4: Genetic Engineering Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

What is recombinant DNA?

A

An artificial stretch of DNA assembled in a precise way
Often needs to be in a particular orientation
Built on the backbone of a plasmid

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2
Q

What are the four requirements for recombinant DNA technology?

A

1) Restriction endonuclease (scissors)
2) DNA ligase (glue)
3)Plasmids (backbone)
4) E.coli (factory to amplify)

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3
Q

What are restriction endonucleases?

A

Enzymes discovered from bacteria in defence against bacteriophages (viruses that attack bacteria)
Restriction endonucleases “restrict” infection, bacteria use them to bind to and cut short DNA sequences in the bacteriophage genome to prevent replication

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4
Q

What was the first restriction endonuclease discovered?

A

EcoRI
Cuts the phage genome as it enters the bacterium
Binds DNA as a homodimer in a symmetrical way
Uses magnesium ions to catalyse the cleavage of DNA
Cuts between the G and A of GAATTC on both DNA strands
Causes creation of sticky ends and a 5’ overhang

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5
Q

Why doesn’t EcoRI cut its host DNA?

A

Because the bacterial genome is methylated
EcoRI therefore cannot cut it

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6
Q

Describe the type of sequence that restriction endonucleases tend to recognise.

A

Palindromic sequences
(the same forward and backward from 5’-3’ and 3-‘5’)
E.g. GAATTC and CTTAAG
They always cut between the same two nucleotides, breaking the phosphodiester bond and adding a water molecule

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7
Q

What is the difference between sticky ends and blunt ends?

A

Sticky ends have an overhang, they have a greater surface area for bases to form complementary pairs, therefore stronger ligation occurs
Blunt ends do not form overhangs and therefore are less likely to ligate

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8
Q

What length are restriction endonuclease recognition sites?

A

4-8bp
Palindromic

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9
Q

What is T4 DNA ligase?

A

The enzyme that catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds in double-stranded DNA molecules
Requires juxtaposed (nearby) 5’ phosphate and 3’ hydroxyl
Requires ATP as a cofactor
Isolated from T4 bacteriophage
Requires sticky ends for best function
Can work on blunt ends but is less efficient

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10
Q

What are the three things a plasmid needs for RDT?

A

1) Unique cloning sites (e.g. doesn’t exist on any other point on the plasmid)
2) Drug-resistant gene (e.g. antibiotic resistant)
3) Origin of replication (ori)

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11
Q

What is the origin of replication?

A

The specific sequence of DNA where DNA replication begins, allowing the plasmid to replicate independently within a host cell

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12
Q

Describe how plasmids can be used to build recombinant DNA.

A

1) Open plasmid using restriction endonuclease
2) Add DNA cut with the same restriction endonuclease so it will be compatible
3) Join via T4 DNA ligase
*often the plasmid

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13
Q

What is the general success rate of RDT with plasmids?

A

Low
Generally, the plasmid will re-ligate itself before the DNA has time to be incorporated
90% self-ligated plasmids are produced, and 10% recombinant plasmids

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14
Q

How many cloning sites do most plasmids usually have?

A

10

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15
Q

What is double digest?

A

Use of two restriction enzymes to cut at two different recognition sites
This ensures more specific fragmentation as it ensures directionality and creates sticky ends for more efficient cloning

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16
Q

What is transformation?

A

Getting the DNA into the cell
Either using:
1) CaCl2 and heat-shock to increase permeability of the membrane by neutralising the membrane charge
B) Using high voltage electroporation to create temporary pores to allow DNA to pass through

17
Q

How do you amplify recombinant DNA once successfully produced?

A

Usually using bacteria like E.coli
Transformed bacterial will replicate when cultured with the bacteria
If recombinant DNA is inserted into a plasmid with antibiotic resistant gene, antibiotic selection can be used to isolate only the bacteria that have successfully taken up the plasmid

18
Q

What is PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction
Used to amplify small DNA fragments

19
Q

Describe how PCR is carried out.

A

1) Denature the DNA
2) Anneal primers to complementary sequences
3) Extension via Taq polymerase
4) Use T4 DNA ligase to ligate blunt ends
5)Can use GFP to insert into vector for expression and detection

20
Q

What are the temperature changes needed during PCR?

A

1) Denaturing DNA: 95℃
2) Annealing primers: 50-65℃
3) Taq polymerase: 72℃

21
Q

What are PCR primers and what are their adaptors?

A

PCR primers are short, single-stranded sequences that flank target DNA and provide starting points for DNA synthesis
Adaptors are additional sequences that can be added to primers so that the PCR product has desired features at its ends, e.g. enabling ligation to a vector

22
Q

At what stage of the embryo is genome engineering usually carried out?

A

In the zygote (fertilised egg)
Because the zygote is the founder cell of the whole organism, so anything done to the genome of the zygote will be inherited by all cells, including the germline

23
Q

What three things do transgenes need?

A

1) Gene of interest (e.g. GFP)
2) Ubiquitous transcriptional promoter
3) Polyadenylation signal

24
Q

What is a ubiquitous transcriptional promoter?

A

A DNA sequence that drives expression of the downstream gene
In contrast to a specific tissue promoter
The promoter brings in RNA polymerase machinery to start transcription

25
What is a polyadenylation signal?
The DNA sequence that indicates the cell where to cleave the DNA and add a poly(A) tail
26
What are tissue-specific promoters?
Expressed in only specific tissues In contrast to ubiquitous transcriptional promoters
27
What are the two methods of engineering transgenic animals?
1) DNA microinjection into zygote 2) Genetically engineer embryonic stem cells
28
Describe the benefits and disadvantages of microinjection of DNA into a zygote.
Fast, conceptually easy but technically difficult Disadvantages is that transgene integration is random and there could be multiple copies of the transgene Which could disrupt something important and cause a harmful mutation
29
Describe how genetically engineering embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can be used to engineer transgenic animals.
ES cells derived from blastocysts Inject ES cells into blastocyst to produce a chimera Breed the chimera to test for germ-line transmission
30
What is a chimera?
A molecule that contains genetic material from two or more distinct sources
31
Define plasmid.
Small, circular, double stranded DNA molecule Found in the cytoplasm of many bacteria Commonly used as vectors to transfer foreign genes into cells
32
Define insert.
A foreign piece of DNA that is introduced into another DNA molecule Usually via a plasmid
33
Define restriction enzyme.
An enzyme that cuts DNA at specific sequences (recognition sites)
34
Define DNA ligase.
An enzyme that catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides Critical in joining DNA fragments during genetic engineering
35
Define ligation.
The process of joining two DNA fragments together by forming a phosphodiester bond between the sugar-phosphate backbones of the fragments
36
Define transformation.
The process by which a cell takes up foreign DNA and incorporates it into its own genome
37
Why is it helpful to sequence genomes?
Identifying disease-related genes Studying evolution and diversity Drug development Enhancing biotechnology
38
What are designer endonucleases and what is their role in genome editing?
Artificially engineered enzymes designed to target and cut DNA at specific locations This allows targeted DNA cutting in genetic engineering E.g. zinc finger nucleases, CRISPR-Cas9
39
Why is RDT important for understanding gene function and the proteins they encode?
Enables scientists to isolate and clone specific genes to study them Allows to express large quantities of a protein to study its function and how it interacts with other molecules Allows for creation of GMOs by knocking out specific genes, helping to fully understand their functions