3rd year Flashcards
(226 cards)
1
Q
What is being described?
- is a system of belief that reflects an interpretation by an individual about what constitutes a fact, is associated with a central question of whether social entities should be perceived as objective or subjective
A
ontology
2
Q
What is the hierarchy of qualitative evidence?
A
- generalisable studies
- conceptual studies
- descriptive studies
- single case study
3
Q
What score is used to determine whether a journal is good quality?
A
impact factor
4
Q
What is the threshold for an impact factor for a good journal?
A
score of 3
5
Q
What is the following a definition of?
- actions that prevent occurrence, actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating, or minimising the impact of disease and disability, or if none of these is feasible, retarding the process of disease and disability
A
prevention
6
Q
Which level of prevention is the following?
- preventing disease initiation
A
primary prevention
7
Q
Which level of prevention is the following?
- identifying disease early and impeding progression and recurrence (screening)
A
secondary prevention
8
Q
Which level of prevention is the following?
- reduce onset or impact of complications (rehab)
A
tertiary prevention
9
Q
What is the following a definition of?
- a process of identifying apparently healthy people who may be at increased risk of a disease or condition
A
screening
10
Q
What are the 7 properties of a screening test?
A
- cheap
- easy to use
- easy to interpret
- safe
- acceptable
- reliable
- valid
11
Q
What are the 4 ways to determine the validity?
A
- sensitivity
- specificity
- positive predictive value
- negative predictive value
12
Q
What is the definition of sensitivity?
A
the ability of the test to identify those with the disease
13
Q
What is the definition of specificity?
A
the ability of the test to identify those without the disease
14
Q
How is sensitivity calculated?
A
true positive / (true positive + false negative) = n of people with the disease who test positive
15
Q
How is specificity calculated?
A
true negative / (true negative + false positive) = n of people without the disease who test negative
16
Q
What is meant by true positive?
A
those predicted as diseased - have the disease
17
Q
What is meant by false positive?
A
those predicted as diseased - do not have the disease
18
Q
What is meant by true negative?
A
those predicted as healthy - are healthy
19
Q
What is meant by false negative?
A
those predicted as healthy - have the disease
20
Q
What are the 3 types of screening programme?
A
- mass screening
- selective screening
- opportunistic screening
21
Q
Which type of screening is being described?
- large scale screening of population groups
- usually by invitation
A
mass screening
22
Q
Which type of screening is being described?
- targeted screening of high risk groups
A
selective screening
23
Q
Which type of screening is being described?
- examining individuals when they attend for some other, often unrelated purpose
A
opportunistic screening
24
Q
How is positive predictive value calculated?
A
true positive / (true positive + false positive) = probably that a person testing positive has the disease
25
How is negative predictive value calculated?
true negative / (true negative + false negative) = probability that a person testing negative is healthy
26
What are the 10 important components of a screening programme?
- test
- people to take the test
- register to invite participants
- infrastructure to invite and re-invite participants
- people and infrastructure to read the test
- people to record the test finding
- people and infrastructure to take and read further test
- people and infrastructure to treat
- support mechanisms
- quality assurance mechanisms
27
What are 4 benefits of a screening programme?
- improved prognosis for some cases
- less radical treatment which cures some early cases
- resource savings
- reassurance for those with negative test results
28
What are 6 disadvantages of screening programmes?
- longer morbidity for cases whose prognosis is altered
- over treatment of questionable abnormalities
- resource costs
- false reassurance for those with false negative results
- anxiety and sometimes morbidity for those with false positive results
- hazard of screening test itself
29
When was the most recent screening programme criteria published?
Public Health England, 2015
30
What percentage of cancers does oral cancer equate to?
2%
31
What are the 2 main issues for a screening programme for oral cancers?
- lack of knowledge around which lesions will become malignant
- a reliable test suitable for use in the UK primary dental care
32
What is the definition of the medical model of health?
the medical model of health focuses on the eradication of illness through diagnosis and effective treatment
33
What is the definition of the social model of health?
the social model of health places emphasis on changes that can be made in society and in peoples own lifestyles to make the population healthier, it defines illness from the point of view of the individuals functioning within their society rather than by monitoring or changes in biological or physiological signs
34
What is the WHO definition of health?
a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity
35
What are the 8 Dahlgren and Whitehead main determinants of health?
- age, sex and constitutional factors
- agriculture and food production
- education
- work environment
- unemployment
- water and sanitation
- health care services
- housing
36
What are the 6 dimensions of health? (ewles and simnett)
- physical
- mental
- emotional
- social
- spiritual
- societal
37
What is the following defining?
- named pathological entities diagnosed by means of clinical signs or symptoms, determined by professionals based upon information collected in history taking and through clinical investigations and tests
disease
38
What is the following defining?
- refers to the subjective response of the lay individual to being unwell, it refers to how the person feels and what effect this has on their normal everyday life
illness
39
What is the following defining?
- the state of the mouth, teeth and orofacial structures that enables individuals to perform essential functions such as eating, breathing and speaking, and encompasses psychosocial dimensions such as self-confidence, well-being and the ability to socialise and work without pain, discomfort and embarrassment
WHO definition of oral health
40
What are the 6 components of lockers conceptual model of health?
- disease
- impairment
- discomfort
- functional limitation
- disability
- handicap
41
What are 7 risks from social and physical environments?
- poverty
- unemployment
- pollution
- hazardous or stressful work
- poor housing
- poor diet
- discrimination
42
What are 3 models to improving health?
- medical model
- educational model
- social model (housing, transport, air quality)
43
What is the following defining?
- it is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health
WHO definition of health promotion
44
What are 8 prerequisites for health? (ottawa)
- peace
- shelter
- education
- food
- income
- a stable eco system
- sustainable resources
- social justice and equity
45
What are the 5 components of the Ottawa charter (1986)
- building healthy public policy
- creating supportive environments
- strengthening community action
- developing personal skills
- re-orientating health services
46
What are the 3 components of Tannahills model of health promotion?
- health education
- health protection
- prevention
47
What is the following defining?
- comprises legal or other regulations and policies aimed at the enhancement of health and the improvement of the environment in order to make healthy choices easy choices
health protection
48
What are 3 measures of social class?
- registrar general 1921
- national statistics - socio-economic classification 2001
- policy network 2014
49
What are 2 meaures of deprivation?
- townsend index (1988)
- index of multiple deprivation 2010
50
What is the following defining?
- refers to a situation in which people are divided into distinct groups ranked at different levels, those at different levels in a stratification system may develop a common subculture or way of life
social stratification
51
What is the following defining?
- refers to any differences that result in some people having more socially valued characteristics than others, degree of power, prestige, wealth may be significant
social inequality
52
What does the IMD index measure?
geographic measure calculated for every lower-layer super output areas, measure relative deprivation not affluence
53
What are the 3 most significant concepts of social class?
- economic dimension: measured using indicators such as income, wealth and occupation
- political dimension: measured using indicators such as status and power
- cultural dimension: measured using indicators such as education level, values, beliefs, lifestyle, norms, consumption patterns etc
54
What are the 8 variables of the Jarman deprivation score 1991?
- unemployment
- overcrowding
- lone pensioners
- single parents
- born in new commonwealth
- children aged under 5
- low social class
55
What are the 4 most commonly used index for measuring social disadvantage?
- Jarman underprivileged area score
- townsend index
- carstairs index
- index of multiple deprivation
56
What are the 8 components of how health inequalities are produced? (models)
- artefact
- selection model
- indirect selection model
- behavioural/cultural model or lifestyle model
- materialistic and structural model
- psycho-sociological model
- life course model
- political economy model
57
What are 4 policy implications?
- selection model: prevent downward drift of ill people
- behavioural/cultural model: health education/promotion, social marketing
- material model: poverty alleviation, economic growth
- psychosocial model: improve quality of life and social relations, reducing relative differences
58
What is the following defining?
- a characteristic that has been directly shown to cause disease
risk factor
59
What is the following defining?
- the behavioural and socioeconomic characteristics that are associated with disease but are not considered to cause the disease
risk indicator
60
Which 9 components are included in the Bradford hill criteria? (ASSCCBBET)
- strength
- consistency
- specificity
- temporality
- biological gradient/dose response curve
- biological plausibility
- coherence
- experimental
- analogy
61
What is the following defining?
- is a descriptive term that refers to a variation in health status across groups of individuals within a population or differences between populations (tends to compare populations or communities rather than individuals)
health inequality
62
What is the following defining?
- is an unnecessary, avoidable, unfair and unjust difference between the health or healthcare of one person, and that of another
health inequity
63
What are 3 reports that assessed the inequalities in health?
- the black report 1980
- the Acheson report 1998
- the marmot review 2010
64
What are the 6 findings from the marmot review?
- people living in the poorest neighbourhoods in england will on average die seven years earlier than people living in the richest neighbourhoods
- people living in poorer areas spend more of their lives with disability
- the lower ones social and economic status, the poorer ones health is likely to be
- health inequalities arise from a complex interaction of many factors: housing, income, education, social isolation, disability - all of which are strongly affected by ones economic and social status
- health inequalities are largely preventable
- it is estimated that the annual cost of health inequalities is between £36 billion to £40 billion through lost taxes, welfare payments and costs to the NHS
65
What are the 6 Marmot policy objectives?
- giving every child the best start in life
- enabling all children, young people and adults to maximise their capabilities and have control over their lives
- creating fair employment and good work for all
- ensuring a healthy standard of living for all
- creating and developing sustainable places and communities
- strengthening the role and impact of ill-health prevention
66
What are the 4 variables of the townsend index 1988?
- unemployment (as a percentage of those aged 16 and over who are economically active
- non-car ownership
- non-home ownership
- household overcrowding
67
What does a high townsend score indicate?
a greater degree of of deprivation and is ranked against the average level - so expressing relative deprivation
68
69
How many areas does the IMD score measure?
38 dimensions in 7 domains
70
What is the definition of social class?
a status hierarchy in which individuals and groups are classified on the basis of esteem and prestige acquired mainly through economic success and accumulation of wealth, social class may also refer to any particular level in such a hierarchy
71
What are 2 ways to classify social class?
- registrar generals classification
- national statistics socio-economic classification
(groups people by occupation)
72
What are the 5 main Dahlgren and whitehead determinants of health?
- general socioeconomic, cultural and environmental conditions
- living and working conditions
- social and community influences
- individual lifestyle factors
- age, sex and hereditary factors
73
What are 3 possible explanations for health inequalities?
- artefact
- selection - people with poor health slide down the social scale
- lifestyle
74
What are 4 possible explanations for deprivation?
- linked to education levels which reflects though to health behaviour
- lifestyle factors
- dietary habits
- possible barriers to access to treatment and health services: language, cultural, under provided community
75
What are 6 possible explanations for health inequalities linked to learning disabilities?
- may be dependant on others for help with health care
- may de dependant on others for health care visits
- may have problems accessing health care
- may not be able to communicate effectively
- material barriers
76
What are 4 ways to achieve changes in deprivation?
- evidence based interventions
- scaled up appropriately - industrial scale
- appropriately sourced - not short term
- persistent - continue for the long haul
77
What are 3 points for proportionate universalism?
- actions should be universal
- scale and intensity
- proportionate to disadvantage
78
What are the 3 components of health promotion (downie 1996)?
- health education
- prevention
- health protection
79
What is the following WHO definition?
- enables people to increase control over their own health, covers a wide range of social and environmental interventions that are designed to benefit and protect individual peoples health and quality of life by addressing and preventing the root causes of ill health, not just focusing on treatment and cure
health promotion
80
What are the 3 components of the Tannahill model?
- disease prevention
- health education
- health protection
81
What are the 5 NICE guidance levels of intervention?
- personal skills
- community actions
- supportive environments
- healthy public policy
- reorient health services
82
Which level of prevention is the following?
- preventing disease initiation
primary
83
Which level of prevention is the following?
- identifying disease and high risk individuals early and impeding progression and recurrence
secondary
84
Which level of prevention is the following?
- replacement methods addressing loss of function
tertiary
85
Which document set out steps to improve oral health and address inequalities?
choosing better oral health 2005
86
What are the 4 approaches to prevention of disease within a population?
- high risk approach
- population approach
- common risk factor approach
- proportionate universalism
87
Which approach to prevention is the following?
- aim is to reduce the prevalence of risk factors for those individuals most affected or most at risk
- seeks to identify and protect susceptible individuals
high risk approach
88
What are 5 advantages of the high risk approach?
- targeting (can help with addressing inequalities)
- individuals be identified as being at risk
- some approaches allow individuals to self identify as at risk
- provision of tailored prevention
- evidence that one to one counselling can lead to successful outcomes in terms of behaviour change
89
What are 5 disadvantages of the high risk approach?
- 'medicalisation' of health, a pill becoming a substitute for lifestyle change, people becoming patients
- stigma
- often will lead to start again with each generation
- area is not necessarily reflective of individual
90
What is an example of a high risk approach?
fluoride varnish
91
Which approach to prevention is the following?
- aim is to reduce the prevalence of risk factors for everyone
- seeks to control the occurrence of new disease in the population as a whole
population approach
92
What are 7 advantages of the population approach?
- focus on health not disease
- becomes 'everybody's business' not doctors and patients
- empowering people to make change in a supportive environment, 'making healthy choices, the easy choice'
- long term change across generations
- requires significant political will, often dealing with powerful lobby groups
- slow, long term change often does not fit with political timetables
- those who respond first to health messages, often are the most healthy and vice versa, so can initially increase health inequalities
93
What is an example of the population approach?
encouraging toothbrushing with fluoride toothpaste
94
What are 4 examples of the high risk approach regarding smoking cessation?
seek out smokers
- assess stage of change in relation to stopping
- offer smoking cessation counselling
- provide nicotine substitution
- monitor and follow up
95
What are 4 examples of the high risk approach regarding smoking cessation?
introduce fiscal and environmental regulation
- ban advertising
- ban smoking in public places
- tax cigarrettes
- restrict access
96
Which approach to prevention is the following?
- recognises that chronic non-communicable diseases and conditions such as obesity, heart disease, stroke, cancers, diabetes and oral disease share a set of common risk conditions and factors
common risk factor approach
97
What are 3 principles of the common risk factor approach?
- tackles causes common to a number of chronic diseases
- incorporates oral health into general health strategies
- includes inter-sectoral planning
98
What are 4 examples of the common risk factor approach?
- healthy eating
- smoking cessation
- tobacco control strategy
- alcohol strategy
99
Which approach to oral disease prevention is the following?
- works at a large scale level and focuses on how we can recognise society to ensure the healthy choice is easier to achieve, rather than an unhealthy one
upstream approach
100
Which approach to oral disease prevention is the following?
- involves the reorientation of services, for example focusing dental activities on prevention achieved through dental contract reform and initiatives
downstream approach
101
What are 2 examples of a upstream approach?
- smoking legislation
- water fluoridation
102
Which approach/intervention is the following?
- seeks to reform the fundamental social and economic structures that distribute wealth, power, opportunities and decision making
- these changes generally happen at the macro policy level: national and transnational
- they are about diminishing the cause of the causes
upstream interventions
103
Which approach/intervention is the following?
- seek to reduce exposure to hazards by improving material working and living conditions, or to reduce risk by promoting healthy behaviours
- these changes generally occur at the micro policy level: regional, local, community or organisational
- they are about changing the causes
midstream interventions
104
Which approach/intervention is the following?
- seek to increase equitable access, at an individual or family level, to health and social services
- these changes generally occur at the service or access to service level
- they are about changing the effects of the causes
downstream interventions
105
What are 4 theories/models that explain health behaviour and health behaviour change by focusing on the individual?
- health belief model
- theory of reasoned action/planned behaviour
- transtheoretical (stages of change) model
- social learning theory
106
What are theories/models that explain change in communities and community action for health?
community mobilisation
- social planning
- social action
- community development
diffusion of innovations
107
What are 2 theories/models that guide the use of communication strategies for change to promote health?
- communication for behaviour change
- social marketing
108
What are 2 theories/models that explain the changes in organisation and the creation of health-supportive organisation practices?
- theories of organisational change
- models of intersectoral action
109
What are 3 theories/models that explain the development and implementation of healthy public policy?
- ecological framework for policy development
- determinants for policy making
- indicators for health promotion policy
110
Which behaviour change model is the following?
- tries to capture the influences that may sway an individual to take or ignore advice you may give
- modifying factors
- threat perceptions; perceived susceptibility, perceived severity
- perceived benefits, perceived barriers
- action likelihood
health belief model
111
Which behaviour change model is the following?
- behavioural beliefs
- evaluation of behavioural outcomes
- normative beliefs
- motivation to comply
- control beliefs
- perceived power
theory of planned behaviour
112
Which behaviour change model is commonly used for smoking cessation?
transtheoretical model for behaviour change or the cycle of change model
113
Which behaviour change model is the following?
- precontemplation
- contemplation
- active changes
- maintenance
- relapse
transtheoretical model for behaviour change or the cycle of change model
114
What are 8 examples of strategic approaches?
- international policies: WHO
- health in all policies: framework for country action
- the Helsinki statement on health in all policies
- the 8th global conference on health promotion
- national government policies
- influential reports e.g. marmot report
- health improvement programmes
- multiagency working involves health, education, social work
115
What are 6 examples of oral health promotion programmes?
- children's centres (sure start) - set up to deliver the best start in life for every child by bringing together early education, childcare, health and family support
- joint appointments between the local authority and the health authorities (healthy schools)
- smoking cessation initiatives (stoptober-no smoking day)
- brushing for life
- smile 4 life
- change 4 life
116
What 4 other aspects should all primary care health professionals also look after?
- nutrition
- smoking
- alcohol
- trauma
117
What is the largest age group in the population?
20-64
118
For the last 3 decades, what is the combined global prevalence of dental caries, perio and tooth loss?
45%
119
How many people suffer from untreated dental caries alone?
2.5 billion
120
What does the term DALY stand for?
disability adjusted life year
(how many years lived in good and bad health)
121
How is the burden of oral conditions inequalities measured?
in DALYs
122
What is the total of direct treatment costs due to dental diseases worldwide?
298 billion, corresponding to 4.6% global health expenditure
123
What is the total of indirect costs due to dental diseases worldwide?
144 billion
124
In europe, what percentage of 6 year old children have dental caries?
20-90%
125
At age 12, how many teeth on average are affected by dental caries?
0.5-3.5
126
In the 35-44 age bracket in Europe, what is the percentage of those with gum disease?
5-20%
127
In the 65-74 age bracket in Europe, what is the percentage of those with gum disease?
up to 40%
128
What percentage of europeans aged 65-74 have no natural teeth?
30% approx
129
in Europe, what is the incidence of oral cancer?
5 to 10 cases per 100,000 people
130
What groups of people is oral cancer most prevalent in?
- men
- older people
- low education
- low income
131
In particular Eastern Europe and central asia show the highest prevalence rates of HIV/AIDS. How many people who are HIV positive have oral fungal, bacterial or viral infections?
40-50%
132
In European countries, what percentages of school children are affected by dental trauma due to unsafe playgrounds, unsafe schools, road accidents or violence?
40%
133
Birth defects such as cleft lip affect how many births?
500-700 of all births
134
According to the global burden of disease study 2019, what is the most common condition?
caries of permanent teeth
135
According to the global burden of disease study, how many people globally suffer from caries of permanent teeth?
2 billion people
136
According to the global burden of disease study, how many children suffer from caries of primary teeth?
520 million
137
In industrialised countries, how many children are affected by caries?
60-90%
138
The caries decline is the result of public health measures, changing (improved) living conditions, changing lifestyles and improved self care practices. What are 2 problems with these changes?
- positive trends can remove dental health from the agenda of a county
- money currently keeping dental caries at bay may be redirected resulting in a rebound increase in disease patterns
139
What are 5 goals set by the WHO in collaboration with the FDI?
- 50% of all 5-6 year olds should be caries free
- the average should be a maximum DMFT 3 in 12 year olds
- 85% of the population should still have their teeth at 18 years old
- 50% reduction of edentulousness in 35-44 year olds
- 25% reduction edentulousness in 65 plus
140
What percentage of the population have severe perio?
5-15%
141
What percentage of youth are affected by early onset aggressive periodontitis affecting individuals during puberty?
2%
142
What percentage of adults in Europe have some sort of periodontal disease?
50%, with 10% having severe disease
143
What percentage of those 60-65 years old in Europe have periodontal disease?
70-85%
perio is increasing in Europe due to more people keeping their teeth into old age
144
The main causes of oral cancer are tobacco and alcohol use, what percentage of oral cancers does this account for?
90%
145
How many cases of oral cancers are there per year?
300,000 to 700,000 new cases every year
146
What regions have the highest rates of new cases of oral cancer?
south and south east asia
147
What is the average 5 year survival rate of patients with oral cancer?
50%
148
What is the prevalence of oral cancer worldwide?
8th most common cancer
149
What is the average age at the time of diagnosis of oral cancer?
60
150
What countries have the highest prevalence of oral cancer?
spain and hungary
151
In Europe, what is the rank of oral cancers in men?
12th most common in men
152
What are the trends regarding gender to oral cancers?
more than twice as common in men than women, however, prevalence is increasing in women and decreasing in men
153
What is the 5 year survival rate of oral cancer in eastern and Northern Europe?
23% in eastern europe
51% in northern europe
154
What are examples of good practice for caries control?
- water fluoridation
- salt fluoridation
- fluoridated milk
155
What 3 areas of the UK have fluoridated milk?
- blackpool
- leeds
- manchester
156
What does quantitative research include?
- numbers
- proportions
- statistics
- hypothesis testing
- cause and effect
157
What is a pie chart and a bar chart useful for?
to compare and contrast categories
158
What is a line graph useful for?
shows trends over time, allows multiple lines, comparison between groups
159
What is a scatterplot useful for?
shows relationship between variables
160
What is a histogram useful for?
similar to a bar chart but looks at numerical data, categories can be used but ordered
161
What are 3 advantages of graphs?
- easily summarise large dataset
- trends/patterns clearer than in tables
- gather the overall picture at a glance
162
What are 3 disadvantages of graphs?
- require further explanation
- can be manipulated
- may not tell the whole story
163
Which type of statistics is the following?
- summarise and describe data
description
164
Which type of statistics is the following?
- make predictions for a population based on a sample
interference
165
What are types of data?
- categorical
- numerical (discrete)
- continuous
166
Which type of data is the following?
- measure in categories
- place other data into categories
- nominal data
- ordinal data
categorical
167
Which type of categorical data is the following?
- named
nominal data
168
Which type of categorical data is the following?
- ordered into hierarchy
ordinal data
169
Which type of data is the following?
- countable
- whole numbers
- scales that can only take certain values
numerical (discrete)
e.g. DMFT index, total DMFT is sum of D, M and F
170
Which type of data is the following?
- can take any value within a range
- measured with interval or ratio scales
continuous
171
Which type of continuous data measurement is the following?
- numbers have real life meaning; orders variables with known difference between values e.g. temp in celsius
interval
172
Which type of continuous data measurement is the following?
- numbers have real life meaning; orders variables with known difference between values and a true zero e.g. height in cm, weight in kg (can't have negative height or weight)
ratio
173
What does an 'n' indicate in statistics?
number in the sample
174
What does an 'N' indicate in statistics?
number in the population
175
What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?
to describe characteristics of your sample
176
Which type of statistics is the following?
- distribution e.g. counts, percentages
- overall or by group
- present quantitative descriptions (in a more manageable way)
- could be characteristics of a sample
descriptive statistics
177
What are measures of central tendency?
mean, median and mode
177
What are measures of dispersion?
range, interquartile range, standard deviation
178
What is a disadvantage of measures of central tendency? (mean, median and mode)
may not give you the full picture/outliers can introduce distortion
179
Which measure of dispersion is the following?
- shows where the middle 50% of values lie and so the 25th and 75th percentile
- more informative than range
- see where the bulk of data is - range more influenced by outliers
interquartile range
180
How is the interquartile range measured?
put numbers in order, split down the middle, find the median value of the upper and lower half and subtract the upper half from the lower half
181
Which measure of dispersion is the following?
- dispersion of the dataset relative to its mean
- roughly the average distance of a datapoint from the centre which is the mean
standard deviation
182
What does a higher standard deviation indicate?
more dispersion
183
What does a lower standard deviation indicate?
less dispersion (0 would equal none)
184
What are measures of central tendency used for? (mean, median, mode)
help to describe the pattern of the data in terms of common values
185
What are measures of dispersion used for? (range, IQR and SD)
show you how closely clustered the data are around that mid point - clues to consistency and outliers
186
Which measure of central tendency should be used for categorical data?
mode
187
Which measure of central tendency is affected by extreme scores?
mean
188
Which measure of central tendency is not affected by extreme scores?
median
189
What are the two tests used to test whether data is normally distributed or not?
- Kolmogorov-smirnov test
- Shapiro-wilk test
190
What does the position on the x axis reflect in normal distribution?
reflects changes in mean
- increases moves up
- decreases moves down
191
What does a wider standard deviation reflect in normal distribution?
more likely values fall away from mean
192
What does a T test do?
- compares the mean score between two groups
- between participants (independent measures)
- within participants (repeated measures or paired samples)
- clinical significance
193
What does a p value do?
- statistical significance
- the chances that your result is due to chance
- if significant, we can reject the null hypothesis (that there is no significant difference between groups arising from anything other than sampling or experimental error - allows us to accept the alternative hypothesis - that the effect exists at the population level
194
What is the usual cut off for a p value?
< 0.05
(95% chance that it is not a chance finding)
195
What does a one-directional hypothesis mean?
x is better than y
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What does a two-directional hypothesis mean?
there will be a significant difference between x and y but we don't predict in which way
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What does a one-tailed hypothesis mean?
more likely to detect significant difference if it exists; but two-tailed usually used
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What are the conditions under which a t test can be carried out?
- the data are continuous
- the sample data have been randomly sampled from a population
- there is homogeneity of variance (the variability of the data in each group is similar)
- the distribution is approximately normal
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Which test is the non-parametric equivalent of a paired t test?
wilcoxon signed ranks
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Which test is the non-parametric equivalent of an independent t test?
mann whitney u test
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When can a wilcoxon signed ranks and Mann Whitney u test be used?
- with a non-normal distribution
- with small samples
- with at least ordinal data
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What does ANOVA stand for?
analysis of variance
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What does an ANOVA test do?
- compares the mean score between more than two groups
- one way ANOVA (between participants)
- repeated measures (within participants)
- tells you there is a difference but not where it is
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What is a post hoc test?
- allow exploration of difference while controlling for the possibility of false positive
e.g. tukeys test, bonferroni, scheffe, fishers least significance test
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What are the conditions under which an ANOVA test can be carried out?
- the dependent variable is continuous
- you have at least one categorical independent variable
- the observations are independent
- the groups should have roughly equal variances
- the data in the groups should follow a normal distribution
- the residuals satisfy the ordinary least squares assumptions
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What test is the non-parametric equivalent of ANOVA?
kruskal Wallace test
- used if distribution is not normal
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What test is the non-parametric alternative for a repeated measures ANOVA test?
Friedmans test
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What is parametric data?
parametric statistics are based on assumptions about the distribution of population from which the sample was taken
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What is non parametric data?
non parametric statistics are not based on assumptions, that is, the data can be collected from a sample that does not follow a specific distribution
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What test is being described?
- non-parametric test
two purposes:
- test of association between categorical (nominal or ordinal) variables (test of independence)
- test to see if observations differ from what is expected
- not conduced on means/medians - uses raw observations
- important numbers x2 and p value
chi squared test
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What are the conditions under which a chi square test can be carried out?
- both variables are categorical
- all observations are independent
- cells in the contingency table are mutually exclusive
- expected value of cells should be 5 or greater in at least 80% of cells
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What does correlation mean?
a correlation means that as one variable changes, another one does as well
- does not mean the relationship is causal, correlation that is not causal is termed a spurious correlation
- important numbers r and p
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What is a correlation coefficient?
(r) measures both the direction and the strength of this tendency to vary together
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What a correlation coefficient of -1 indicate?
perfect negative correlation
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What does a correlation coefficient of 0 indicate?
no correlation
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What does a correlation coefficient of 1 indicate?
perfect positive correlation
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What does a correlation of +/- 1 mean?
perfect
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What does a correlation of +/- 0.9 - +/- 0.7 mean?
strong
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What does a correlation of +/- 0.6 - +/- 0.4 mean?
moderate
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What does a correlation of +/- 0.3 - +/- 0.1 mean?
weak
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What are 2 additional correlation tests?
Pearsons product moment correlation
- two continuous variables
- parametric
Spearman's rank order correlation (or spearman's rho)
- two continuous or ordinal variables
- non-parametric
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What does regression do?
- regression follows on from correlation
- tells you how much one variable will change when another one does
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What does simple linear, multiple linear and logistic regression mean in regression analysis?
- simple linear: how one variable is affected by another
- multiple linear: how a variable is affected by more than one variable
- logistic: predicts likelihood of an event happening
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What are 2 measures of consistency?
- kappa statistic
- intraclass correlation coefficient
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