)

103
Q

The poultry products inspection act ensures poultry is …. (3 things)

A

wholesome, not adulterated, and labeled properly

105
Q

T/F: Screw worms are aggresive obligate myiasis parasites that are erradicated from the USA

A

TRUE- Screwworms are tropical

________________

New world = Cochliomyia hominivorax
Old world = Chrysomya bezziana

105
Q

What is the importance of lymph nodes in meat inspection?

A

Filter disease and are the first tissues to become visible affected by organisms or toxins

eg. abscesses, caseous lymphadenitis

106
Q

What two species are especially vulerable to bruising during transport?

A

sheep and pigs

107
Q

Which of the following diseases tranmitted by Amblyomma is NOT zoonotic?

  • A. E. chaffeensis*
  • B. E. eqingii*
  • C. Panola Mtn. Ehrlichia*
  • D. E. canis*
A

E. canis is NOT considered zoonotic

(see map to remind you of distribution of tick)

109
Q

Which animal is vulnerable to suffocation during transportation?

A

Pigs

111
Q

What ticks transmit Francisella tularensis ? Who is affected by the disease?

A

Tick: Dermacentor (variabilis & andersoni) and Amblyomma americanum

Affects: animals (rabbits) and humans and cats

Causes fever and glangular disease at site of bite, as well as severe life-threatening forms….

CAN ALSO GET BY DIRECT CONTACT WITH CARCASS

Common in Kansas, Missouri, Oklahoma, Arkansas

113
Q

T/F: Facultative myiasis parasites can develop on either alive or dead tissue

A

True

114
Q

Which neurotoxin is prodcued by dinoflagellates and accumuates in ooysters, clams and mussels and causes numbness, tingling and GI upset 1-3 hours after consumption?

A

Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning

115
Q

What is the difference b/w “Dark Firm Dry” and “Pale Soft Exudative” meat? what species is each most common in?

A
  • Dark Firm Dry
    • Cattle
    • Pre-mortem depletion of muscle glycogen
    • Reduced lactic acid –> high pH –> spoilage & firm
    • Downgrades carcass and passed for human consumption - does not affect all of the carcass
  • Pale Soft Dry (PSE)
    • Swine
    • POSTmortem depletion of muscle glycogen
    • accumulation of lactic acid–> low pH –> lose water-binding abilities –> moist.exudative meat
    • Condemned at postmortem insp.
117
Q

What chemical contaminant causes neurological signs (ataxia, blindness, deafness), is concentrated up the marine food chain, and highest in oily predatory fish?

A

Methylmercury

118
Q

What is the Geographic Distribution of WNV ?

A
120
Q

How can you prevent dog bites?

A
  1. learn about suitable dog breed for your householf
  2. never leave a child alone with any dog
  3. spay/neuter
  4. properly socialize and train dogs
  5. avoid direct eye contact
  6. dont approach unfamiliar dogs
  7. dont disturb dogs while eating, sleeping or caring for puppies
  8. do not take objects away from dogs
  9. exercise caution with painful and sick dogs
  10. do not allow kids to feed dogs
  11. Dont be dumb
121
Q

What is the clinical presentation of rotovirus?

A

Children less than 36 months of age with acute diarrhea

winter

temporary lactose intolerance

122
Q

Which fish toxin is found in/on tuna, mackerel, bonito, mahi mahi, marlin, & bluefish and is due to the bacterial convertion of histidine to histamine?

A

Scombrotoxin: Histamine Fish Poisoning

sudden onset (2 min - 2 hours)

Self-limiting

prevention = proper handling - cooking/freezing will not inactivate histamine

123
Q

T/F: Rabies causes a viremia, so you can be infected by contacting blood

A

FALSE - there is NO viremia.

The virus is neurotropic and enter peripheral nerves at the site of the wound. It travels via retrograde flow (to the brain) and centrifugal flow (to innervated organs & salivary glands) in the axoplasm of nerves

125
Q

WNV is Primarily transmitted by _____ spp. mosquitoes

A

Culex

126
Q

Which Equine Encephalitis Virus is most fatal in horses?

A

EEEV: 90% fatal

_______

VEEV: with some strains (reportable)

WEEV: 20-40% fatal

Cause encephalitis and/or febrile disease in both horses and humans

127
Q

In which species is animals branded “B” for brucellosis infection not slaughtered for consumption? in which species is the meat considered safe?

A

not slaughtered/destroyed= goats

Safe= cattle and pigs

129
Q

Where is the plague (Yersinia pestis) found in the USA? what is the vector?

A

Found in New Mexico, Arizona and Colorado (see map)

Vectored by the oriental rat flea , which is primarily on rats, but can go to animals and humans

131
Q

Who are the primary reservoirs of Taenia saginata? How is the disease prevented?

A

primary reservoir= humans

Prevention = meat inspection, proper cooking of meat, proper sewage treatment, prevent human fecal contamination of cattle food/pastures, treat people with tapeworms

132
Q

Why are outbreaks of norovirus often large?

A
  • Multiple potential modes of transmission
  • Prolonged asymptomatic shedding at high levels
  • Environmental stability of the virus
  • Lack of persistent cross-­‐protective immunity
134
Q

What consists of the SPS aggrement?

A

SPS = Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures Agreement

  • Agreement signed when nations join the WTO
  • Apply measures to protect human, animal and plant life and health
  • Only apply measures that are based on science
  • Standards are made by the:
    • ​Animal Health: World Animal Health Org (OIE)
    • Food Control: Codex Alementarius Commission (CAC)
136
Q

Where are Dermacentor spp. distribution in the USA? What zoonotic disease does it vector?

A

EVERYTHWERE - maps of different Dermacentor species overlap

Vectors:

(1) Rickettsia rickettsii - RMSF - causes rash in humans and dogs, can be fatal
(2) Other Spotted-fever group richettsia (~20 species worldwide)
(2) Tularemia/ Francisella tularensis - rabbits and humans

138
Q

What is the gold standard for rabies diagnosis?

A

Testing for the presence of viral antigens in the brain by direct fluorescent antibody tests

cell culture is often done as a back up

you should submit the entire head of the animal

139
Q

What Lyssavirus virus is most important?

A

Rabies virus RABV

140
Q

What animals are affected by Ciguatera Poisoning? What produces the toxin?

A

people and cats are affected

dinoflagellate protozans produce the toxin

141
Q

What are the typical illness/clinical signs of viral, bacterial and parasitic foodborne illnesses?

A
  • Viral- short incubation (except hep A), vomiting >diarrhea, short duration
  • Bacterial- moderate incubation period, no vomiting and longer duration of diarrhea
  • Parasitic- longer incubation (1-2weeks) and longer illness (>2 weeks)
142
Q

What separate milk with different amounts of fat based upon centrifugation?

A

Separator!

143
Q

When are animals examined during the slaughtering process?

A

Ante Mortem

Post Mortem

144
Q

What very common mosquito borne disease is Anthroponotic?

A

Malaria (P. falciparum, P. vivax)

145
Q

What are the reservoirs of Trichinella? How is it prevented?

A

Many reservoirs= rodents, pigs (T. spiralis), actic cycles, sylvantic cycles

Prevention:

  • Consumer education - cook meat
  • Freeze meat to -15 C for 20 days in some species
  • Proper handing of meat
  • Dont feed undercooked meat to animals (pigs and dogs)
  • Indoor rearing of pigs/dogs
  • Rodent control in pig barns
146
Q

What are the natural reservoirs for WEEV and EEEV?

A

Mosquitoes are biological vectors

148
Q

What is a typical fly/Diptera life cycle?

A

ELPA

149
Q

Duration of illness of hepatitis is several ____ to ___

A

weeks to months

(all other viruses have a shorter duration- ie days)

150
Q

Of the two forms of rabies signs, furious and dumb, which is most common in the cat? and which is most common in dogs?

A

Furious = Cat> dogs

Dumb= Dogs > cats

151
Q

How does batch and continuous-flow pasteurization work?

A
  • *Batch**= entire batch is heated and held at temperature for the appropriate length of time
  • *Continuous-­‐flow** = Milk flows through a heated tube, with a carefully monitored transit time and temperature. Faster and Less of a “cooked” flavor than seen with batch methods
153
Q

What is the most important reservoir for hepatitis A?

A

People- shed virus through feces (from bile) for 1-3 weeks before illness (long incubation period) and several weeks after illness

154
Q

How do humans/animals get Dipylidium caninum infections?

A

By ingesting fleas

155
Q

What are reservoirs of Clostridium botulinum?

A

Soil

Sediments

Intestinal Tracts of fish and mammals

Gills

Honey

156
Q

What are the two steps for humane slaughter (if not kosher/halal)?

A
  1. Stunning (CO2, electricity, captive bolt, firearms)
  2. Exsanguination
157
Q

Acording to the federal meat inspecion act, what 4 things must food be?

A
  1. Sanitary
  2. Free of pathogens
  3. Not adulterated
  4. Properly labeled
158
Q

T/F: 90+% of people infected with EEEV are asymtomatic. If symptoms occur they range from flu-like to enephalitis to 90% CFR.

A

FALSE!!!: 90+% of people infected with EEEV are asymtomatic. If symptoms occur they range from flu-like to enephalitis to 30% CFR.

____

there is no specific treatment for EEEV

160
Q

What signalment makes up 70-76% of reported dog bites?

A

Unneutered male dog

161
Q

Under the PMO, milk may be stored for up to ___ days in
a bulk tank

A

4

162
Q

Define foodborne illness

A

Dzes, usually either infectious or toxic in nature, caused by agents that enter the body through the ingestion of food.

164
Q

What food does the FDA regulate?

A
  • Shell egg safety in the USA
    – Milk pasteurization
    – Seafood (except catfish)
    – Fruits/vegetables
    – Processed foods
    – Everything else not covered by the USDA
165
Q

T/F: The CDC recommends a community approach to dog bite prevention that focuses on improving the quality of human-­‐canine interactions and the care of all canine species

A

True

166
Q

Why does the AVMA think breed bans dont work (6 reasons)?

A
  1. Heredity isn’t the only cause of biting behavior
  2. No reliable denominator for # of dogs of each breed
  3. No correction of data for repeat biters
  4. Unreliable reporting of breed by owners / reports
  5. Changing popularity of breeds over time
  6. Breed bans may cause a false sense of security: any breed CAN bite!
168
Q

What is the best way to prevent Hep A?

A

Vaccination (last 20 years)

also target vehicle (feces contamination) and personal hygeine

170
Q

Sentinel surveillance using ______is effective and is used in some areas to detect VEEV

A

pheasants

172
Q

,_________ feeds on birds at night, but will feed on humans if birds are absent

A

Bird mites

173
Q

WEEV occurs at low levels in the West and is most common in _________ areas

A

farming/irrigated fields

174
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is Transmitted by________of
kissing bugs in the Americas

A

FECES

________

Causes acute followed by chronic disease in dogs and humans.

30% of humans develop heart disease 10% megaesophagus/colon

175
Q

What is the diffrence b/w a sporadic and outbreak foodborne illness?

A
  • Sporadic- random, usually unrecognized
  • Outbreak- two or more cases of a similar illness from a common food. More likely to be recognized
    • exception- one case of botulis or listeria is condidered an outbreak
176
Q

Many mites are acquired by ______

A

Direct skin contact

177
Q

T/F: Mosquitoes that feed on infected horses acquire the WEEV/EEEV virus

A

FALSE!!! Mosquitoes that feed on infected horses DO NOT acquire the WEEV/EEEV virus

178
Q

At what temperatures do you want to keep food at?

A

Below 40 F or Greater than 140 F

179
Q

What is exempt from FMIA regulations?

A
  1. Slaughter of food for own consumption
  2. Retail dealers with >75% of sale to retail cutomers (must meet health department standards)
  3. Meat purchased out of the US for own consumption , if not exceeding 50 lbs
  4. Wild game - if sold commercially FDA requires it to be from an approved source
181
Q

FSIS inspectors do have the right to immediately halt all slaughter at a plant in cases of _______ violations

A

egregious (inhumane)

183
Q

What are the components of pre and post harvest food safety?

A
  • Pre-harvest - birth until stunning at slaughter or up to milking/laying eggs
    • goal is to reduce load of pathogens in/on the animal
    • On farm food safety
    • Antemortem inspection at slaughter plants
  • Post-harvest- stunning/milking/laying to consumption
    • post mortem inspection, meat hygeine
184
Q

Rabies virus may be shed in the saliva up to ____days, before clinical onset of rabies

A

10

185
Q

What do you call a meat if it Can be used for human food with restrictions: only if heated, cooked, refrigerated for several days, or added to a comminuted product

A

Restricted

186
Q

What disease/Etiology is the leading cause of seizure epilepsy in developing world and has a 50-80% death rate without treatment?

A

Neurocysticercosis - Taenia solium

——–

Humans infected by ingestion of HUMAN feces -or- autoinfection if infected with adult (=taeniasis from eating undercooked pork)

187
Q

How are humans infested with Oestrus ovis?

A

Humans infested at mucous membranes (nose, conjunctiva, GI)

188
Q

What has the highest case fatality of any conventional infectious diseases (excluding prions)?

A

Rabies

190
Q

Define foodborne illness outbreak

A

The occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a common food

191
Q

Having materials on the surface – dirty, stained, infected, etc. – that can be removed by trimming is considered a ______ carcass

A

contaminated

192
Q

What are two obligate parasite protozoa that are transmitted by flies? what are their specific fly vectors?

A

Sandflies: Leishmania
Tsetse flies and Kissing bugs: Trypanosoma

193
Q

What disease causes abortion in women who eat unpasteurized milk, some cheeses, unwashed produce and deli meat?

A

Listeria monocytogens

———

Also causes generalized disease (septicemia, meningitis) in immunocompromised people

Flu-like/Food poisening symptoms in most healthy exposed people

195
Q

In what part of the world do 86% of human trichinellosis occur?

A

Europe - 56% from romania

196
Q

Fleas are considered zoonotic because they…

A. Can cause humans to develop a hypersensitivity to their saliva

B. Transmit the bubonic/septicemic/pneumoni plaque (Yersina pestis) to humans

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

A

Both A and B

197
Q

When should you euthanize an animal after they have been exposed?

A

If any animals is legally unvaccinated or if symptoms occur

in some areas/cases, unvaccinated dogs/cat/ferret can be isolated from all contact with both animals and humans

198
Q

What are the top 5 foodborne bacterial infections?

A
  1. Campylobacter jejuni- intestinal flora in BIRDs and mammals
    2. Salmonella spp- GI flora, eggs and skin flora in reptiles
    3. E. coli - GI flora of mammals
    4. Vibrio cholerae - people and brackish waters
    5. Listeria monocytogenese- soil, water, animals, dairy
199
Q

When do spillover cycles occur?

A

spillover= epizootics cycle

They occur when there is an such a large increased transmission of the virus b/w the mosquitoe and bird/rodent that it “spills over” to an incidental host (usually dead-end)

Dead- End Exception: BOTH horses (common) and humans (rare) with VEEV have high enough viremia to infect mosquitoes

200
Q

Humans are _____ host of Babesia

A

dead end

201
Q

Humans are ____ host of fly myiases

A

accidental

202
Q

What is one big differance b/w cattle and swine carcass handling after slaughter?

A

In swine, you do not remove the skin

203
Q

If you have a patient with febrile illness and muscle aches in an area that has Ixodes spp. BUT the animal comes back negative for lyme, what other tick-borne disease should be on your differential list?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

It has the same vector (ixodes) and distribution as lyme disease.

It also causes similar, but typically less severe, disease as lyme.

It is common for animals to be co-infected with both lyme and anaplasma. Luckly they both respond well to doxy.

204
Q

What are the 4 D’s of condemnation of meat?

A

Dead, Dying, Diseased, Disabled

205
Q

What is OFFS?

A

“On Farm Food Safety”

“best practices” aimed at reducing pathogen load in animals

Food animal Vets play a central role

Consists of Herd health, biosecurity, feed security, appropriate antimicrobial use (AMU) and animal welfare

206
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi (“Lyme disease”) causes disease in _____, ______, & _______

A

people, dogs and horses

It causes both acute febrile illness AND chronic disease.

207
Q

What is an indicator of subclinical mastitis?

A

SCC >200,000 and decrease production

208
Q

What term Refers to the ultimate handling of a carcass or its parts according to current regulations

A

Disposition

210
Q

What nematode uses flies (Musca) to transmit its eggs into the conjunctival and lacrimal sacs of humans (and other species)?

A

Thelazia - eyeworm

211
Q

True or False

Idexx’s SNAP 4Dx Plus is diagnostic for Ehrlichia, Lyme and Anaplasma

A

FALSE

it is NOT diagnostic. It only detects ANTIBODIES, which only indicates past exposure.

212
Q

Ticks and chiggers are acquired from ______________

A

the environment (usually)

(does not mean thay can also come from other hosts, ie your dog that plays outside)

213
Q

T/F: CCP for HACCP must be point in which intervention is feasible and likely to significantly diminish/eliminate risk

A

True!

214
Q

What is the worlds most deadliest animal?

A

Mosquito

215
Q

What should you do if a unvaccinated dog/cat/ferret bites a human?

A

If unowned - euthanize and test

if symptomatic- euthanize and test

in some areas you can quarentine for 10-days with daily exams and vaccinate on day 10 (prior to release)- this is the max time that shedding can occur before clinical signs present

216
Q

Define Food Quality

A

attributes that affect a products value. Ensure flavour, tenderness, colour etc.

217
Q

If considering condemnation of meat, When can you hold animal for possible recovery?

A

Post-­‐parturient, until placenta passes (several hours)

218
Q

_______are the most common cause of
foodborne illness

A

Viruses

220
Q

Pasteurization is currently based on the thermal death of ________

A

Coxiella burnetii

221
Q

T/F: Foreign importers into US – must have standards “equivalent” to US law OR demonstrate equivalent risk

A

True

222
Q

T/F: Freezing and cooking scombrotoxin infected fish, kills the bacteria but does not inactivate the histamine

A

True

223
Q

What is the distribution of EEEV ?

** Learning Objective**

A
224
Q

What are the clinical features and prevention measures of Tetrodotoxin: Pufferfish poisoning?

A

vasopressive and neurotoxin –> paralysis –> asphyxiation

Prevention: (1) aquacultured pufferfish are poisen free (2) Avoid liver, ovaries and skin

225
Q

Relapsing-fever group Borellia is _______ and ______ by soft ticks

A

Vectored AND Reservoir’ed

227
Q

What is the difference of people infected with hepatitis A in high endemicity regions compared to low endemicity region?

A
  • High Endemicity- entire population is infected as children with minimal clinical disease
  • Low Edemicity- adults are more susceptible and more infections produce clinical disease
228
Q

_____ rabies virus tranmission has been eliminated in the USA

A

Dog

229
Q

Chiggers are considered zoonotic because they:

a. usually feed on small wildlife, such as rodents and reptiles
b. will attack humans and cause red, itchy bites
c. only transmit scrub typhus (Orientia tsutsugamushi) in Southeast Asia
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

230
Q

Should people with high risk of contracting rabies be vaccinated more often?

A

nope, they should have their titers determine and only be vaccinated if their titer is low.

231
Q

Poultry are stunned by _____

A

electricity

their heads are immediatatly cut after

233
Q

Obligate myiasis parasites need _______\_(live or dead) tissue to develop

A

Obligate myiasis parasites need LIVE tissue to develop

__________

Ex. Bot flies and Screwworms

235
Q

In chickens and turkeys, transport increases fecal excretion of ________

A

Salmonella

236
Q

What is used in a organoleptic inspection?

A

Sight, feel, smell, hearing

237
Q

What is HACCP?

A

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
A system for PREVENTING contamination of food during processing

  • Identify places (CCP) in the process of making food where problems (hazards) could occur
  • Implement procedures to prevent that problem from occurring at each critical point
  • Measure to ensure effectiveness
238
Q

About how many Lyssavirus species/genotypes cause rabies?

A

11-12

239
Q

Rabies is dtsributed on _____ continents

A

ALL (except antarctica)

240
Q

What is the #1 cowside test for mastitis?

A

California mastitis test (CMT)

241
Q

Which of the following clinical signs are not seen in VEEV?

  1. Either febrile or encephalitis disease in horses
  2. Peracute death in horses
  3. 10% of humans are symptomatic
  4. Human symptoms are typically febrine with 1% of adults and 4% of children developing neuro signs
  5. Human fatality occurs10% of adults and 35% of children that develop neuro signs
A
  1. 10% of humans are symptomatic

100% of humans are symptomatic!!

242
Q

What are the 3 forms of Leishmania?

A
  1. Cutaneous (localized and diffuse) – Obvious skin reactions & Non-healing ulcer
    • rodent= reservoir
  2. Mucocutaneous – Start off at the bite site –> Chronic ulcers, very large, disfiguring… can be fatal
  3. Visceral – Fever, lymphadenopathy, spenomegaly, hepatomegaly, anemia
243
Q

What caused this? Where is it in the world?

A

Jigger Flea (Tunga penetrans)

Causes raised white spot with a central black dot due to the feal burrowing into the skin.

Found in Tropicl Africa, South America and WEST INDIES

244
Q

T/F: You should not be worried about blood as a potential source of zoonotic disease

A

FALSE: new emerging disease can occur and the blood may be human

245
Q

What fly is attracted to open woulds (especially in sheep) and is a facultative myiasis parasite?

A

Lucilia sericata

______

found in the USA
very common in sheep, occasionally humans are infested

246
Q

Which virus:

  • Foreign to the US!!!!! - REPORTABLE
  • Enzootic (sylvatic) transmission is between rodents and Culex spp. mosquitoes – Strains are different and not very pathogenic
  • Epizootic transmission is associated with equines, highly pathogenic strains, and different mosquitoes (Psorophora spp., Aedes spp., etc)
    • Horses are a key reservoir/amplifying species– levels in human blood are also high enough to infect mosquitoes
A

VEEV

247
Q

How is norovirus transmitted?

A
  • Direct Fecal-oral
  • Contaminated food with feces - * infected food handlers*
  • Fomites- last a week on surfaces
248
Q

What are the top 5 foodborn hazards? which result in the most hospitalizations and deaths?

A

Most Common: Notovirus > Salmonella > Clostridium perfringens > Camplyobacter> Staph aureus

Most Hospitalization: Salmonella > norovirus > Campylobacter> Toxoplasma gondii > E. coli

Most Deaths: Salmonella > Toxoplasma gondii > Listeria monocytogenes > norovirus > Camylobacter

249
Q

What is the cause of Amnesic Shellfish Poisoning? What food is associated with it?

A

Toxin: Domoic Acid produced by a diatom (phytoplankton or algae)
Vehicle: oysters, clams, and mussels on East and west coast of northern US and Canada

250
Q

Sarcoptes mites are zoonotic because they:

a. transmit infectious agents that cause severe disease
b. cause intesnse purtritis and rashes in humans
c. are adapted to a specific/preferred host, BUT can still bite other hosts
d. both B & C
e. all of the above

A

D. Both B & C are correct

Sarcoptes is considered zoonotic because they cause intesnse purtritis and rashes in humans & are adapted to a specific/preferred host, BUT can still bite other hosts

251
Q

Poultry products are Inspected for _____________ during meat inspection

A

Wholesomeness

252
Q

Public Health Veterinarian (PHV) Make a DISPOSITION at inspection. This disposition of animals is directed by criteria that are found in the ___ and ______ Inspection Regulations

A

Meat and Poultry Inspection Regulation

The disposition is a porfessional issue and should be made with dispatch, confidence and consistency.

253
Q

What is the extrinisc incubation period?

A

Number of days it takes a pathogen to develop in the mosquito and become infectious after itis acquired

depends upon the pathogen, mosquito and temperature

disease is acquired by the mosquito via blood meal

254
Q

_______ requires a “bridge” mosquito (Aedes) for the epizootic cycle to occur between birds and the incidental hosts (horses, humans, swine, ratites)

A

EEEV

Epizootics tend to be self-­‐limiting, and usually occur within a few miles of an enzootic swamp habitat
Incidental hosts are dead-­‐end

255
Q

T/F: Pountry is covered by the FMIA

A

False! It is covered by the PPIA

256
Q

An animal with TB is condemned if lesions are …. (3 things)

A

active, extensive or in multiple tissues

257
Q

True or False

There is no vaccine for EEEV in horses

A

False! There is a equine vaccine

258
Q

What is the difference b/w penetrating and non-penetrating captive bolts for stunning animals?

A

Penetrating - bolt enters cranium/brain

non-penetrating = causes concussion –> less contamination (preferred)

259
Q

What should you do with a bruised carcass?

A

Localized = trim

Associated with systemic change= condemn

260
Q

What is the reservoir of C. perfringens?

A

Soil

Sediments

Intestinal Tracts of People and Animals

261
Q

What should you do if a carcass is ematiated?

A

condemn

262
Q

what is the clinical presentation of norovirus?

A

Acute onset and short duration of vomiting and watery diarrhea

263
Q

___% of cat bites become infected.

A

80%

_________

Pasteurella multocida = gingival flora in ~90% of cats
Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infections

264
Q

T/F: Rotovirus vaccines are an important prevention measure that is given to children at a very young age (2 months) in order to delay the age of infection

A

True

265
Q

T/F: Intoxication occurs when bacteria colonize in the GI tract

A
266
Q

Which four bacteria cause intoxication?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Clostridium botulinum - neurotoxin
  • Clostridium perfringens
267
Q

Which exotic bot fly uses another insect as a “vector” to deliver larvae to humans, cattle, dogs, monkey and swin (not host specific) and is assiociated with travel medicine?

A

Dermatobia hominis - the “human” bot fly

___

usually presents as skin nodules

268
Q

What is the WTO role in food safety?

A

World Trade Organization is the overarching organization that Countries join

Countries that join the WTO sign the SPS agreeing to use the standards set by the Codex and OIE

269
Q

What zoonosis does Ancylostoma caninum cause in southern USA?

A

Cutaneous larval migrans

270
Q

What are two common meat preservatives? and does the meat products label have to reflect the presence of chemical additives?

A

Polphosphates (maintain water) and Nitrates (preverves red color & bacteriostatic)

YES, the labeling must relect the presece of any chemical additives to meat

271
Q

Why is it bad to lose muscle glycogen post/premortem?

A

Glycogen is coverted to lactic acid which lowers the pH of the muscle and tenderizes the meat.

Epi (Elise) (3 decks)

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