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UWorld > UWorld2 > Flashcards

UWorld2 Flashcards

1
Q

Th cells are important for the prevention of superficial Candida infection; […] prevent its hematogenous spread.

A

Th cells are important for the prevention of superficial Candida infection; neutrophils prevent its hematogenous spread.

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2
Q

The ureters cross over the common/external iliac vessels and under the […].

A

The ureters cross over the common/external iliac vessels and under the gonadal vessels (and uterine vessels in females).They lie anterolateral to the internal iliac vessels and medial to the ovarian vessels within the true pelvis.

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3
Q

[…] = accuracy; reliability = precision

A

Validity = accuracy; reliability = precision

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4
Q

Validity = accuracy; […] = precision

A

Validity = accuracy; reliability = precision

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5
Q

The […] skin test can be used to distinguish between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy.

A

The lepromin skin test can be used to distinguish between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy.Tuberculoid pts will develop an indurated nodule at the site of the injection – usually nonreactive in lepromatous pts due to weak Th1 response

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6
Q

Supplementary O2 must be used judiciously in patients with COPD because […].

A

Supplementary O2 must be used judiciously in patients with COPD because hypoxia drives their respiratory function.(In normal individuals, pCO2 mediates respiratory drive.)

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7
Q

[…] antibodies have a high specificity for rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Anti-CCP antibodies have a high specificity for rheumatoid arthritis.RF (anti-IgG) occur in only 80% of RA pts and 10% of healthy individuals (+30% lupus pts)

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8
Q

A […] that becomes both deeper and steepers during inspiration is often observed on JVP tracing in constrictive pericarditis.

A

A rapid y-descent that becomes both deeper and steepers during inspiration is often observed on JVP tracing in constrictive pericarditis.

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9
Q

Only […] has a pentasaccharide chain long enough (>18 units) to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.

A

Only unfractionated heparin has a pentasaccharide chain long enough (>18 units) to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.It thus has equal activity against Factor Xa and thrombin, while LMWH has greater activity against Factor Xa than thrombin.

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10
Q

[…] syndrome typically occurs 2-8 weeks after exposure to high-risk drugs such as anticonvulsants, allopurinol, sulfonamide, and antibiotics.

A

DRESS syndrome typically occurs 2-8 weeks after exposure to high-risk drugs such as anticonvulsants, allopurinol, sulfonamide, and antibiotics.Pts typically develops fever, gen lymphad, facial edema, diffuse skin rash, eosinophilia, and internal organ dysf

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11
Q

Rebound rhinorrhea is associated with the use of topical decongestants for >3 days. The use of adrenergic agonists should be stopped to allow for restoration of normal […] feedback pathways.

A

Rebound rhinorrhea is associated with the use of topical decongestants for >3 days. The use of adrenergic agonists should be stopped to allow for restoration of normal norepinephrine feedback pathways.Tachyphylaxis = rapidly declining effect after a few days of use

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12
Q

[…] is characterized by the persistence of primary, unmineralized spongiosa in the medullary canals.

A

Osteopetrosis is characterized by the persistence of primary, unmineralized spongiosa in the medullary canals.In normal individuals, primary spongiosa is replaced by bone marrow.

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13
Q

Increased reabsorption of cortical bones results in subperiosteal thinning – a characteristic feature of […].

A

Increased reabsorption of cortical bones results in subperiosteal thinning – a characteristic feature of hyperparathyroidism.

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14
Q

[…] works by destabilizing cell membranes and coagulating intracellular constituants.

A

Chlorhexidine works by destabilizing cell membranes and coagulating intracellular constituants.Contr. in neuro/otol/ophtho procedures because of neurotoxicity

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15
Q

Amanita phalloides = […]

A

Amanita phalloides = death cap mushroom-> amatoxins -> halt mRNA synthesis (m for mushroom) -> abdominal pain, vomiting, cholera-like diarrhea that may contain blood/mucus -> hep/ren failure

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16
Q

[…] and nitric oxide (NO) both use the cGMP second messenger system.

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and nitric oxide (NO) both use the cGMP second messenger system.The cGMP system is different because the receptor and guyanylate cyclase are part of the same protein (as opposed to cAMP system which has 4 distinct proteins) – this protein exists in both transmembrane form for ANP and free cytosolic form for NO.

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17
Q

RNase L and protein kinase R only become active in the presence of […].

A

RNase L and protein kinase R only become active in the presence of dsRNA.Activated through binding of IFN-a/b to type I IFN receptors of neighboring cells (paracrine signaling)

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18
Q

Astrocytomas, ependymomas, and oligodendrogliomas all stain positive for […].

A

Astrocytomas, ependymomas, and oligodendrogliomas all stain positive for GFAP.Tumors of neuronal origin stain positive for synaptophysin.

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19
Q

Unlike Neimann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs has no […].

A

Unlike Neimann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs has no hepatosplenomegaly.

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20
Q

While […] contain mitochondria, they cannot utilize ketone bodies because they lack the enzyme succinyl CoA-acetoacetate CoA transferase (thiophorase).

A

While hepatocytes contain mitochondria, they cannot utilize ketone bodies because they lack the enzyme succinyl CoA-acetoacetate CoA transferase (thiophorase).Erythrocytes are the other cell type that cannot utilize ketone bodies.

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21
Q

Increased activity of T cells and […] is thought to be responsible for IL-2’s anti-tumor effects.

A

Increased activity of T cells and NK cells is thought to be responsible for IL-2’s anti-tumor effects.Aldesleukin for met melanoma / RCC

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22
Q

Succinylcholine can cause significant […] release in high-risk patients (burns, myopathies, crush, denervating injuries).

A

Succinylcholine can cause significant potassium release in high-risk patients (burns, myopathies, crush, denervating injuries).Use non-depolarizing agents such as vecuronium or rocuronium.

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23
Q

On examination, […] manifests as a vaginal bulge and/or mass palpated anterior to the rectum.

A

On examination, hematocolpos manifests as a vaginal bulge and/or mass palpated anterior to the rectum.

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24
Q

In the lungs, binding of O2 to Hg drives release of H+ and CO2 ([…] effect) – In peripheral tissues, high concentrations of CO2 and H+ facilitate O2 unloading (Bohr effect).

A

In the lungs, binding of O2 to Hg drives release of H+ and CO2 (Haldane effect) – In peripheral tissues, high concentrations of CO2 and H+ facilitate O2 unloading (Bohr effect).

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25
Q

In the lungs, binding of O2 to Hg drives release of H+ and CO2 (Haldane effect) – In peripheral tissues, high concentrations of CO2 and H+ facilitate O2 unloading ([…] effect).

A

In the lungs, binding of O2 to Hg drives release of H+ and CO2 (Haldane effect) – In peripheral tissues, high concentrations of CO2 and H+ facilitate O2 unloading (Bohr effect).

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26
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase:
[…] signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase:
MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

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27
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – […]
Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)
Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

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28
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for […]

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

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29
Q

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:
[…] signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase:MAP-kinase signaling pathwayExamples – GF receptors (EGF, PDGF, FGF, etc.)Tyrosine-kinase associated receptor:
JAK/STAT signaling pathwayExamples – receptors for cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

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30
Q

[…] deposits may be seen in MPGN type I. These deposits are subendothelial.

A

C1q deposits may be seen in MPGN type I. These deposits are subendothelial.

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31
Q

The […] is the distance at which the originating potential decreases to 37% of its original amplitude.

A

The length constant is the distance at which the originating potential decreases to 37% of its original amplitude.Also known as the space constantDemyelination will DECREASE the length constant and result in impaired stimulus transmission.

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32
Q

For patients with […], work of breathing is minimized when the respiratory rate is high and the tidal volume is low.

A

For patients with increased elastic resistance (restrictive lung diseases), work of breathing is minimized when the respiratory rate is high and the tidal volume is low.In diseases that cause high airflow resistance (obstructive), patients breathe at a lower rate to minimize work of breathing.

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33
Q

If the SMA is obstructed in utero, […] occurs.

A

If the SMA is obstructed in utero, “apple-peel” atresia occurs.=blind-ending proximal jejunim with absence of a long length of small bowel and dorsal mesentery

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34
Q

Jejunal, ileal, and colonic atresia are not caused by abnormal fetal development, but rather […] in utero.

A

Jejunal, ileal, and colonic atresia are not caused by abnormal fetal development, but rather vascular accidents in utero.Decreased perfusion -> ischemia of bowel segment -> narrowing/obliteration of the lumen
Ileum is affected most often.

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35
Q

[…] is a diuretic that has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in class III and IV heart failure patients.

A

Spironolactone is a diuretic that has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in class III and IV heart failure patients.Athough probably due to its aldo antagonism and not to diuresis (small dosages were used)

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36
Q

In PCOS pts who desire to become pregnant, medications aimed at inducing ovulation such as […] are used.

A

In PCOS pts who desire to become pregnant, medications aimed at inducing ovulation such as clomiphene are used.Clomiphene = selective estrogen receptor modulator that prevents negative feedback inhibition on hypothalamus -> increased gonadotropin production -> ovulation

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37
Q

Transformation = direct uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria that are naturally competent, such as:[…]

A

Transformation = direct uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria that are naturally competent, such as:S. pneumo, H. flu, Neisseria sp.

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38
Q

TNF-alpha can trigger […] kinase activity that leads to insulin resistance.

A

TNF-alpha can trigger serine kinase activity that leads to insulin resistance.

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39
Q

[…] is the 2nd most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV.

A

Primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL) is the 2nd most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV.Large, solitary lesions are more suspicious for PCNSL than toxoplasmosis, but mult lesions are also common.EBV identified in almost all cases

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40
Q

[…] is a nonselective, irreversible alpha-adrenergic antagonist.

A

Phenoxybenzamine is a nonselective, irreversible alpha-adrenergic antagonist.Phentolamine is a reversible, competitive alpha antagonist.

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41
Q

[…] is the only statin not metabolized by CYP450 3A4.

A

Pravastatin is the only statin not metabolized by CYP450 3A4.

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42
Q

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase, urinary hydroxyproline, and urinary deoxypyridinoline reflect […] activity.

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase, urinary hydroxyproline, and urinary deoxypyridinoline reflect osteoclastic activity.

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43
Q

PT is first to be prolonged in liver disease because […].

A

PT is first to be prolonged in liver disease because Factor VII has the shortest half life.

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44
Q

Abnormalities of the mandible, maxilla, malleus, incus, zygoma, vomer, palate, and temporal bone = […] syndrome

A

Abnormalities of the mandible, maxilla, malleus, incus, zygoma, vomer, palate, and temporal bone = first arch syndrome

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45
Q

[…] is distinguished by eggshell calcification of hilar nodes and birefringent particles surrounded by fibrous tissue.

A

Silicosis is distinguished by eggshell calcification of hilar nodes and birefringent particles surrounded by fibrous tissue.

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46
Q

[…] is the drug of choice for status epilepticus.

A

Lorazepam is the drug of choice for status epilepticus.Administer phenytoin simultaneously to prevent recurrence.

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47
Q

Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used in lymphoma immunotherapy that specifically targets the […] surface immunoglobulin.

A

Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used in lymphoma immunotherapy that specifically targets the CD20 surface immunoglobulin.

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48
Q

[…] is a monoclonal antibody used in lymphoma immunotherapy that specifically targets the CD20 surface immunoglobulin.

A

Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used in lymphoma immunotherapy that specifically targets the CD20 surface immunoglobulin.

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49
Q

[…] are one form of penicillin-binding protein that function to cross-link peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall.

A

Transpeptidases are one form of penicillin-binding protein that function to cross-link peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall.Inhib with cephalosporins

50
Q

Neutrophil […] is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum in bacterial infections.

A

Neutrophil myeloperoxidase is responsible for the green color of pus and sputum in bacterial infections.

51
Q

The enzyme neutrophil alk phos is normal or elevated in a […] and decreased in CML.

A

The enzyme neutrophil alk phos is normal or elevated in a leukemoid reaction and decreased in CML.Both conditions cause the white blood cell count to be increased – similar presentations.

52
Q

1.96 and 2.58 are z-scores for […].

A

1.96 and 2.58 are z-scores for 95% and 99% of the distribution, respectively.95% CI would be given by the mean +/- 1.96 x SESE = SD / sq(n)

53
Q

mTOR activation is inhibited by […], a tumor suppressor protein that removed the phosphate group from PIP3.

A

mTOR activation is inhibited by PTEN, a tumor suppressor protein that removed the phosphate group from PIP3.mTOR is activated by Akt (=protein kinase B) to induce genes involved in cell survival, anti-apoptosis, and angiogenesis.PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathwayRapamycin / sirolimus = mTOR inhibitor

54
Q

Both the […] and the trachea are lined with ciliated, pseudostratified, columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium.

A

Both the paranasal sinuses and the trachea are lined with ciliated, pseudostratified, columnar, mucus-secreting epithelium.Nose, paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, most of larynx, tracheobronchial tree = pseudostratified columnarOropharynx, laryngopharynx, anterior epiglottis, upper half of posterior epiglottis, vocal folds (true vocal cords) = stratified squamous

55
Q

The […] courses deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and loops around the internal jugular vein.

A

The ansa cervicalis courses deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and loops around the internal jugular vein.Inn. to sternohyiod, sternothyroid, and omohyoidC1-3

56
Q

The […] artery courses with the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

A

The superior thyroid artery courses with the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

57
Q

In the USA, the majority of overdose deaths are caused by […].

A

In the USA, the majority of overdose deaths are caused by opioid analgesics.Rx drugs now kill more than heroin and cocaine combined

58
Q

[…] is the only RNA species that contains the nucleoside thymidine.

A

tRNA is the only RNA species that contains the nucleoside thymidine.Also contains dihydrouracil (in D arm) and pseudouridine + cytidine (with thymidine in T arm)

59
Q

tRNA contains a 5’ […] and a 3’ CCA tail.

A

tRNA contains a 5’ terminal phosphate and a 3’ CCA tail.

60
Q

tRNA contains a 5’ terminal phosphate and a 3’ […].

A

tRNA contains a 5’ terminal phosphate and a 3’ CCA tail.

61
Q

The 2 most important acid buffers in the urine are […] and NH3.

A

The 2 most important acid buffers in the urine are HPO4(2-) and NH3.

62
Q

In the stomach, TGF-alpha causes […] cell hyperplasia.

A

In the stomach, TGF-alpha causes mucosal cell hyperplasia.

63
Q

Toxin penetration through the blood-nerve barrier, leading to peripheral neuropathy, occurs with […].

A

Toxin penetration through the blood-nerve barrier, leading to peripheral neuropathy, occurs with diphtheria.

64
Q

Post-prandial epigastric pain and food aversion in the setting of generalized atherosclerosis is consistent with […].

A

Post-prandial epigastric pain and food aversion in the setting of generalized atherosclerosis is consistent with chronic mesenteric ischemia.”Intestinal angina”

65
Q

Cystathionine synthetase requires […] as a cofactor.

A

Cystathionine synthetase requires pyridoxine as a cofactor.Most pts with homocystinuria respond dramatically to pyridoxine supplementation.

66
Q

Alpha-methyltyrosine is used only in patients with […].

A

Alpha-methyltyrosine is used only in patients with pheochromocytoma.Blocks catecholemine biosynthesis at rate-limiting step

67
Q

Lesions that enlarge and coalesce, leaving a bronze-colored, central indurated area with peripheral blistering and scaling = […]

A

Lesions that enlarge and coalesce, leaving a bronze-colored, central indurated area with peripheral blistering and scaling = necrolytic migratory erythemaGLUCAGONOMA(also causes DM and GI sx)

68
Q

Treat lung abscesses with […].

A

Treat lung abscesses with clindamycin.

69
Q

An […] study is one that uses population data.

A

An ecological study is one that uses population data.Not data from individuals

70
Q

The clinical manifestations of Hartnup disease are primarily due to malabsorption of […].

A

The clinical manifestations of Hartnup disease are primarily due to malabsorption of tryptophan.Because niacin is synthesized from Trp.

71
Q

Short-acting benzos = triazolam or […]

A

Short-acting benzos = triazolam or alprazolam

72
Q

Winged scapula = […] nerve = serratus interior muscle

A

Winged scapula = long thoracic nerve = serratus interior muscle

73
Q

Winged scapula = long thoracic nerve = […] muscle

A

Winged scapula = long thoracic nerve = serratus interior muscle

74
Q

What class of diuretic can cause lithium toxicity when taken concurrently? […]

A

What class of diuretic can cause lithium toxicity when taken concurrently? ThiazidesAct on DCT – less Na reabs there – ramp up Na reabs in PCT, Lithium comes with

75
Q

4-12 hrs post-MI = early necrosis, edema, hemorrhage, […] fibers

A

4-12 hrs post-MI = early necrosis, edema, hemorrhage, wavy fibers

76
Q

Low serum levels of C1 esterase inhibitor are diagnostic of […].

A

Low serum levels of C1 esterase inhibitor are diagnostic of hereditary angioedema.

77
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia = defective LDL receptor gene on chromosome […]

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia = defective LDL receptor gene on chromosome 19

78
Q

Urease transforms urea into […]

A

Urease transforms urea into CO2 and ammoniaUrease breath test = test for radiolabeled CO2

79
Q

[…] is caused by mutations in serine/threonine kinase 11 on chromosome 19.

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by mutations in serine/threonine kinase 11 on chromosome 19.Skin lesions precede intestinal polyps

80
Q

Plotting the sensitivity (true positive rate) against one minus the specificity (false positive rate) gives the […] curve.

A

Plotting the sensitivity (true positive rate) against one minus the specificity (false positive rate) gives the receiver operating characteristic curve.Accurary is represented by the area under the ROC curve

81
Q

Cyclosporin, sirolimun, tacrolimus – which one is not nephrotoxic? […]

A

Cyclosporin, sirolimun, tacrolimus – which one is not nephrotoxic? Sirolimus

82
Q

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein is exclusively secreted by renal tubular epithelial cells of the […] of the loop of Henle.

A

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein is exclusively secreted by renal tubular epithelial cells of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.Can accumulate in tubular lumen to form hyaline casts in prerenal azotemia pts

83
Q

The TATA and […] boxes are promoters of transcription in eurkaryotic cells.

A

The TATA and CAAT boxes are promoters of transcription in eurkaryotic cells.

84
Q

Drugs such as adenosine and […] are selective vasodilators of coronary vessels.

A

Drugs such as adenosine and dipyridamole are selective vasodilators of coronary vessels.

85
Q

Aut. recessive hypersensitiviy to cross-linking agents = […]Aut. recessive hypersensitivity to UV damage and chemotherapeutic agents = Bloom syndrome

A

Aut. recessive hypersensitiviy to cross-linking agents = Fanconi anemiaAut. recessive hypersensitivity to UV damage and chemotherapeutic agents = Bloom syndrome

86
Q

Aut. recessive hypersensitiviy to cross-linking agents = Fanconi anemiaAut. recessive hypersensitivity to UV damage and chemotherapeutic agents = […]

A

Aut. recessive hypersensitiviy to cross-linking agents = Fanconi anemiaAut. recessive hypersensitivity to UV damage and chemotherapeutic agents = Bloom syndrome

87
Q

Phosphorylase kinase activity can be increased through the direct allosteric binding of […] ions.

A

Phosphorylase kinase activity can be increased through the direct allosteric binding of Ca2+ ions.Also phosphorylated / activated by PKA in response to increased cAMP concentrations from Gs stimulation-> glycogenolysis

88
Q

Thoracentesis should be performed above the […] ribs along the midclavicular line, midaxillary line, and posterior scapular line, respectively.

A

Thoracentesis should be performed above the 7th, 9th, and 11th ribs along the midclavicular line, midaxillary line, and posterior scapular line, respectively.

89
Q

Methimazole is preferable to PTU because of PTU’s severe hepatotoxicity. However, PTU is useful during […] because…

A

Methimazole is preferable to PTU because of PTU’s severe hepatotoxicity. However, PTU is useful during the 1st trimester of pregnancy because…Methimazole is teratogenic.*PTU is also given to pts with life-threatening thyroid storm as it has the additional effect of decreasing periph conversion of T4 to T3

90
Q

[…] fibers course within the interior of CN III.

A

GSE fibers course within the interior of CN III.More susceptible to injury from ischemia
GVE fibers on the exterior -> compression by aneurysm/tumor results in non-pupil-sparing palsy

91
Q

Infused […] (anticoagulant) can chelate serum calcium, causing hypocalcemia.

A

Infused citrate (anticoagulant) can chelate serum calcium, causing hypocalcemia.Found in packed RBCs, which derive from whole blood collectionsHypocalcemia most likely to occur with massive transfusions

92
Q

Stored RBCs gradually lose […] to the surrounding solution.

A

Stored RBCs gradually lose potassium to the surrounding solution.This has the potential to cause hyperkalemia.

93
Q

ALAD makes […].

A

ALAD makes porphobilinogen (PGB).

94
Q

In Pb poisoning, ALA and […] accumulate.

A

In Pb poisoning, ALA and protoporphyrin IX accumulate.

95
Q

CO2 is a potent cerebral […].

A

CO2 is a potent cerebral vasodilator.Pts with cerebral edema are often hyperventilated in order to decrease ICP.

96
Q

pO2 in the LA/LV is lower than in the pulm capillaries due to mixing with deoxygenated blood from the bronchial arteries and […] veins.

A

pO2 in the LA/LV is lower than in the pulm capillaries due to mixing with deoxygenated blood from the bronchial arteries and thebesian veins.

97
Q

In all cases of viral hepatitis, ballooning degeneration, mononuclear infiltrates, and […] bodies are seen histologically.

A

In all cases of viral hepatitis, ballooning degeneration, mononuclear infiltrates, and Councilman bodies are seen histologically.=eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes

98
Q

DIC results in decreased circulating fibrinogen and […] levels.

A

DIC results in decreased circulating fibrinogen and factor V and VII levels.

99
Q

A […] test nonspecifically detects the presence of reducing sugar.

A

A copper reduction test nonspecifically detects the presence of reducing sugar.Glucose, fructose, galactoseIf you want to look for only glucose, try a urine dipstick, which uses glucose oxidase

100
Q

The […] stain can differentiate between lipofuscin and hemosiderin.

A

The Prussian blue stain can differentiate between lipofuscin and hemosiderin.Turns iron-containing granules blue (->ferrocyanide)

101
Q

Leucine zipper, helix-loop-helix, and zinc finger motifs = […] domains

A

Leucine zipper, helix-loop-helix, and zinc finger motifs = DNA-binding protein domainsPermits interaction of the protein with major groove in DNA

102
Q

Alcoholic cardiomyopathy risk is increased in patients with inherited alcohol dehydrogenase defects or the DD subtype of […].

A

Alcoholic cardiomyopathy risk is increased in patients with inherited alcohol dehydrogenase defects or the DD subtype of ACE.

103
Q

Adapalene and tazarotene = […]

A

Adapalene and tazarotene = retinoidsAlong with isotretinoin, acitretin, tretinoin

104
Q

The anterior and posterior vagus nerve trunks course through the diaphragm with the […].

A

The anterior and posterior vagus nerve trunks course through the diaphragm with the esophagus.

105
Q

The thoracic duct traverses the diaphragn via the […].

A

The thoracic duct traverses the diaphragn via the aortic hiatus.

106
Q

Defects in […] are the only enzymatic cause of MODY.

A

Defects in glucokinase are the only enzymatic cause of MODY.MODY = mature onset diabetes of the young

107
Q

Pinpoint pupils, loss of horizontal gaze, quadriparesis, decerebrate posturing, rapid coma/death = […] hemorrhage

A

Pinpoint pupils, loss of horizontal gaze, quadriparesis, decerebrate posturing, rapid coma/death = pontine hemorrhagePutamen hemorrhage can present similarly, except pupils will be dilated and pts typically do not die as rapidly

108
Q

Which two electrolyte abnormalities can cause nephrogenic DI? […]

A

Which two electrolyte abnormalities can cause nephrogenic DI? Hypercalcemia, hypokalemia

109
Q

[…] is the treatment of choice for urethritis caused by Chlamydia.

A

Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for urethritis caused by Chlamydia.Complicated infections can get doxy instead

110
Q

Neurofibromas are loose/disorganized proliferations of […], fibroblasts, and neurites.

A

Neurofibromas are loose/disorganized proliferations of Schwann cells, fibroblasts, and neurites.

111
Q

TCAs can have antimuscarinic or […] antagonist effects.

A

TCAs can have antimuscarinic or alpha-adrenergic antagonist effects.

112
Q

The […] will draw a fractured distal clavicular fragment inferolaterally while the trapezius will tend to draw such a fragment superomedially.

A

The deltoid will draw a fractured distal clavicular fragment inferolaterally while the trapezius will tend to draw such a fragment superomedially.

113
Q

[…] is the only substrate required for the HMP shunt.

A

G6P is the only substrate required for the HMP shunt.

114
Q

The HLA genes are found as a cluster on chromosome 6 and are critical in the process of […].

A

The HLA genes are found as a cluster on chromosome 6 and are critical in the process of antigen presentation.HLA = MHC

115
Q

Proliferating […] are the primary cell population within the nodules of a cirrhotic liver.

A

Proliferating hepatocytes are the primary cell population within the nodules of a cirrhotic liver.Stellate (Ito) cells can differentiate into myofibroblasts and play a large role in the production of fibrosis in cirrhosis.

116
Q

[…] are most commonly associated with chromosomal aneuploidy (e.g. Turner syndrome, trisomies)

A

Cystic hygromas are most commonly associated with chromosomal aneuploidy (e.g. Turner syndrome, trisomies)=soft, compressible masses that transilluminateMost commonly found on the head and neck, typically on the left side

117
Q

Kluver-Bucy is most commonly associated with which virus? […]

A

Kluver-Bucy is most commonly associated with which virus? HSV-1Encephalitis with affinity for the temporal lobe / limbic system

118
Q

[…] is an antagonist of the IL-2 receptor.

A

Basiliximab is an antagonist of the IL-2 receptor.

119
Q

Antibiotic efflux pumps are a mode of resistance commonly found in […] organisms.

A

Antibiotic efflux pumps are a mode of resistance commonly found in Gram negative organisms.

120
Q

Lateral gaze palsy due to involvement of […] is one of the first signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis.

A

Lateral gaze palsy due to involvement of CN VI is one of the first signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis.

121
Q

[…] functions by stimulating insulin release following oral consumption of glucose.

A

Incretin functions by stimulating insulin release following oral consumption of glucose.Independent of elevations in blood glucose (i.e. IV glucose won’t trigger release)

122
Q

Apo B-48 is a truncated form of […].

A

Apo B-48 is a truncated form of Apo B-100.48 is produced by intestinal enterocytes while 100 is produced by hepatocytes.

UWorld (4 decks)

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