3rc bi exam Flashcards by katherine canete

Which complex receives reducing equivalents
from the Citric Acid Cycle
A. Complex I
B. Complex II
C. Complex III
D. Complex IV

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Final common product of protein, carbohydrate
and fat metabolism
A. Citrate
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Pyruvate
D. Glucose

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What is the final common pathway for the
metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?
A. Citric Acid Cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
C. Glycolysis
D. Glyconeogenesis

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This substrate is regenerated at the end of the
Citric Acid Cycle.
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Fumarate
C. Succinate
D. Citrate

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Which if the following enzymes link CAC to
gluconeogenesis?
A. Succinyl coA synthetase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Pyruvate carboxykinase
D. Succinyl coA dehydrogenase

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Which of the following is the thermodynamically
favored structure presentation of glucose?
A. Haworth
B. Fischer
C. chair conformation
D. hemiacetal

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Total Number of ATPs produced in the Citric Acid
Cycle
a. 36
b. 10
c. 3
d. 38

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What is the vitamin that plays a key role as a
cofactor in CAC?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

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GTP required in the decarboxylation of
Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenolpyruvate is provided in
this step
A. Oxaloacetate to Alpha-ketoglutarate
B. Succinate to Fumarate
C. Succinyl CoA to Succinate
D. Malate to Oxaloacetate

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ATP is produced in this step in Glycolysis
A. Glucose 6-Phosphate to
1,3-bisphosphoglyecerate
B. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to
1,3-biphosphoglycerate
D. Glucose to Glucose 6-Phosphate

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NADH is formed in this step
A. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
B. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
C. Glucose to Glucose 6-phosphate
D. Glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate

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Which of the following is an irreversible step in
glycolysis?
A. Glucose to G6P
B. G6P to F6P
C. 1BPG to PEP
D. F1,6BP to G3

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Aldose-Ketose isomerization in glycolysis
A. Glucose to G6P
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
C. Glucose-6-phosphate to
Fructose-6-phosphate
D. 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate

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Which is not a regulatory step in glycolysis?
A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Enolase
C. Hexokinase
D. Pyruvate kinase

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NAD-dependent step in Glycolysis *
A. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to
1,3-biphosphoglycerate
B. Glucose to Glucose 6-phosphate
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate to Pyruvate
D. Glucose 6-phosphate to Fructose
6-phosphate

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2,3-DPG is an intermediate product in the
reaction catalyzed by?
A. Triose Phosphate isomerase
B. Enolase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Phosphoglycerate mutase

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Alcohol inhibits absorption of this substance that
may cause potentially fatal pyruvic and lactic
acidosis:
A. Riboflavin
B. Thiamin
C. Pyruvate
D. Pantothenic Acid

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Glucose transporter in the liver
A. GLUT 2
B. GLUT 3
C. GLUT 1
D. GLUT 4

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What functions as a reserve to maintain the
blood glucose concentration in the fasting state?
A. Liver glycogen
B. Muscle glycogen
C. Both liver and muscle glycogen
D. Gluconeogenesis

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Inhibited by Phosphorylase Kinase A
A. Glycogen phosphorylase
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Glycogen synthase

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Which enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step of
glycogenolysis?
A. Glucan transferase
B. Debranching enzyme
C. Glycogen synthase
D. Glycogen phosphorylase

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Inhibited by Phosphorylase Kinase A
A. Glycogen synthase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis

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Activated by Phosphorylase Kinase A
A. Glycogen Phosphorylase
B. Glycogen Synthetase
C. Debranching Enzyme
D. Branching Enzyme

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What is the main source of NADPH in
lipogenesis?
A. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Pentose phosphate pathway
D. Glycolysis

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25. What is the enzyme for the deficiency of Von Gierke Disease? A. Glucose-6-Phosphatase B. Glucose-6-Phosphatase Dehydrogenase C. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase D. Aminotransferases

26. Glucose transporter in the kidney? A. GLUT 1 B. GLUT 2 C. GLUT 3 D. GLUT 4

27.Which of the following enzymes DOES NOT prevent reversal of gluconeogenesis to glycolysis? A. Pyruvate Kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Hexokinase D. Enolase

28. Oxaloacetate is converted to this substance for it to be available for gluconeogenesis A. Malate B. Pyruvate C. Citrate D. Succinate

29. What enzyme converts oxaloacetate to pyruvate? A. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase B. Pyruvate carboxylase C. Succinate thiokinase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

30. Glucose-6-phosphate is transported to this cellular organelle for removal of phosphate group and release of free glucose? A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Smooth ER D. Rough ER

32. Major precursor of glucose in ruminants A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Propionate D. Sucrose

33. Which of the following is TRUE of the Pentose Phosphate Pathway? A. Lead to the formation of ATP B. Synthesis of ribulose for nucleic acid synthesis C. Alternative route for the metabolism of fructose D. Formation of NADPH is one of its major functions

34. Gout occurs due to high levels of urate in the blood, also known as hyperuricemia. It is also related to the consumption of a certain disaccharide which can elevate urate levels.Which of the following is the disaccharide that can increase a person’s chances of developing gout? A. Lactose B. Sucrose C. Glucose D. Fructose

35. Reducing sugar that can give false positive results in Urinary Glucose measured through Alkaline Copper reagents A. Sorbitol B. Xylulose C. Xylose D. Sucrose

36. Most common genetic defect is secondary to a mutation in this specific enzyme. A. Pyruvate kinase B. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C. G6PD D. Adenylyl cyclase

37. Measurement of this erythrocyte enzyme is used to assess the status of Vitamin B12 (The question was B12 but it’s B2 jud) A) Glutathione reductase B) Glutathione synthase C) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D) NADPH dehydrogenase

38. Most severe form of galactosemia is manifested secondary to the deficiency of this particular enzyme A. Galactose dehydrogenase B. Uridyl Transferase C. Epimerase D. Galactokinase

39. The precursor of the sugar-phosphate moieties in the de novo synthesis of both purine and pyrimidine nucleotide A. Ribose-1-phosphate B. Glucose-1- phosphate C. Ribose-5-phosphate D. Glucose-6-phosphate

40. Thermodynamically favored glucose structure A. Hemiacetal B. Fischer C. Haworth projection D. Chair configuration

41. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Methionine B. Alanine C. Proline D. Tyrosine

42. Which of the following is not a nutritionally essential amino acid? A. Valine B. Phenylalanine C. Glycine D. Methionine Some of the choices were modified

43. Oxaloacetate undergoes transamination into what amino acid? A. Aspartate B. Glutamate C. Alanine D. Glycine

44. The formation of serine is from the oxidation of the alpha hydroxyl group of this glycolytic intermediate? A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. Oxaloacetate C. Alpha ketoglutarate D. L-homocysteine

45. Which nutritionally essential amino acid donates the sulfur group to the formation of cysteine? A. Serine B. Lysine C. L-homocysteine D. Methionine

46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the amino acid tyrosine? A. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts phenylalanine to tyrosine B. Nutritionally nonessential in the presence of adequate phenylalanine C. Reaction is irreversible D. Tyrosine cannot replace phenylalanine

47. Which is NOT TRUE to interorgan exchange? A. Alanine is extracted primarily by the liver B. The kidney provides a major source of Serine C. Glutamine is extracted by both the gut and the kidney D. Branched Chain amino acids are released by the muscles and taken by the gut.

48. Which of the following is NOT a component of the hydroxylation of peptidyl prolyl and peptidyl lysyl? A. Ascorbate B. Fe2+ C. Oxaloacetate D. Molecule of O2

49. Which is NOT true regarding transamination? A. Reversible B. Restricted to alpha amino acid C. Occurs between pyruvate and alanine D. Occurs mainly in the mitochondria

50. The site of the urea cycle A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol C. Mitochondria and Cytosol D. None of the above

51. The rate limiting step of urea cycle. A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I B. Ornithine carbamoyltransferase C. Argininosuccinate synthase D. Argininosuccinate lyase

52. The pacemaker enzyme of the urea cycle E. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I F. Ornithine carbamoyl transferase G. Argininosuccinate synthase H. Argininosuccinate lyase

53. Which of the following is an enzyme activator in the urea cycle? A. N-acetylglutamate B. ADP C. Mg-ATP D. Ornithine

54. Products formed in the cleavage of argininosuccinate in the urea cycle A. Arginase and Fumarate B. Arginine and Succinate C. Arginine and Fumarate D. Arginine and Ornithine

55. What is the enzyme defect that results in severe ammonia intoxication? A. Ornithine transcarbamoylase B. Argininosuccinate synthetase C. Argininosuccinate lyase D. Arginase

56. Incorrect statement with regards to the treatment of all urea cycle disorders: A. High protein diet B. Lactulose C. Antibiotics D. Liver transplant

57. Which of the following enters the citrate cycle via the alpha-ketoglutarate intermediate? A. Proline B. Methionine C. Phenylalanine D. Serine

58. The Amino acid that enters the Citric Acid Cycle via succinyl coa. A. Alanine B. Methionine C. Proline D. Aspartate

59. Which of the following statements is true about proline? A. Participates in transamination B. Catabolism takes place in mitochondria C. L-alpha nitrogen is immediately lost during the first step of catabolism D. Metabolic disorder is acquired

60. Major role in allergic reactions A. Alanine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Proline

61. Which of the following is not a metabolic fate of Arginine? A. Spermine B. Nitric oxide C. Creatine D. Fumarate

62.Which of the following participate in the biosynthesis of coenzyme A? A. Histidine B. Cysteine C. Glycine D. Alanine

63. Which of the following is the principal source of all methyl groups in the body? A. Methionine B. S-adenosylmethionine C. Cysteine D. Glycine

64. Participates in the biosynthesis of sphingosine, purine, and pyrimidine A. Serine B. Glycine C. Alanine D. Methionine

65. Participates in the biosynthesis of Serotonin A. Serine B. Glycine C. Methionine D. Tryptophan

66. Which of the following is not a metabolic fate of tyrosine? A. DOPA B. Nitric oxide C. Epinephrine D. Thyroid

67. Which of the following provides the carbon skeleton donor of selenocysteine? A. Methionine B. Arginine C. Serine D. Adenine

68. Site of attachment of additional ubiquitin A. C-terminus B. N-terminus C. Lys 48 D. Glycine 63

69. The key gluconeogenic amino acid A. Serine B. Lysine C. Arginine D. Alanine

70. Both a ketogenic and glucogenic amino acid A. Methionine B. Serine C. Threonine D. Phenylalanine

71. Which of the following is not correct with the statements regarding selenocysteine? A. Biosynthesis requires serene, selenate, ATP, and tRNA B. Present in the active sites of several human enzymes that catalyze redox reactions C. Arises cotranslationally during its incorporation into peptides D. The AGA anticodon of the unusual tRNA normally signals STOP

72. What is the pacemaker enzyme of the urea cycle? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I B. Ornithine carbamoyl transferase C. Argininosuccinate synthase D. Argininosuccinate lyase *choices are modified

73. Biosynthesis of serine begins with what? A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. Dimethylglycine C. Glutamate D. Alpha-ketoglutarate

74.The interconversion from serine to glycine is catalyzed by this enzyme. A. Glycine hydroxymethyltransferase B. Serine hydroxymethyltransferase C. Glycine dehydrogenase D. Serine dehydrogenase

75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of amino acid Tyrosine? A. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts phenylalanine to tyrosine B. Nutritionally unessential in the presence of adequate phenylalanine C. Reaction is irreversible D. Tyrosine cannot replace phenylalanine

76. How do salvage reactions differ from other synthesis pathways? A. Salvage reactions convert purines and their nucleosides to dinucleotides. B. Phosphoryl transfer from PRPP requires more energy expenditure. C. These pathways synthesize nucleotides from amino acids and glucose. D. Salvage reactions require far less energy than de novo synthesis.

77. Formed by the reductive amidation of glutamate to glutamine by the enzyme glutamine synthetase A. β-glutamyl phosphate B. γ-glutamyl phosphate C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. Phosphoserine

79. The clinical condition that is not a defect in purine metabolism A. Adenosine Deaminase deficiency B. Lesch Nyhan syndrome C. Gout D. Chronic granulomatous disease

80. A 55-year-old presents with an inflamed right big toe and elevated uric acid levels. She was prescribed allopurinol to manage her condition. What enzyme is inhibited by this drug? A. Xanthine oxidase B. IMP dehydrogenase C. PRPP synthase D. HGPRTase

81. The usual wavelength at which molecules that contain purine or pyrimidine bases strongly absorb Ultraviolet light: A. 10 nm B. 34 nm C. 260 nm D. 360 nm

82. This property of DNA is the relationship between bases in opposing strands in the double helix. A. Anti-parallelism B. Structural isomorphism C. Complementarity D. Degeneracy

83. Most distinguishing feature of DNA from RNA A. High purine content B. The sugar backbone is ribose C. Uses thymine instead of uracil D. Consists of a single strand

84. An 8 year old boy went to the hospital for consultation. The doctor requested a laboratory workup. The tests revealed deficiency in Adenine deaminase enzyme and T-cells and B-cells. What could be the possible diagnosis of this patient? A. Lesch Nyhan Syndrome B. von Gierke C. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease D. Chronic Granulomatous Disease

85. An antibiotic medication that can inhibit DNA Gyrase A. Cephalexin B. Ceftriaxone C. Ciprofloxacin D. Sulfamethoxazole

86. What enzyme converts Hypoxanthine to IMP? A. Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase B. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase C. Xanthine Oxidase D. Adenylosuccinate synthetase

87. The type of DNA model by Watson and Crick A. A-DNA B. B-DNA C. Z-DNA D. C-DNA

88. A left-handed zigzagging form of DNA with a helix pitch of 45.6 A. A-DNA B. Z-DNA C. B-BNA D. C-DNA

89. Which is not a STOP codon? A. UAA B. UAG C. UCG D. UGA

90. What organ is the site of purine biosynthesis? A. Kidney B. Gut C. Liver D. Lungs

91. What principle states that the concentration of deoxyadenosine (A) nucleotide equals that of thymidine (T) nucleotides (A=T), while the concentration of deoxyguanosine (G) nucleotides equals that of deoxycytidine (C) , nucleotides (C=G) in DNA molecules? A. Chargaff’s Rule B. Anfinsen’s Dogma C. Central Dogma D. Genetic Code

92. Which of the following processes does not contribute to the purine nucleotide biosynthesis? A. Synthesis from amphibolic intermediates B. Phosphoribosylation of purines C. Glutamine degradation D. Phosphorylation of purine nucleosides

93. Template for DNA synthesis A. tRNA B. rRNA C. mRNA D. Ribozymes

94. This is the process where separated strands of DNA will renature or reassociate when appropriate physiologic temperature and salt conditions are achieved. A. DNA hybridization B. Replication C. Degeneracy D. Okazaki fragmentation *choices are modified

95. This drug decreases the toxic effects of methotrexate and pyrimethamine A. Cyanocobalamin B. Thiamine C. Leucovorin (Folinic Acid) D. Pyridoxine

96. The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction that controls the rate of purine de novo biosynthesis A. PRPP synthase B. Ribonucleotide Reductase C. Thioredoxin Reductase D. HGPRTase

97. G6 phosphatase deficiency A. Lesch Nyhan B. Von Gierke disease C. SCID D. Orotic Aciduria

98. Non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor A. 5-FU B. 6-mercaptopurine C. Febuxostat D. Allopurinol

99. An organic solvent that destabilizes Hydrogen bonding in nucleic acid structures and commonly used in recombinant DNA experiments A. 5-fluorouracil B. Allopurinol C. Formamide D. 6-mercaptopurine

100. Hypoxanthine is phosphorylated into Inosine Monophosphate, by what enzyme? A. PRPP synthetase B. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase C. Xanthine oxidase D. Thymidylate synthase

Eighty percent (80%) of the brain's energy is from glucose. The remaining 20% comes from which of the following sources? a. ketone bodies b. amino acids c. fatty acids d. other hexoses

A. Ketone Bodies (Trans BIOCHEM3_35 -Glucoeneogenesis, p. 2)

Trytophan enters gluconeogenesis if it is converted into what substrate? A Citrate B. Succinyl-CoA C. Alpha ketoglutarate D. Pyruvate

Pyruvate

3. Oxaloacetate will be converted to ______ for it to be available for Gluconeogenesis A. Pyruvate B. Malate C. Citrate D. Succinyl-CoA

B. Malate Instead of becoming acetyl-coA, pyruvate becomes oxaloacetate (Mitochondria). It is catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase Oxaloacetate cannot get outside the mitochondria, thus Oxaloacetate becomes malate. Malate is then pushed out of the Mitochondria and is converted back to oxaloacetate. (Trans 35 - Gluconeogenesis, p. 3)

Coenzyme of pyruvate carboxylase

Biotin

Glucose-6-Phosphate is transported to this cellular organelle in the liver for the removal of phosphate group and the release of free glucose. A. Mitochondria B. Smooth ER C. Rough ER. D. Golgi Apparatus

B. Smooth ER

Fatty acid enters gluconeogenesis via A. DHAP B. Lactate C. Pyruvate D. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

A. DHAP (?)

True of PPP Lead to the formation of ATP Alternative route for catabolism of carbohydrate Formation of ribulose for nucleid acid synthesis Formation of NADPH is one of its major functions

D (most likely)

Which of the following causes osmotic damage in diabetic cataract? A. Fructose B. Sucrose C. Sorbitol D. Glucose

C. Sorbitol

Which association is correct? A. Glucagon inhibit gluconeogenesis in liver B. Glucagon stimulate gluconeogenesis in liver C. Epi and Norepi inhibit gluconeogenesis D. Insulin stimulate gluconeogenesis

B. Glucagon stimulate gluconeogenesis in liver

This enzyme catalyzes the carboxylation and phosphorylation of Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenolpyruvate? A. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase B. Phosphoenolpyruvate kinase C. Phosphoenolpyruvate oxidase D. Phosphoenolpyruvate dehydrogenase

A. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

Hyperuricemia leading to gout formation may be connected to the metabolism of of this specific sugar A. Fructose B. Sucrose C. Glucose D. Maltose

A. Fructose Harper's p.196

Most common genetic defect is secondary to amutation in this specific enzyme. A. Pyruvate kinase B. G6PD C. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase D. Adenylyl cyclase

B. G6PD

The most severe form of galactosemia is secondary to the deficiency of what enzyme A. Uridyl transferase B. Epimerase C. Galactose dehydrogenase D. Galactokinase

C. Uridyl transferase

14. Its presence determines whether glucose or glycogen can synthesize not only from pyruvate but also triose phosphates (glycerol) a. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase b. Fructose-6-phosphatase c. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase d. Fructose-1-phosphatase

A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

15. Which enzyme is responsible for the phosphorylation of hexose sugars in extrahepatic tissues? A. Hexokin-ase B. Glucokinase C. Fructokinase D. Enolase

A. Hexokinase

Which of the following is a major component of seminal fluid? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Mannose D. Galactose

B. Fructose

What enzyme is responsible for the carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate? A. pyruvate carboxylase B. pyruvate carboxykinase C. pyruvate dehydrogenase D. pyruvate oxidase

A. pyruvate carboxylase

what enzyme is responsible for the conversion of lactate to pyruvate? a. LDH b. MDH c. pyruvate dehydrogenase d. PEPCK

a. LDH - Lactate dehydrogenase converts lactate to pyruvate and vice versa.

Formation of Glucose from Glycogen is NOT PERMITTED in the muscle due to the absence of which enzyme? A. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. Glycogen synthase D. Phosphoglucomutase

Glucose-6-phosphatase

What is the product of the transamination of pyruvate? A. Proline B. Alanine C. Tyrosine D. Alpha ketoglutarate

B. Alanine

Serine, alanine, cysteine, threonine, tryptophan, and glycine are all glucogenic amino acids that are substrates of what? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Succinyl-CoA C. Pyruvate D. Oxaloacetate

C. Pyruvate

Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver by activating this enzyme a. Glycogen phosphorylase b. Glycogen synthase c. Lactate dehydrogenase d. Phosphoglucomutase

a. Glycogen phosphorylase

23. Formation of this intermediate automatically ensures provision of oxaloacetate by activating pyruvate carboxylase a. Pyruvate b. Lactic acid c. Acetyl CoA d. Oxaloacetate

c. Acetyl CoA

The strongest stimulator of PFK-1 that stimulates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis a. Xylulose-5-phosphate b. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate c. Pyruvate d. Oxaloacetate

B. Fructose 2,6-Bisphosphate

Which of the following enzyme activity is induced by insulin? A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase C. Glucose 6-Phosphate D. Phosphofructokinase-1

D. Phosphofructokinase-1

Characterized by profound hypoglycemia and vomiting after consumption of fructose or sucrose A. Essential fructosuria B. Hereditary fructose intolerance C. Fructose induced Hypoglycemia D. Essential Pentosuria

B. Hereditary fructose intolerance

This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of sorbitol to fructose a. Sorbitol dehydrogenase b. Sorbitol oxidase c. Fructose dehydrogenase d. Fructose oxidase

sorbitol dehydrogenase

Increased metabolism of this sugar increases fatty acid synthesis which increases TAG and LDL levels A. Galactose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Sorbitol

B. Fructose

Which of the ff can be used as index for Vit B1? A. Erythrocyte Transketolase B. Glucose-3-Phosphate C. Fructose-6-Phosphate D. Transaldolase

A. Eryth Transketolase

Which of the following is a byproduct of the irreversible oxidative phase of Pentose Phosphate Pathway? A. Glucose 6-phosphate B. 6-phosphogluconate C. Glyceraldehyde 6-phosphate D. NADPH

D. NADPH

31. Oxidation by dehydrogenation in the PPP is done through what hydropegen acceptor? A. NADP+ B. NAD C. NADPH D. NADH

A. NADP+

Alternative route of glucose metabolism that does not yield atp: A. hmp shunt B. cori cycle

A Ratio: BioChem Trans: Lecture #34: PPP pg 1

Glycoproteins are classified based on which of the ff: A. Based on the nature of the linkage between the polypeptide and the oligosaccharide chain B. # of chains D. Predominant amine

A. Based on the nature of the linkage between the polypeptide and the oligosaccharide chain

Binding to which lectin prevents a glycoprotein from aggregating? A. Calnexin B. Mannose-binding lectin

A. Calnexin

This is the non-enzymatic attachement of sugar (mainly glucose) to amino group of a protein (also other molecules such as DNA and lipid) a. Glycosylation b. Deglycosylation c. Glycation d. Maillard Reaction

c. Glycation Harper's 32nd ed. Ch. 46 p. 554 ebook version

N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc-Ser[Thr]) is what part of glycoprotein? A. GPI B. Collagen C. Mucin D. Proteoglycan

C. Mucin Harper's 32nd ed. Ch. 46 pp. 557-558

Matching Type: AGEs

Type 2 DM

Matching Type: Selectin

B. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

Matching Type: ZP3

sperm receptor

Matching Type: PH30

D. Sperm Binding to Oocyte Harper, p. 561

Matching Type: Decay Accelerating Factor

PNH

Matching Type: GP120

HIV

Matching Type: CD59

PNH

Matching Type: GP41

HIV

Matching Type: GPI

Helicobacter pylori

Nos. 46-50 Match the following linkages to the appropriate (glycoprotein?) Asparagine-N-Acetylglucosamine Linkaage

N-linked

GAL-GAL-Xylene Trisaccharide-Serine

Proteoglycans (PPT GLYCOPROTEINS.pptx, slide 8)

Galactose-hydroxy-LYSINE linkage

Collagen (PPT GLYCOPROTEINS.pptx, slide 8)

Single N-acetyIglucosamine + SERINE or THREONINE residue

Nuclear and Cytosolic protein sidechains (NCPS) (PPT GLYCOPROTEINS.pptx, slide 8)

N-acetylglucosamine + mannose and glucosamine

GPI linkage

Which of the following is a nutritionally non-essential amino acid? A. Methionine B. Valine C. Lysine (modified bec forgot) D. Alanine

D. Alanine All other choices are nutritionally essential. (Trans BIOCHEM3_37 Biosynthesis of Nutritionally Nonessential Amino Acids)

Which is not a characteristic of AA Glutamate? A. Precursor of glutamate family B. Reductive amidation using glutamate dehydrogenase to oxaloacetate C. Glutamine using glutamine synthetase D. y-glutamyl phosphate intermediate

B. Reductive amidation using glutamate dehydrogenase to oxaloacetate The phrase "Reductive amidation using glutamate dehydrogenase to oxaloacetate" is incorrect because glutamate dehydrogenase does not act on oxaloacetate—it converts glutamate into α-ketoglutarate, not oxaloacetate. Also see Harper's p. 284

3. What role does aspartate play in the Urea Cycle? A. It donates a carbon atom B. unrecalled C. It acts as a substrate in the urea cycle D. It helps in transport of nitrogen

C. It acts as a substrate in the urea cycle

Process of converting aspartate to oxaloacetate? A. Transamination B. Deamination C. Decarboxylation D. Hydrolysis

Transamination

What is the final product of serine metabolism that can enter the glycolytic pathway? A. Pyruvate B. Acetoacetyl-CoA C. Fumarate D. Citrate

A. Pyruvate

Which of the following is not a precursor of glycine biosynthesis? A. Glyoxylate B. Glutamate C. Alanine D. Cysteine

D. Cysteine

Enzyme responsible for conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine phenylalanine hydroxylase dihydropterine hydroxylase tyrosine hydroxylase tryptophan hydroxylase

PAH

What cofactor is essential for enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase to function properly A. Niacin B. Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) C. Folic acid D. Pyridoxal phosphate

B. Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)

Serine is also a precursor for what AA a. cysteine b. alanine c. valine d. methionine

Cysteine

What cofactor is required for the conversion of serine to glycine by serine hydroxymethyltransferase? A. NAD+ B. Tetrahydroxyfolate C. B12 D. Biotin

Tetrahydrofolate

Which of the following is the sulfur donor of cysteine A. Glutamate B. Phenylalanine C. Methionine D. Proline

Methionine Harper's pp. 277

What AA donates carbon skeleton to selenocysteine? a. Lysine b. Proline c. Glutamine d. Serine

Serine

Which toxic metabolite accumulates in PKU? A. Homogentisic acid B. Uric acid C. Urocanic acid D. Phenylpyruvate

Phenylpyruvic acid

Which is the common clinical feature for untreated PKU? A. Malnutrition B. Intellectual disability C. Hyperpigmentation D. Decreased muscle mass

Intellectual disability

What is the role of sapropterin in PKU treatment? A. Serves as a replacement for the deficient phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Acts as a cofactor for phenylalanine hydroxylase, enhancing the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine C. Enhances the transport of phenylalanine across the blood-brain barrier D. Reduces blood phenylalanine levels by increasing enzymatic activity in responsive individuals (nonverbatim)

B. Acts as a cofactor for phenylalanine hydroxylase, enhancing the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine

In intergorgan exchange, what is the role of glutamine as a substrate? A. skeletal muscle B. brain C. liver D. gut and kidney

Gut and kidney

After prolonged fasting, what would happen to muscle amino acid release A. decrease due to muscle loss B. increase for energy and homeostasis C. remains unchanged D. completeley stops

B. increase for energy and homeostasis

The following amino acids undergo transamination except a. Lysine b. Tyrosine c. Leucine d. cystine

Lysine

19. Which of the following DOES NOT describe transamination A. Reversible B. Occurs mainly in mitochondria C. Restricted to a-amino acids D. Occurs between pyruvate and alanine

C. Restricted to a-amino acids

Where do the steps in the urea cycle take place? A. mitochondria and cytosol B. endoplasmic reticulum and ribosome C. cytosol and golgi apparatus D. nucleus and mitochondria

A. mitochondria and cytosol

Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme in the Urea cycle? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I B. N-acetyl-glutamate synthetase C. Ornithine transcarbamoylase D. Argininosuccinate lyase

A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

An intermediate metabolite of the Urea Cycle that can enter the Krebs Cycle a. Citrulline b. Ornithine c. Aspartate d. Fumarate

Fumarate

Products formed by the cleavage of argininosuccinate in the urea cycle a. L-arginine; Succinate b. Arginase; Urea c. L-arginine; Fumarate d. Arginine; Ornithine

c: L-arginine; Fumarate

Incorrect statement with regards to the treatment of all urea cycle disorders: A. High protein diet B. Lactulose C. Antibiotics D. Liver transplant

High protein diet

Which of the following enters the citric acid cycle via the alpha-ketoglutarate pathway? A. Proline B. Tyrosine C. Phenylalanine D. Aspartate

A. Proline

Which of the ff enter the citric acid cycle via Succinyl-CoA intermediate in the glycogenic pathway? A. Methionine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Asparagine

Methionine

Which of the following statements is true about proline? A. Participates in transamination B. Catabolism takes place in mitochondria C. L-alpha nitrogen is immediately lost during the first step of catabolism D. Metabolic disorder is acquired

B. Catabolism takes place in mitochondria

An AA that plays a major role in allergic reactions a. Arginine b. Alanine c. Histidine

c. Histidine

Which of the ff is not a metabolic fate of arginine? a. Nitric Oxide b. Creatinine c. Ornithine d. Fumarate

D. Fumarate

Which of the ff participates in the biosynthesis of Coenzyme A? a. Histidine b. Cysteine c. Glycine d. Alanine

B. Cysteine

Principal source of methyl groups in the body? a. Methionine b. S-adenosylmethionine c. Cysteine d. Glutamine

SAM ratio from Trans

What Amino Acid participates in the biosynthesis of sphingosine and of purines and pyrimidines? A. Serine B. Cysteine C. Glycine D. Arginine

Serine

Which of the following is an amino acid precursor of serotonin? A. Tryptophan B. Tyrosine C. Glycine D. Serine

Tryptophan

Which of the following is not a metabolic fate of tyrosine? A. DOPA B. Nitric Oxide C. Epinephrine D. Thyroxine

Nitric Oxide

Source of carbon skeleton of selenocysteine A. Methionine B. Cysteine C. Thyroxine D. Serine

Serine

Which of the following sites of attachment of ubiquitin in polyubiquitination? A. C-terminus B. N-terminus C. Lysine 48 D. Glycine 63

C. Lysine 48 (Harper's 32nd. Ch 28. p. 280)

It is the gluconeogenic key amino acid A. serine B. glycine C. arginine D. alanine

D. Alanine

what amino acid residue retards ubiquitine dependent degradation? a. Met b. Val c. asp d. arg

Met

What provides the major source of serine uptake for peripheral tissues? a. brain b. muscle c. kidney d. gut

c. kidney

which of the following about enzymes are incorrect with regards to transamination? A. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), a derivative of vitamin B, is present at the catalytic site of all aminotransferases, and plays a key role in catalysis. B. is Freely Reversible C. Occurs via Pingpong Mechanism D. Alpha amino acid restricted

Alpha amino acid restricted

Which of the following is not required for the synthesis of urea? a. 5 enzymes b. 1 mol of Ammonium ion c. Arginine d. 3 mols of ATP

Arginine

What is incorrect about urea formation? A. Ammonia is the major end product of nitrogen catabolism in humans B. N-acetylglutamate solely works as an eznyme activator C. Reactions 1 and 2 occur in the liver mitochondria D. Reactions 3, 4, and 5 occur in the liver cytosol

Ammonia is major end product in humans

Which of the following is INCORRECT with regards to urea synthesis A. carbamoyl phosphate plus ornithine forms citrulline B. citrulline plus aspartate forms argininosuccinate by the enzyme argininosuccinate decarboxylase C. argininosuccinate cleavage forms fumarate and arginine D. arginine cleaves to form urea and ornithine

citrulline plus aspartate forms argininosuccinate by the enzyme argininosuccinate decarboxylase

What symptom is not common to all metabolic disorder in the urea cycle. A, Hyperammonemia B. Avoidance of Carbs C. Ataxia D. Lethargy

B. Avoidance of Carbohydrate (BIOCHEM3_38 pg. 8)

Hyperammonemia type I is due to the deficiency or inactivity of which enzyme? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I B. N acetylglutamate synthetase C. Ornithine permease D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase

A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

Which of the following is purely ketogenic A. Alanine B. Threonine C. Tyrosine D, Leucine

Leucine

Amphibolic intermediate of both glycogen and fat

Phenylalanine

Not a component of the glycine cleavage complex A. three enzymes B. H protein C. dihydrolipoyl D. ascorbate

D. Ascorbate

Which of the following conditions is associated with impaired transport of tryptophan and neutral amino acids in the intestine and kidneys? a. MSUD b. PKU c. hartnup disease d. Alkaptonuria

C. Hartnup disease

Which of the following is not true about tyrosine A. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts phenylalanine to tyrosine B. Nutritionally non-essential in the presence of adequate phenylalanine C. Reaction is Irreversible D. Tyrosine cannot replace phenylalanine

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts phenylalanine to tyrosine

Which of the following contributes atoms to the purine ring in de novo synthesis a. ribose 5 phosphate b prpp c uric acid d orotic acid e THF

PRPP ✅ Weesafied

The initial reaction of pyrimidine de novo synthesis A. PRPP attachment to pyrimidine B. IMP formation C. Reaction of Glutamine and CO2 D. UMP phosphorylation E. Urate formation

C. Reaction of Glutamine and CO2

3. Which of the following is the key difference bet de novo purine and pyrimidine synthesis? A. Purine starts with a free base while pyrimidine synthesis starts after the ring is assembled B. Purine starts after the ring is assembled, whereas pyrimidine builds the ring on PRPP C. Purine catabolism forms highly water-soluble products, while pyrimidine catabolism forms insoluble products D. Purine bla bla ions, pyrimidine E. Pyrimidine is highly regulated, purine is not regulated

Not sure (wrong ang A, B, C, E & unrecalled ang D. abt ions to siya) BONUS QUESTION ACC. DOC WEESA: it was supposed to be " in purine biosynthesis, PRPP serves as a scaffold for assembly of the purine ring, whereas PRPP participates in pyrimidine biosynthesis only subsequent to assembly of the pyrimidine ring"

First product in pyrimidine de novo synthesis? A. Unrecalled B. Unrecalled C. OMP D. UMP E. TMP

C. OMP (?)

How do AMP and GMP regulate hepatic purine nucleotide biosynthesis? A. They activate PRPP synthetase B. They inhibit PRPP synthetase C. They activate IMP dehydrogenase D. They inhibit Xanthine oxidase E. They stimulate the conversion UMP to UTP

B. They inhibit PRPP synthetase

In purine de novo synthesis, which of the following supplies the atoms of the purine ring? A. Orotic Acid B . Uric Acid C. Hypoxanthine D. PRPP E. Glutamate

D. PRPP

Which of the following is involved in multiple steps in the de novo purine synthesis? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin C C. Folate/folic acid

Folate/folic acid

In the de novo synthesis of pyrimidines, what is required for the atoms of pyrimidine ring? A. Aspartate, glutamate, THF B. Glycine, glutamate, THF C. Asparate, glutamate, CO2 D. PRPP, glycine, THF E. PRPP, glutamate, THF

C. Asparate, glutamate, CO2

How does the regulation of pyrimidine de novo synthesis primarily occur? a. feedback inhibition of PRPP synthesis by AMP and GMP b. Activation of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II by PRPP c. Feedback inhibition of aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) by UTP and CTP d. Activation of ribonucleotide reductase by dATP e. Feedforward activation of thymidylate synthase by dUMP

Which of the following is the first fully formed purine nucleotide in the de novo synthesis? A. AMP B. GMP C. IMP D. UMP E. CMP

Inosine monophosphate (IMP)

What role does PRPP have on purine and pyrimidine nucleotide de novo synthesis? A. Provides the nitrogenous base B. Inhibits rate limiting enzyme C. Serves as an activated sugar intermediate D. Directly forms phosphodiester bond E. Cofactor for ribonucleotide reductase

C. Serves as an activated sugar intermediate Idk asa ni sa book nakaindicate T_T pero check this link: https://accesspharmacy.mhmedical.com/content.aspx?bookid=3231§ionid=269372172

Which of the ff is unique to pyrimidine synthesis as compared to purine? A. Stepwise addition of base in ribose phosphate B. Purine adds PRPP after the ring has been formed, while pyrimidine builds the ring on PRPP C. Requires PRPP as an initiating committed step D. More complex and uses more ATP E. By-product is uric acid

A. Stepwise addition of base in ribose phosphate Based on this image in ratio, B, C, D, E can be eliminated

13.Main differences between purine and pyrimidine catabolism Purine catabolism produces water soluble compounds pyrimidine catabolism produces water insoluble Pyrimidine catabolism produces water soluble compounds purine catabolism produces water insoluble / Purines produce urates pyrimidines produce ammonia Pyrimidines produces nucleotides purines produce nucleosides Purines produce deoxyribonucleotides pyrimidines produce ribonucleotides

B. Pyrimidine catabolism produces water soluble compounds. purine catabolism produces water insoluble

What is the significance of the “salvage pathway” in nucleotide metabolism? A. Essential for de novo nucleotide synthesis B. Irrelevant in cells with active purine degradation C. Used in the conversion (“recycling”) of purines, their ribonucleosides, and their deoxyribonucleosides into mononucleotides D. Exclusively occurs in mitochondria (modified choices)

What enzyme converts xanthine into hypoxanthine in the salvage pathway of purine biosynthesis? A. ADA – Adenosine Deaminase B. HGPRT – Hypoxanthine-Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase C. XO – Xanthine Oxidase D. RR – Ribonucleotide Reductase

B. HGPRT – Phosphoribosyltransferase

Importance of Purine Salvage Pathways A. The brain has low levels of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase therefore salvage pathway is important B. Erythrocytes low levels of PRPP they don’t need salvage pathway C. Important to synthesize Uridine D. Important to synthesize Cytidine

A. The brain has low levels of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase therefore salvage pathway is important

Aside from phosphoribosylation of prpp what is another salvage mechanism? A. deamination then hydroxylation B. phosphorylation of adenosine kinase C. oxidation by xanthine oxidase D. reduction by ribonucleotide reductase E. methylation by methyltransferases

B. phosphorylation of adenosine kinase

A child is brought to the pediatrician with recurrent infections. Physical examination reveals absent tonsils. Laboratory tests show a profound decrease in both T and B lymphocyte counts. What is the condition? A) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome B) X-linked Agammaglobulinemia C) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) D) DiGeorge Syndrome some choices revised

Severe combined immunodeficiency

A 7 yr old exhibits self-mutilation, behavioral problem, and developmental delays. Which of the following is likely elevated in their urine? A. Aspartate B. Hypoxanthine C. I forgot :(( D. Uric Acid

D. Uric Acid

Lesch-nyhan syndrome results from the deficiency of which enzyme? a. thymidilate synthase b. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase c. xanthine oxidase d. ribonucleotide reductase e. thymine kinase

b. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

Administration of allopurinol, but with normal HGPRT level. Which of the following will it lead to: A. Decrease PRPP synthase B. Decrease blood xanthine levels C. Increase de novo synthesis of IMP D. Increase hypoxanthine in the urine E. Increase urate crystals

D. Increase hypoxanthine in the urine ✅ Weesafied

A 6 month old boy began to show signs of deteriorating motor skills and severe megaloblastic anemia. His urine contains fine needle crystals identified as orotic acid. Oral administration of which compound would likely result in significant clinical improvement? a. Adenosine b. Cytidine c. Guanosine d. Thymidine e. Uridine

e. Uridine ✅ Weesafied

A patient presents with orotic aciduria, but without megaloblastic anemia, and UMP synthetase activity is normal. What enzyme is likely deficient in this condition? a. aspartate transcarbamoylase b. ornithine transcarbamoylase c. thymidine synthase d.orotidine 5’-phosphate carboxylase

b. ornithine transcarbamoylase

A 10yo boy is undergoing chemotheraphy for acute myelogenous leukemia. He experiences fever, flank pain, pain in ankles, and blood in urine. An increased catabolism of this compound explains his condition. a. amino acid b. fatty acid c. purine d. pyrimidine e. vitamin C

C. Purine

Which of the following laboratory findings is most characteristic of a mutation in ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC)? A. Increased argininosuccinate levels B. Elevated serum orotic acid C. Decreased urinary orotic acid D. Hyperammonemia with normal orotic acid levels

B. Elevated serum orotic acid

Which best describes the underlying cause of gout? A. Development of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals B. Autoimmune attack on joint cartilage C. Excessive production or reduced excretion of uric acid leading to the formation of urate crystals D. Bacterial infection in the synovial fluid

C. Excessive production or reduced excretion of uric acid leading to the formation of urate crystals

Defining characteristic between gout and pseudogout a. They are caused by the same crystal deposition b. Gout is as as moth eaten in radiograph while pseudogout is as Martel Sign c. Gout is caused by uric acid crystal deposition while pseudo gout is caused by calcium pyrophosphate deposition. d. Gout is caused by deficiency in HGPRT enzyme while Pseudogout is caused overproduction of HGPRT enzyme

c. Gout is caused by uric acid crystal deposition while pseudo gout is caused by calcium pyrophosphate deposition.

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor that lowers uric acid. A. Azothioprine B.5-fluorouracil C.Allopurinol D. Mycophenolic acid

C. Allopurinol

Which of the following is used during organ transplantation tos suppress immunologic reaction? A. 6-mercaptopurine B. 5-fluorouracil C. Azathioprine D. Mycophenolic acid

C. Azathioprine

Which of the following statements about 5-fluorouracil is CORRECT? A. It inhibits ribonucleotide reductase B. It promotes normal cell growth and replication C. It is a purine analog used to treat hyperuricemia and gout D. It is a pyrimidine analog that acts as a suicide substrate to inhibit thymidylate synthase

D. It is a pyrimidine analog that acts as a suicide substrate to inhibit thymidylate synthase.

31. A drug that inhibits the conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate would most directly affect the synthesis of? A. Fatty Acid B. Amino Acid C. Purine nucleotides D. Pyrimidine catabolism

Not sure: purine nucleotides?? Pyrimidine catabolism means breakdown

True of methotrexate: A) Analog of glutamate B) Inhibits thymidylate synthase C) Directly increases purine synthesis D) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

D. Inhibits DHFR

An 8-year-old patient with recurrent infections due to a deficient enzyme in the purine salvage pathway. Which of the following enzymes are affected? A. Adenine deaminase B. HGPRT C. Xanthine oxidase D. Ribonucleotide Reductase

Not sure: HGPRT

Which enzyme converts uric acid into the more water-soluble product allantoin? A. Xanthine oxidase B. HGPRT C. Uricase D. Adenine deaminase

C. Uricase

What is the primary mechanisms of action of the chemotherapeutic drug 6-mercaptopurine? a. inhibits dihydrofolate reductase b. interfers with purine nucleotide biosynthesis c. directly damage DNA by alkylation d. prevents formation of mitotic spindle

B. Interfers with purine nucleotide biosynthesis

What bond connects the nucleotides in the polynucleotide chain of the nucleic acids? A. Peptide bond B. Glycosidic bond C. Phosphodiester bond D. Hydrogen bond

C. Phosphodiester bond

Which of the following is responsible for the ability of a nucleotide to be detected in spectrophotometry? A. Their ability to fluoresce under UV light B. Their resonance energy transfer (not sure about this) C. Their size and molecular weight D. Their conjugated double bond system absorbs UV light

D. Their conjugated double bond system absorbs UV light

Correct base pairing in DNA? a. A to G b. A to C c. A to T d. A to U

C. A to T

What is the use of the enzyme reverse transcriptase? a. degrade RNA molecule b. Cut the DNA sequence c. synthesize DNA from RNA template d. ligate DNA synthesis

c. synthesize DNA from RNA template

What structural component defines a nucleoside A. A pyrine or pyrimidine base, ribose sugar, and a phosphate group B. A purine or pyrimidine base only C. A ribose sugar and a phosphate group D. A purine and pyrimidine base and a ribose sugar no phosphate group

D. A purine and pyrimidine base and a ribose sugar no phosphate group

What is the physiological form of DNA? A. A-DNA B. B-DNA C. E-DNA D. Z-DNA

B. B-DNA

Which of the following has a role in mRNA splicing? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. snRNA

D. snRNA

What structural feature is unique to eukaryotic mRNA? A. 3' cap B. 5' cap (7-methylguanosine) C. unrecalled D. Base uracil

5' cap (7-methylguanosine)

Restriction endonuclease A. Dna from RNA template B. Ligate DNA fragments together C. Cleave DNA at specific sequence D. Million folds E. Place phosphate at 5' end of nucleic acid

C. Cleave DNA at specific sequence

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to: A. Analyze protein structure B. Amplify specific DNA sequences C. Detect RNA molecules D. Cleave DNA at specific sites E. Analyze lipid composition

B. Amplify specific DNA sequences

Which of the following is true about the Southern blot technique? A. It allows the analysis of a specific DNA fragment B. It allows the analysis of a specific RNA fragment C. It allows the analysis of proteins D. It is used for DNA amplification E. It is used for separation by isoelectric points

A. It allows the analysis of specific DNA sequences

RNAi is primarily used in cells to: A. Promote the degradation of specific mRNA molecules, regulating gene expression B. Enhance translation of mRNA into proteins C. Repair damaged DNA in the cell nucleus D. Assist in the replication of viral RNA

A. Promote the degradation of specific mRNA molecules, regulating gene expression

RNA interference (RNAi) is a therapeutic approach that is useful for treating diseases where: A. there is a deficiency in an essential protein B. there is a mutation in tumor suppressor gene C. there is chromosomal deletion D. expression of the abberant or mutant protein is the cause of the symptoms E. there is a need for emplication of a specific DNA sequence

D. expression of the abberant or mutant protein is the cause of the symptoms

DNA fingerprinting is (non-verbatim) A. an amplification of DNA fragments B. an analytical technique that uses repeat sequences to establish a unique pattern of fragments for individuals C. altering the genetic material of an organism D. a method to verify the identity of clones fragments (other choices are just filled-in from the ppt coz I can't remember sorry)

an analytical technique that uses repeat sequences to establish a unique pattern of fragments for individuals

Molecular cloning A. Process of amplifying DNA from a complex mixture without prior isolation B. Cleave DNA at nonspecific location C. (Unrecalled) D. allows for the production of a large number of identical DNA molecules, usually uses bacterial host E. Something about RNA

D. allows for the production of a large number of identical DNA molecules, usually uses bacterial host

An information of the flow of genetic information characterized by replication of DNA, transcription of DNA to RNA, and the sequence of RNA being translated into a protein sequence at the ribosomes. A. Chargaff’s Rule B. Anfinsen’s dogma C. Central Dogma of Molecular Biology D. First Law of Thermodynamics

C. Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

What is the role of tRNA as an adaptor molecule? A. Carry the nucleotides for amino acids to be synthesized B. Hold the promoter region in place for polymerase recognition C. Recognize the codons via the anticodon arm D. Synthesize amino acids

C. Recognize the codons via the anticodon arm

Which of the following is the template in RNA-directed protein synthesis. A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. snRNA Question is modified, i think there was some mention of “DNA” in the question but it was confusing huhu. Doc just emphasized that the “template” is mRNA.

A. mRNA

The meaning of Degeneracy of the Genetic Code A. An amino acid can only be decoded by a single codon B. A single codon encodes only one amino acid C. Multiple codons may encode the same amino acid D. With time, codons degenerate into senseless code

C. Multiple codons may encode the same amino acid

This mineral is a cofactor of glutathione and a helps guard against DNA damage A. Copper B. Manganese C. Selenium D. Zinc

C. Selenium

To specifically identify the DNA mutation in a cancer patient, what blotting technique should be used A. Northern B. Southern C. Southwestern D. Western

B. Southern

Basis for using taq polymerase for pcr facilitate annealing of proteins is resistant to heat denaturation promotes DNA polymerization provide optimum condition for DNA synthesis

Resistant to heat denaturation

Inactive and always condense chromatin usually found near chromosomal centromere and chromosomal telomeres A. Constructive heterochromatin B. Constructive euchromatin C. Transcriptional euchromatin D. Histones

A. Constructive heterochromatin

DNA replication machinery serves to edit or proofread most recently added deoxynucleotide for base-pairing errors a. DNA ligase b. DNA topoisomerase 1 c. 3'-5' exonuclease d. Endonucleases

Specific enzymes capable of cleaving internal phosphodiester bonds. A. Endonucleases B. Ribonucleoproteins C. 3' - 5' Exonucleases D. Restriction nucleases

A. Endonucleases

The type of RNA that has a cloverleaf appearance and an anticodon arm A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. Ribonucleosome

B. tRNA Harper's Ch. 34 pp. 355

This structure is involved in the recognition of mRNA by the translation machinery and prevent mRNA from nucleolytic attack by 5-exoribonucleases. A. Poly-A tail B. 5-Methylguanosine cap C. Anticodon arm D. Acceptor arm

B. 5-Methylguanosine cap

Which of the following is not a stop sequence? A. UAA B. UAC C. UGA D. UAG

B. UAC

Which amino acid is encoded by the start codon? A. Glutamic acid B. Valine C. Cysteine D. Methionine

D. Methionine

In cancer, what type of mutation typically results in the premature termination of an amino acid squence? A. Frame shift mutation B. Silent mutation C. Missense mutation D. Nonsense mutation

D. Nonsense mutation

A patient has leukemia. She was given a drug that activate hsp 90. What drug is it? A. Puromycin B. Oligomycin C. Geldanamycin D. Rifampicin

C. Geldanamycin✅

Which of the following is NOT a disease of proteostasis deficiency of a disease due to misfolding of proteins? A. Huntington’s Disease B. Myotonic Disorder C. Alzheimer’s Disease D. Parkinson’s Disease

B. Myotonic Disorder

The protein is used in vesicles destined for and in sp those carrying cargo to lysosomes? A. Clathrin B. SNARE protein C. Synaptobrevin D. Synaptophysin

A. clathrin

An ATP-dependent major pathway of protein degradation. A. Lysosomal proteases B. Brefeldin C. Ubiquitin D. Proteosome

C. Ubiquitin

A year old child presented with coarse facial features, poor muscle tone, and skeletal abnormalities. What enzyme is deficient is this child with I-cell or inclusion disease? a. beta glucosidase b. alpha 1 anti-trypsin c. beta hexosaminidase d. 1-phosphotransperase

d. 1-phosphotransperase

A 44-year-old African American man presents with splenomegaly and anemia. A laboratory workup reveals a substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the β-globin chain. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Beta-thalassemia B. Sickle Cell Disease C. Hereditary Spherocytosis D. Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

B. Sickle Cell Disease

A small piece of DNA that inserts itself into another place within genome a. Indel b. Exon c. Intron d. Transposons

d. Transposon

The structural analog that actively inhibits protein synthesis in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. a. Tetracycline b. Puromycin c. Cycloheximide d. Ricin

b. puromycin

The field of gene regulation that states that regulatory mechanisms do not change the underlying regulated DNA sequence, but rather simply the expression patterns, or function, of this DNA. a. molecular biology b. biotechnology c. genetic testing d. epigenetics

d. epigenetics

This is considered to be the smallest unit of genetic expression: A. Intron B. Exon C. Chaperone D. Cistron

D. Cistron

A single mRNA that encodes more than one separated protein: A. Polycistronic mRNA B. Messenger RNA C. Topoisomerase II D. Template RNA

A. Polycistronic mRNA

What feature characterizes the DNA damage due to radiation? A. Formation of apurinic and apyrimidic sites due to elimination of corresponding bases B. Formation of pyrimidinic dimer C. Double and single strand breakage and crosslinkage D. AOTA

D. AOTA

A cluster of genes working under one promoter and one operator A. cistron B. operon C. TATA Box D. exon

B. operon

Protein that helps other proteins avoid misfolding and production of reactive or aggregated species. Also called heat shock proteins. A. BEG gene B. Mutagen C. Chaperone D. Cistron

C. Chaperone

The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of: A. DNA B. Messenger RNA C. Glycoxalyx D. Protein

B. Messenger RNA

MOST ABUNDANT EUKARYOTIC RNA. A. Ribosomal RNA B. Small non-coding tRNA C. Small nuclear RNA D. MicroRNA (miRNA) and short interfering RNA (siRNA)

A. Ribosomal RNA

Main enzyme involved in mainly involved in transcription a. ligase b. helicase c. rna polymerase d. topoisomerase II

C. RNA polymerase

The strand that is transcribed or copied into an RNA molecule? A. Lagging strand B. Template strand C. Leading strand D. Okazaki fragments

B. Template Strand

The form of RNA polymerase that is highly sensitive to alpha-amanitin. A. RNA polymerase I B. RNA polymerase II C. RNA polymerase III D. RNA polymerase IV

B. RNA polymerase II

Sequence that interupts the coding region of protein-encoding gene a. Intron b. Extron c. Cistron d. Polycistron

a. Intron

The trinucleotide repeat characteristic of Huntington's Disease A. CTG B. CAG C. CGG D. GAA

B. CAG

The property of a genetic code that says for any specific codon, a single amino acid is specified A. Unambiguous B. Universal C. Degenerate D. Non overlapping, without punctuations

A. Unambiguous

Which does not play a role in protein folding? a. PDI b. chaperone c. opsonin d. PPI

c. opsonin

a structural analog of tyrosinyl-tRNA effectively inhibits protein synthesis in both prokaryotes snd eukaryotes a. tetracycline b. puromycin c. cycloheximide d. ricin

b. puromycin

What disease is characterized by the accumulation of very long chain fatty acids and accumulation of phytanic acids A. Neonatal Adrenoleukodystrophy B. Von Willebrand's Disease (idt this was the one sa choices but nakalimut na ko guys sorryy) C. Refsum's Disease D. Zellweger's Syndrome

C. Refsum's Disease

Catalase and urate oxidase are marker enzymes for this organelle: A. Peroxisome B. Mitochondria C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus

A. Peroxisome

As telomerase activity declines with age, telomeres shorten and are associated with cell senesence and premature aging is seen in which disease: A. Refsum's disease B. Zellwegger's C. Adrenoleukodystrophy D. Progeria

D. Progeria

This enzyme is responsible for the formation of swivels by DNA polymerase and unwinding of DNA. A. DNA Topoisomerase I B. DNA Topoisomerase II C. Helicase D. DNA Ligase

C. Helicase

Protien Toxin from this bacteria catalyze ADP Ribosylation and inactivation of Elongation Factor 2 (EF 2) A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringes C. Corynebacterium Diptharea D. Staphylococcus aerus

C. Corynebacterium Diptharea

A toxic inhibitor found in castor beans that catalyzes the cleavage of eukaryotic large subunit rRNA A. Fusidic acid B. Ricin C. Cycloheximide D. Puromycin

B. Ricin

Which enzyme joins the leading and lagging strands together (Okazaki fragments)? A. Topoisomerase I B. Topoisomerase II C. Helicase D. Ligase

D. Ligase

eukaryotic DNA polymerase that plays a role in DNA proofreading and repair? A. DNA polymerase I B. DNA polymerase II C. DNA polymerase III D. DNA primase

B. DNA polymerase II

A 25-year-old woman was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was given a drug that inhibits DNA gyrase. What was this drug? A. Ceftriaxone B. Ciprofloxacin C. Piperacillin D. Trimethoprim

B. Ciprofloxacin

Which of the following sources of DNA damage is not associated with chain breaks? A. UV light induced thymine-thymine (pyrimidine) dimer B. Ionizing radiation C. Radioactive disintegration of backbone element D. Oxidative free-radical formation

A. UV light induced thymine-thymine (pyrimidine) dimer

Defects in nucleotide excision repair (NER) are associated with which genetic disorder? A. Colorectal cancer B. SCID C. Xeroderma pigmentosum D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

C. Xeroderma pigmentosum

3rc bi exam Flashcards

(298 cards)