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MOLMED past paper MCQs > 4. Infectious diseases > Flashcards

4. Infectious diseases Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Plasmodium falciparum merozoites:
    a. Are injected into the human bloodstream by an Anopheles mosquito
    b. Possess specialised apical organelles
    c. Represent asexual forms of the parasite
    d. Interact with vascular endothelial receptors
    e. Cause cerebral malaria
A
  1. Plasmodium falciparum merozoites:
    a. Are injected into the human bloodstream by an Anopheles mosquito [F]
    b. Possess specialised apical organelles [T]
    c. Represent asexual forms of the parasite [T]
    d. Interact with vascular endothelial receptors [F]
    e. Cause cerebral malaria [F]
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2
Q
  1. Red blood cell invasion by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps:
    a. Initial attachment
    b. Reorientation to bring the apical end into contact with the red cell membrane
    c. Interaction with CD36
    d. Secretion of proteins from the micronemes
    e. Passive entry through the red cell membrane
A
  1. Red blood cell invasion by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps:
    a. Initial attachment [T]
    b. Reorientation to bring the apical end into contact with the red cell membrane [T]
    c. Interaction with CD36 [F]
    d. Secretion of proteins from the micronemes [T]
    e. Passive entry through the red cell membrane [F]
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3
Q
  1. Severe anaemia in malaria patients infected with Plasmodium falciparum is caused by:
    a. Haemolysis of infected red blood cells every 72 hours
    b. Haemolysis of uninfected bystander red blood cells
    c. Cytoadherence of infected red blood cells
    d. Destruction of infected red blood cells in the spleen
    e. Impaired erythropoiesis
A
  1. Severe anaemia in malaria patients infected with Plasmodium falciparum is caused by:
    a. Haemolysis of infected red blood cells every 72 hours [F]
    b. Haemolysis of uninfected bystander red blood cells [T]
    c. Cytoadherence of infected red blood cells [F]
    d. Destruction of infected red blood cells in the spleen [T]
    e. Impaired erythropoiesis [T]
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4
Q
  1. Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria:
    a. Are quantitative
    b. Are time consuming
    c. Can give false positive results
    d. Can identify different Plasmodium species
    e. Can detect other pathogens
A
  1. Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria:
    a. Are quantitative [F]
    b. Are time consuming [F]
    c. Can give false positive results [T]
    d. Can identify different Plasmodium species [T]
    e. Can detect other pathogens [F]
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5
Q
  1. Regarding the HIV genome and structure:
    a. The long terminal repeats (LTRs) encode the HIV envelope proteins
    b. The Tat and Rev are accessory proteins and do not play an important role in regulating HIV replication
    c. The viral envelope contains cellular proteins obtained from the host cell
    d. In an immature virus, the gag proteins and HIV enzymes are present in the form of poly-proteins
    e. HIV uses the co-receptors only to enhance infection
A
  1. Regarding the HIV genome and structure:
    a. The long terminal repeats (LTRs) encode the HIV envelope proteins [F]
    b. The Tat and Rev are accessory proteins and do not play an important role in regulating HIV replication [F]
    c. The viral envelope contains cellular proteins obtained from the host cell [T]
    d. In an immature virus, the gag proteins and HIV enzymes are present in the form of poly-proteins [T]
    e. HIV uses the co-receptors only to enhance infection [F]
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6
Q
  1. Regarding antiretroviral drugs and treatment:
    a. ARVs inhibits HIV replication in a non-specific way
    b. Standard ART treatment consists of a combination of 3 different drugs
    c. Treatment with protease inhibitors requires boosting with ritonavir
    d. NRTIs inhibit reverse transcriptase by allosteric inhibition
    e. Integrase inhibitors inhibit the 3’-processing step of integration
A
  1. Regarding antiretroviral drugs and treatment:
    a. ARVs inhibits HIV replication in a non-specific way [F]
    b. Standard ART treatment consists of a combination of 3 different drugs [T]
    c. Treatment with protease inhibitors requires boosting with ritonavir [T]
    d. NRTIs inhibit reverse transcriptase by allosteric inhibition [F]
    e. Integrase inhibitors inhibit the 3’-processing step of integration [F]
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7
Q
  1. Regarding HIV cure and latency:
    a. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation can be used successfully for a sterilizing cure of infection by CXCR4-tropic HIV-1
    b. Antiretroviral treatment can be used to cure a patient from an HIV-1 infection
    c. The “shock and kill” approach makes use of latency reversal agents to reactivate latent HIV
    d. Early antiretroviral treatment can be used to limit the viral reservoir size
    e. ARVs may not penetrate viral reservoirs
A
  1. Regarding HIV cure and latency:
    a. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation can be used successfully for a sterilizing cure of infection by CXCR4-tropic HIV-1 [F]
    b. Antiretroviral treatment can be used to cure a patient from an HIV-1 infection [F]
    c. The “shock and kill” approach makes use of latency reversal agents to reactivate latent HIV [T]
    d. Early antiretroviral treatment can be used to limit the viral reservoir size [T]
    e. ARVs may not penetrate viral reservoirs [T]
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8
Q
  1. Non-cultivable bacteria include:
    a. Brucella
    b. Spirochaetes
    c. Enterobacteriaceae
    d. Mycobacteria
    e. Staphylococcus species
A
  1. Non-cultivable bacteria include:
    a. Brucella
    b. Spirochaetes
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9
Q
  1. Cell components found in prokaryotic organisms include:
    a. Golgi apparatus
    b. 80s ribosomes
    c. 70s ribosomes
    d. Nucleoid
    e. Mitochondria
A
  1. Cell components found in prokaryotic organisms include:

c. 70s ribosomes
d. Nucleoid

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10
Q
  1. Microorganisms are classified into autotrophs and heterotrophs on the basis of which of the following?
    a. Nature of nitrogen source
    b. Nature of energy source
    c. Nature of carbon source
    d. Nature of electron source
    e. Nature of nutritional source
A
  1. Microorganisms are classified into autotrophs and heterotrophs on the basis of which of the following?
    a. Nature of nitrogen source

c. Nature of carbon source
e. Nature of nutritional source

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11
Q
  1. Bacterial endospores are resistant to:
    a. Antibodies
    b. Antigens
    c. Heat
    d. Chemical disinfectants
    e. UV irradiation
A
  1. Bacterial endospores are resistant to:

c. Heat
d. Chemical disinfectants
e. UV irradiation

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12
Q
  1. Plasmids:
    a. May be passed on to other bacteria
    b. Are extrachromosomal circular pieces of DNA
    c. Are usually supercoiled to fit inside the cell
    d. Vary in number within a cell
    e. Are attached to the cytoplasmic membrane
A
  1. Plasmids:
    a. May be passed on to other bacteria
    b. Are extrachromosomal circular pieces of DNA

d. Vary in number within a cell

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13
Q
  1. The following are current approaches to managing biofilm-related infections:
    a. Phage therapy
    b. Rigorous antisepsis
    c. Quorum-quenching enzymes
    d. Antimicrobial lock therapy
    e. Antimicrobial impregnated devices
A
  1. The following are current approaches to managing biofilm-related infections:
    b. Rigorous antisepsis
    d. Antimicrobial lock therapy
    e. Antimicrobial impregnated devices
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14
Q
  1. With regard to bacterial toxins:
    a. In the A-B toxin structure, the B represents the enzymatically active component
    b. Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis
    c. Bordetella pertussis toxin activates secondary messenger pathways
    d. Pyrogenic toxins target the Rho G proteins
    e. Toxins release will always lead to cellular death
A
  1. With regard to bacterial toxins:

b. Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis
c. Bordetella pertussis toxin activates secondary messenger pathways

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15
Q
  1. The following antibiotics affect bacterial DNA
    a. Penicillin
    b. Amikacin
    c. Ciprofloxacin
    d. Rifampicin
    e. Doxycycline
A
  1. The following antibiotics affect bacterial DNA

c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Rifampicin

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16
Q
  1. Appropriate personal protective equipment for a health care worker dressing a septic wound include:
    a. Wearing of gloves
    b. Using goggles
    c. Wearing a surgical mask
    d. Wearing a disposable plastic apron
    e. Using a N95 respirator
A
  1. Appropriate personal protective equipment for a health care worker dressing a septic wound include:
    a. Wearing of gloves

d. Wearing a disposable plastic apron

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17
Q
  1. Multidrug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is by definition TB that is resistant to the following drugs:
    a. Fluoroquinolones
    b. Rifampicin
    c. Isoniazid
    d. Second line injectable agents
    e. Bedaquiline
A
  1. Multidrug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is by definition TB that is resistant to the following drugs:

b. Rifampicin
c. Isoniazid

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are temperature-dependent?
    a. Endotoxin
    b. Exotoxin
    c. Fraction 1 antigen
    d. Coagulase
    e. Flagella
A
  1. Which of the following virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are temperature-dependent?

c. Fraction 1 antigen
d. Coagulase

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19
Q
  1. With respect to the mycobacterial cell wall:
    a. It has the same structure as Gram positive bacteria
    b. It contains mycolic acid
    c. It stains Gram positive
    d. It stains Gram negative
    e. It stains positive with the acid fast staining procedure
A

b. It contains mycolic acid

e. It stains positive with the acid fast staining procedure

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20
Q
  1. Multi-drug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis (TB) refers to
    a. Isolate that is resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin
    b. Isolate that is resistant to either isoniazid or rifampicin
    c. Isolate that is resistant to isoniazid, rifampicin and any fluoroquinolone
    d. Isolate that resistant to rifampicin only
    e. Isolate that is resistant to rifampicin and bedaquiline
A

a. Isolate that is resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin

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21
Q
  1. With respect to the microorganisms living in association with humans:
    a. the term “microbiome” refers to the genes contained in the microorganisms
    b. all known phyla of bacteria are represented
    c. each body surface contains a specific collection of microorganisms
    d. fungi form part of our normal collection of microorganisms
    e. the human foetus does not have any associated microorganisms
A
  1. With respect to the microorganisms living in association with humans:
    a. the term “microbiome” refers to the genes contained in the microorganisms

c. each body surface contains a specific collection of microorganisms
e. the human foetus does not have any associated microorganisms

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22
Q
  1. The following statements regarding aminoglycosides are true:
    a. They are protein synthesis inhibitors
    b. Act on the 30S ribosomal unit in bacteria
    c. Act on the 50S ribosomal unit in bacteria
    d. An example of an antibiotic from this class is doxycycline
    e. An example of an antibiotic from this class is streptomycin
A
  1. The following statements regarding aminoglycosides are true:
    a. They are protein synthesis inhibitors
    b. Act on the 30S ribosomal unit in bacteria

e. An example of an antibiotic from this class is streptomycin

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23
Q
  1. With respect to interventions in the prevention and control of infectious diseases:
    a. Passive immunoprophylaxis is the administration of childhood vaccines.
    b. Use of anti-malarials prior to, during and after visiting a malaria area is considered a form of chemoprophylaxis.
    c. Prevention of hospital-acquired infections is primarily dependent on immunoprophylaxis strategies.
    d. Hand hygiene is a key strategy in the prevention and control of infectious diseases.
    e. “Bundles of care” are useful in the prevention of hospital-acquired infections and may comprise both pharmacological and non-pharmacological components.
A
  1. With respect to interventions in the prevention and control of infectious diseases:
    b. Use of anti-malarials prior to, during and after visiting a malaria area is considered a form of chemoprophylaxis.

d. Hand hygiene is a key strategy in the prevention and control of infectious diseases.
e. “Bundles of care” are useful in the prevention of hospital-acquired infections and may comprise both pharmacological and non-pharmacological components.

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24
Q
  1. With respect to the damage-response framework:
    a. A pathogen is a microbe that causes infection.
    b. Virulence is the relative capacity of the pathogen to cause infection.
    c. Colonization is a state of infection that results in a continuum of damage with the final outcome of the interaction dependent on the host response.
    d. Damage can be induced by both the host and the microbe.
    e. By definition, infection leads to clinical signs and symptoms of disease
A
  1. With respect to the damage-response framework:

c. Colonization is a state of infection that results in a continuum of damage with the final outcome of the interaction dependent on the host response.
d. Damage can be induced by both the host and the microbe.

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11. Prokaryotes: a. Include viruses and intestinal parasites such e.g. helminths b. Characteristically possess a nucleus that is surrounded by a nuclear membrane c. Replicate by binary fission d. Contain 70S ribosomes e. Are not implicated in human infections
11. Prokaryotes: c. Replicate by binary fission d. Contain 70S ribosomes
26
13. Bacterial capsules: a. Are mostly composed of polysaccharides b. Are antigenic c. Facilitate phagocytosis of bacterial cells d. Are weak immunogens e. Are present as part of the cell wall in all bacterial species
13. Bacterial capsules: a. Are mostly composed of polysaccharides b. Are antigenic
27
16. Vaccines that are currently available to protect against infection caused by encapsulated pathogens include: a. S aureus vaccine b. S agalaciae vaccine c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine d. Pneumococcal vaccine e. Meningococcal vaccine
16. Vaccines that are currently available to protect against infection caused by encapsulated pathogens include: c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine d. Pneumococcal vaccine e. Meningococcal vaccine
28
Transmission precautions against influenza include: a. Isolating the infected patient b. Providing chlorhexidine baths for the patient c. Treating secondary bacterial infection with an appropriate antibiotic d. Health care worker to use a respirator while nursing the patient e. Appropriate decontamination of medical equipment used for the patient
Transmission precautions against influenza include: a. Isolating the infected patient d. Health care worker to use a respirator while nursing the patient e. Appropriate decontamination of medical equipment used for the patient
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26. Virulence factors which allow a pathogen to avoid the host immune system include: a. The ability to chelate metals such as copper in the human body b. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pyogenes d. Preventing phagosome-lyzozome fusion e. Salmonella Typhi is able to avoid phagocytosis
26. Virulence factors which allow a pathogen to avoid the host immune system include: c. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pyogenes d. Preventing phagosome-lyzozome fusion e. Salmonella Typhi is able to avoid phagocytosis
30
Which of the following organisms are known to avoid phagocytosis as a result of a capsule? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Salmonella Typhi c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Haemophilus influenzae
Which of the following organisms are known to avoid phagocytosis as a result of a capsule? a. Neisseria meningitidis d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Haemophilus influenzae
31
28. Which of the following statements are true regarding toxin mediated infections? a. Onset of disease is slow b. Antibiotics must always be given to patients with toxin mediated disease c. The organism only causes symptoms in the affected organ system d. Toxin production is common with viruses e. Symptoms and tissue damage usually occurs at a site distant from the site of replication
28. Which of the following statements are true regarding toxin mediated infections? e. Symptoms and tissue damage usually occurs at a site distant from the site of replication
32
30. Which of the following statements about pyogenic bacterial infections is/are true? a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. An abscess is an example of such an infection c. Antibiotics may help to terminate the infection d. This type of infection usually develops within months to a few years e. The incubation period is typically a few days
30. Which of the following statements about pyogenic bacterial infections is/are true? a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. An abscess is an example of such an infection c. Antibiotics may help to terminate the infection e. The incubation period is typically a few days
33
31. Which of the following statements regarding the pathogenicity and virulence of microorganisms are true? a. Pathogenicity is the capacity of an organism to cause disease b. Virulence is not affected by genetic mutations c. Molecular switching enables organism survival d. Gram positive organisms are more pathogenic than Gram negative organisms e. Cell wall components contribute to organism virulence
31. Which of the following statements regarding the pathogenicity and virulence of microorganisms are true? a. Pathogenicity is the capacity of an organism to cause disease c. Molecular switching enables organism survival e. Cell wall components contribute to organism virulence
34
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial infections? a. Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia is a chronic infection b. Brucellosis is typically a chronic infection c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia presents as a chronic infection d. Development of a granuloma is common in chronic infections e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a classic example of a chronic infection
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial infections? b. Brucellosis is typically a chronic infection d. Development of a granuloma is common in chronic infections e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a classic example of a chronic infection
35
35. Choose the correct and incorrect statement (s) regarding bacterial morphology: a. The Gram negative cell wall contains a large periplasmic space b. Bacterial nuclear material is surrounded by an envelope c. Metabolic processes within the cytoplasm can be potential targets for antimicrobials d. Efflux pumps through the outer membrane allow entry of cell nutrients and antimicrobials e. The cell wall is the target for beta-lactam agents
35. Choose the correct and incorrect statement (s) regarding bacterial morphology: a. The Gram negative cell wall contains a large periplasmic space c. Metabolic processes within the cytoplasm can be potential targets for antimicrobials e. The cell wall is the target for beta-lactam agents
36
36. Regarding bacterial genetics: a. Transformation occurs through plasmid transfer b. Bacterial conjugation occurs through flagella c. Point mutations occur during selective pressure d. Bacteriophage is a parasite that can transfer genetic material e. Transduction is mediated via pilli formation
36. Regarding bacterial genetics: | c. Point mutations occur during selective pressure
37
Cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is characterised by: a. Cytoadherence of infected red blood cells in the brain vasculature b. Down regulation of ICAM-1 c. Endothelial cell injury d. Cytokine release e. Reduced blood flow and hypoxia
Cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is characterised by: a. Cytoadherence of infected red blood cells in the brain vasculature c. Endothelial cell injury d. Cytokine release e. Reduced blood flow and hypoxia
38
8. The bacterial capsule: a. Is immunogenic b. Enables bacteria to evade phagocytes c. Allows bacterial adherence to surfaces d. Provides cellular rigidity & shape e. Flagella originate from it
8. The bacterial capsule: a. Is immunogenic b. Enables bacteria to evade phagocytes
39
10. Regarding additional sources of additional genetic information: a. Plasmids and bacteriophages supply the additional information b. Bacteriophages are bacteria which can infect other bacterial cells c. Multiplication in bacteriophages occurs independently from the bacterial host cell d. Plasmids are extra-chromosomal elements e. Plasmids replicate together with the main bacterial cell
10. Regarding additional sources of additional genetic information: a. Plasmids and bacteriophages supply the additional information d. Plasmids are extra-chromosomal elements
40
15. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis will have maximal effect during the: a. Lag phase b. Exponential phase c. Logarithmic phase d. Dormancy phase e. Stationary phase
15. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis will have maximal effect during the: b. Exponential phase c. Logarithmic phase
41
22. An opportunistic pathogen: a. Is only able to infect immune-competent individuals b. Cannot be part of the patient’s normal flora c. Causes disease when normal immune barriers are disrupted d. Coagulase negative staphylococci are an example e. Is exemplified by Staphylococcus aureus
22. An opportunistic pathogen: c. Causes disease when normal immune barriers are disrupted d. Coagulase negative staphylococci are an example
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23. With regards to colonisation with a pathogen, which of the following statements is/are true? a. A pathogen needs to attach to an epithelial surface in order to cause disease b. Fimbrial or non-fimbrial adhesins may assist a pathogen to adhere to a surface c. A pathogen needs to attach to muscle tissue in order to cause disease d. Fibronectin is a bacterial protein used by bacteria for adhesion e. Fibronectin is a human protein used by bacteria for adhesion
23. With regards to colonisation with a pathogen, which of the following statements is/are true? a. A pathogen needs to attach to an epithelial surface in order to cause disease b. Fimbrial or non-fimbrial adhesins may assist a pathogen to adhere to a surface e. Fibronectin is a human protein used by bacteria for adhesion
43
24. Virulence factors which allow a pathogen to avoid the host immune system include: a. The ability to chelate metals such as copper in the human body b. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pyogenes d. Preventing phagosome-lyzozome fusion e. Salmonella Typhi is able to avoid phagocytosis
24. Virulence factors which allow a pathogen to avoid the host immune system include: c. Use of Streptococcal M protein by Streptococcus pyogenes d. Preventing phagosome-lyzozome fusion e. Salmonella Typhi is able to avoid phagocytosis
44
25. The following statements relate to bacterial toxins. Which of these statements is/are true? a. Exotoxins are polysaccharides b. Endotoxins are components of the outer cell membrane c. Endotoxins are responsible for causing septic shock d. Only gram negative organisms produce endotoxins e. Cholera enterotoxin causes diarrhoea by active secretion of water and electrolytes in the gastro-intestinal tract
25. The following statements relate to bacterial toxins. Which of these statements is/are true? b. Endotoxins are components of the outer cell membrane c. Endotoxins are responsible for causing septic shock d. Only gram negative organisms produce endotoxins e. Cholera enterotoxin causes diarrhoea by active secretion of water and electrolytes in the gastro-intestinal tract
45
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding toxin mediated infections? a. Onset of disease is slow b. Antibiotics must always be given to patients with toxin mediated disease c. The organism only causes symptoms in the affected organ system d. Toxin production is common with viruses e. Symptoms and tissue damage usually occurs at a site distant from the site of replication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding toxin mediated infections? e. Symptoms and tissue damage usually occurs at a site distant from the site of replication
46
28. Which of the following statements about pyogenic bacterial infections is/are true? a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. An abscess is an example of such an infection c. Antibiotics may help to terminate the infection d. This type of infection usually develops within months to a few years e. The incubation period is typically a few days
28. Which of the following statements about pyogenic bacterial infections is/are true? a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. An abscess is an example of such an infection c. Antibiotics may help to terminate the infection e. The incubation period is typically a few days
47
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial infections? a. Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia is a chronic infection b. Brucellosis is typically a chronic infection c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia presents as a chronic infection d. Development of a granuloma is common in chronic infections e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a classic example of a chronic infection
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial infections? b. Brucellosis is typically a chronic infection d. Development of a granuloma is common in chronic infections e. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a classic example of a chronic infection
48
30. Which of these statements is true regarding Pseudomembranous colitis? a. It is a form of chronic granulomatous infection b. Immune damage is “post-infective” c. The pathology is distant from the site of infection d. It is a toxin mediated syndrome e. Disease may be fully reproduced by administering the toxin on its own
30. Which of these statements is true regarding Pseudomembranous colitis? d. It is a toxin mediated syndrome e. Disease may be fully reproduced by administering the toxin on its own
49
31. Which of the following statements explain why Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia is classified as a subacute infection? a. The infection develops over a few days b. The infection develops over a few weeks c. The onset is insidious d. Damage often as a result of adaptive immune response rather than the organism itself e. Signs and symptoms are often less prominent than acute infections
31. Which of the following statements explain why Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia is classified as a subacute infection? b. The infection develops over a few weeks c. The onset is insidious d. Damage often as a result of adaptive immune response rather than the organism itself e. Signs and symptoms are often less prominent than acute infections
50
Which of the following antimicrobial agent classes is/are correctly matched to bacterial target sites on which antibiotics act: a. B-lactams (e.g. penicillins) – bacterial capsule b. Aminoglycosides (e.g. amikacin) – bacterial cytoplasmic membrane c. Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) – bacterial ribosomes d. Fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) – bacterial chromosome e. Glycopeptides (e.g. vancomycin) – bacterial intracytoplasmic granules
Which of the following antimicrobial agent classes is/are correctly matched to bacterial target sites on which antibiotics act: c. Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) – bacterial ribosomes d. Fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) – bacterial chromosome
51
Which of the following is/are the basis of antimicrobial ‘selective toxicity’? a. Structural differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomal subunits b. Uniqueness of the presence of peptidoglycan in bacterial, but not human, cells c. Exotoxins that are exclusively produced by Gram-positive versus Gram-negative bacteria (-) d. Endotoxin being the sole molecule involved as a trigger of septic shock (-) e. Antibiotics that have activity predominantly against Gram-negative versus Gram-positive bacteria (-)
Which of the following is/are the basis of antimicrobial ‘selective toxicity’? a. Structural differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomal subunits b. Uniqueness of the presence of peptidoglycan in bacterial, but not human, cells
52
36. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics can occur as a result of: a. Production of a bacterial polysaccharide capsule b. Bacterial target site alteration c. Bacterial cell impermeability d. Production of ß-lactam antibiotics in the periplasmic space of bacterial cells e. Production of antibiotic modifying or inactivating enzymes
36. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics can occur as a result of: b. Bacterial target site alteration c. Bacterial cell impermeability e. Production of antibiotic modifying or inactivating enzymes
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39. Regarding the transfer of genetic material between bacteria: a. In transformation, genetic material is transferred by bacteriophages b. For transformation to occur, the donor bacterial cell has to lyse in order to release its genetic content c. In conjugation, the donor cell makes contact with the recipient bacterial cell and DNA is transferred directly from the one cell to the other d. Transduction can occur across any species of bacteria e. In transduction, the DNA is transferred between bacterial cells by bacteriophages
39. Regarding the transfer of genetic material between bacteria: b. For transformation to occur, the donor bacterial cell has to lyse in order to release its genetic content c. In conjugation, the donor cell makes contact with the recipient bacterial cell and DNA is transferred directly from the one cell to the other e. In transduction, the DNA is transferred between bacterial cells by bacteriophages
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51. Regarding the virulence factors of Y pestis, which is/are the correct statement/s? a. Y pestis produces an enzyme coagulase that clots ingested blood in the foregut of a flea at < 30 degrees C b. Y pestis evades host’s immune system phagocytosis by expressing genes for capsular antigen F1 production at 36-37 degrees C c. With the aid of V and W antigens and low intracellular calcium responses, Yersinia pests is able to survive intracellularly d. The pathogenesis of plague is due to enterotoxin release during active infection resulting in severe watery diarrhea e. Plague infection is successfully prevented by an available commercial vaccine consisting of live, attenuate, plague bacilli.
51. Regarding the virulence factors of Y pestis, which is/are the correct statement/s? a. Y pestis produces an enzyme coagulase that clots ingested blood in the foregut of a flea at < 30 degrees C b. Y pestis evades host’s immune system phagocytosis by expressing genes for capsular antigen F1 production at 36-37 degrees C c. With the aid of V and W antigens and low intracellular calcium responses, Yersinia pests is able to survive intracellularly
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54. Which of the following statements regarding Ebolavirus is/are correct? a. It is a dsDNA virus b. It is endemic throughout the southern African region c. It is spread efficiently following contact with infected, but as yet asymptomatic, people d. Like plague, it is considered a Category A Priority Biodefense Pathogen e. There are currently no commercially available antiviral drugs or vaccines to treat or prevent infections
54. Which of the following statements regarding Ebolavirus is/are correct? d. Like plague, it is considered a Category A Priority Biodefense Pathogen e. There are currently no commercially available antiviral drugs or vaccines to treat or prevent infections
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The reproductive number (ratio), RO, is: a. The number of infections an infected individual will spread to healthy people in the absence of suitable interventions b. For Ebolavirus, approximately 2 c. Helpful in determining the mode of transmission of an infectious agent d. The number of virions generated during viral replication in a 24-hour period e. The number of days it will take for an infected individual to become symptomatic
The reproductive number (ratio), RO, is: a. The number of infections an infected individual will spread to healthy people in the absence of suitable interventions b. For Ebolavirus, approximately 2 c. Helpful in determining the mode of transmission of an infectious agent
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1. In the stepwise development of cancer: a. an adenoma can develop into a carcinoma b. progression of the disease is associated with further mutations and/or epigenetic changes c. the first morphologically detectable step is usually dysplasia of cells d. “in situ” refers to a carcinoma which has broken through the basement membrane but not yet metastasised to a distant organ e. treatment becomes progressively easier as the cancer develops
1. In the stepwise development of cancer: a. an adenoma can develop into a carcinoma b. progression of the disease is associated with further mutations and/or epigenetic changes
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3. Angiogenesis in tumours: a. is usually independent of the production of VEGF b. results in poorly developed capillary walls which leads to easier invasion by cancer cells c. is characterised by variations in degree of perfusion in different areas of the tumour d. is characterised by impaired Ang1-Tie2 binding during maturation of the vessel walls e. can be targeted by anti-VEGF antibodies
3. Angiogenesis in tumours: b. results in poorly developed capillary walls which leads to easier invasion by cancer cells c. is characterised by variations in degree of perfusion in different areas of the tumour d. is characterised by impaired Ang1-Tie2 binding during maturation of the vessel walls e. can be targeted by anti-VEGF antibodies
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4. Proto-oncogenes are: a. dominant as only one allele needs to be altered b. involved in DNA repair via their encoded proteins c. called oncogenes when they encode constitutively active proteins d. called oncogenes when the protein they encode is overexpressed e. encode proteins that halt the cell cycle
4. Proto-oncogenes are: a. dominant as only one allele needs to be altered c. called oncogenes when they encode constitutively active proteins d. called oncogenes when the protein they encode is overexpressed
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5. With respect to regulation of G1 to S progression in the cell cycle: a. G1 cyclin levels increase due to signalling through proliferative pathways b. G1/CDK1 complexes phosphorylate Rb c. hypophosphorylated Rb releases E2F d. E2F is a transcription factor for proteins required in S phase e. the cell is halted in G1 by p53 induced protein p21 if DNA damage is detected
5. With respect to regulation of G1 to S progression in the cell cycle: a. G1 cyclin levels increase due to signalling through proliferative pathways d. E2F is a transcription factor for proteins required in S phase e. the cell is halted in G1 by p53 induced protein p21 if DNA damage is detected
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8. With respect to senescence and immortalisation of cells: a. oncogene over-expression on its own can lead to cell senescence b. senescent cells are able to function normally while unable to divide c. without telomerase, telomeres lengthen every time the cell divides d. cells with mutations in P53 are likely to become senescent e. normal stem cells are thought to express telomerase
8. With respect to senescence and immortalisation of cells: a. oncogene over-expression on its own can lead to cell senescence b. senescent cells are able to function normally while unable to divide e. normal stem cells are thought to express telomerase
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12. With regards to intrinsic host defences to malaria: a. they include mutations of haemoglobin which are beneficial in the heterozygous state b. G6PD deficiency allows the parasite to be exposed to oxidative stress c. sickling of the RBC due to HbS leads to increased phagocytosis d. the presence of HbC is protective against severe malaria e. absence of the Duffy antigen receptor protects against Plasmodium falciparum
12. With regards to intrinsic host defences to malaria: a. they include mutations of haemoglobin which are beneficial in the heterozygous state b. G6PD deficiency allows the parasite to be exposed to oxidative stress c. sickling of the RBC due to HbS leads to increased phagocytosis d. the presence of HbC is protective against severe malaria
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14. With regards to malaria therapy, the following are correctly matched: a. artemisinin: is the active compound in a Chinese herb b. artemisinin: acts only on the asexual parasite stages c. chloroquine: prevents detoxification of haem d. chloroquine : resistance results in increased accumulation of the drug in the parasite food vacuole e. antifolate drugs: generate free radicals
14. With regards to malaria therapy, the following are correctly matched: a. artemisinin: is the active compound in a Chinese herb c. chloroquine: prevents detoxification of haem
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19. With regards to anti-retroviral therapy of HIV-1 a. co-receptor antagonists prevent virus binding to CD4 b. nucleoside RT inhibitors mimic the structure of dNTPs c. non-nucleoside RT inhibitors are competitive inhibitors of the reverse transcriptase enzyme d. protease inhibitors prevent gag-pol polypeptide cleavage e. integrase inhibitors are the most commonly used anti- retroviral drugs
19. With regards to anti-retroviral therapy of HIV-1 b. nucleoside RT inhibitors mimic the structure of dNTPs d. protease inhibitors prevent gag-pol polypeptide cleavage
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22. Bacterial capsules: a. are mostly composed of polysaccharides b. are antigenic c. facilitate phagocytosis of bacterial cells d. are important for immune evasion e. are present as part of the cell wall in all bacterial species
22. Bacterial capsules: a. are mostly composed of polysaccharides b. are antigenic d. are important for immune evasion
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24. Bacterial endotoxin: a. is released by both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria b. is a well-established trigger of the septic shock cascade c. is composed of a lipid and polysaccharides d. is highly immunogenic e. is the found in the cytoplasmic membrane of Gram negative bacterial cells
24. Bacterial endotoxin: b. is a well-established trigger of the septic shock cascade c. is composed of a lipid and polysaccharides
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31. With regard to biofilms: a. sessile bacterial cells are metabolically highly active b. planktonic bacterial cells detach from the surface of a biofilm and become free-floating in a liquid medium c. bacterial biofilms are implicated in > 60% of all human infections d. biofilm-embedded bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotic therapy than free-floating bacteria e. to date, biofilm-embedded bacteria have not been implicated in human infections
31. With regard to biofilms: b. planktonic bacterial cells detach from the surface of a biofilm and become free-floating in a liquid medium c. bacterial biofilms are implicated in > 60% of all human infections
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34. With respect to the immune system: a. serology differentiates acute from past infection. b. mutations in immune system pathways cause secondary immunodeficiencies. c. the normal immune response to a grafted organ is rejection. d. encapsulated bacteria resist phagocytosis. e. deficient immune responses decrease the risk of cancer development.
34. With respect to the immune system: a. serology differentiates acute from past infection. c. the normal immune response to a grafted organ is rejection. d. encapsulated bacteria resist phagocytosis.
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36. Regarding aspects of infectious disease pathogenesis: a. understanding microbial pathogenesis involves consideration of complex interactions between host, microbe and the environment b. infectious disease causation is determined solely by the intrinsic virulence of a microbe and its infectious dose c. ‘primary’ pathogens refer to those microbes that cause disease in immune-compromised hosts d. the ‘carrier state’ refers to microorganisms that typically form part of the normal flora found in healthy, asymptomatic, patients e. a contaminated multi-dose medication vial is typically the source rather than reservoir of an infectious agent causing an outbreak
36. Regarding aspects of infectious disease pathogenesis: a. understanding microbial pathogenesis involves consideration of complex interactions between host, microbe and the environment e. a contaminated multi-dose medication vial is typically the source rather than reservoir of an infectious agent causing an outbreak
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39. The following statements relate to bacterial toxins. a. exotoxins are polysaccharides b. endotoxins are proteins c. endotoxins are responsible for causing septic shock d. only gram negative organisms produce exotoxins e. cholera enterotoxin causes diarrhoea by active secretion of water and electrolytes in the GIT.
39. The following statements relate to bacterial toxins. c. endotoxins are responsible for causing septic shock e. cholera enterotoxin causes diarrhoea by active secretion of water and electrolytes in the GIT.
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42. With regard to pyogenic bacterial infections: a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. an abscess is an example of such an infection c. antibiotics may help to terminate the infection d. this type of infection is characterised by the presence of pus e. this type of infection develops within weeks rather than days
42. With regard to pyogenic bacterial infections: a. Streptococcal pharyngitis is an example of such an infection b. an abscess is an example of such an infection c. antibiotics may help to terminate the infection d. this type of infection is characterised by the presence of pus
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43. With respect to tuberculosis (TB): a. the immune system fails to contain the TB bacillus in latent TB infection. b. treatment of latent TB infection prevents TB disease. c. South Africa is considered a high TB burden country. d. environmental controls reduce the concentration of TB bacillus droplet nuclei in the air. e. individuals with suspected TB who wear surgical masks reduce TB transmission.
43. With respect to tuberculosis (TB): b. treatment of latent TB infection prevents TB disease. c. South Africa is considered a high TB burden country. d. environmental controls reduce the concentration of TB bacillus droplet nuclei in the air. e. individuals with suspected TB who wear surgical masks reduce TB transmission.
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48. Virulence factors of Yersinia pestis include: a. a polysaccharide capsule called F1 antigen b. coagulase produced at a temperature of ~28°C c. X and Y antigens that promote intracellular survival d. 70S intra-cytoplasmic ribosomes e. endotoxin
48. Virulence factors of Yersinia pestis include: b. coagulase produced at a temperature of ~28°C e. endotoxin
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49. Regarding the epidemiology of infectious diseases: a. it refers to the study of disease distribution and determinants in populations b. incidence of disease refers to the number of existing cases of disease per population during a defined time period c. prevalence of disease refers to the number of new cases of disease per population in a defined time period d. an endemic disease is normally absent from a population e. an outbreak of disease refers to the occurrence of cases in excess of the normally expected frequency in a specific population over a defined time period
49. Regarding the epidemiology of infectious diseases: a. it refers to the study of disease distribution and determinants in populations e. an outbreak of disease refers to the occurrence of cases in excess of the normally expected frequency in a specific population over a defined time period
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50. Regarding immunization: a. it is an important component of communicable disease prevention and control b. active immunization involves the administration of vaccine antigens to an individual in order to induce specific antibody production c. passive immunization involves the administration of vaccine antigens to an individual in order to induce specific antibody production d. all available vaccines confer lifelong immunity e. herd immunity to a communicable disease within a population interrupts person-to-person transmission and protects susceptible, unvaccinated individuals
50. Regarding immunization: a. it is an important component of communicable disease prevention and control b. active immunization involves the administration of vaccine antigens to an individual in order to induce specific antibody production e. herd immunity to a communicable disease within a population interrupts person-to-person transmission and protects susceptible, unvaccinated individuals
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52. The following are correctly matched with respect to antimicrobial agents and their bacterial target sites: a. B-lactams (e.g. penicillins) – bacterial capsule b. aminoglycosides (e.g. amikacin) – bacterial cytoplasmic membrane c. macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) – bacterial ribosomes d. fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) – bacterial chromosome e. glycopeptides (e.g. vancomycin) – bacterial intracytoplasmic granules
52. The following are correctly matched with respect to antimicrobial agents and their bacterial target sites: c. macrolides (e.g. erythromycin) – bacterial ribosomes d. fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) – bacterial chromosome
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4. Microbes employ a variety of mechanisms to avert detection and destruction by the host immune response. These include: a. Induction of autoimmune disease in the host b. antimicrobial resistance c. Replication within macrophages d. Establishing latent infection e. Antigenic variation
4. Microbes employ a variety of mechanisms to avert detection and destruction by the host immune response. These include: c. Replication within macrophages d. Establishing latent infection e. Antigenic variation
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5. The following are correctly matched with respect to the appropriate immunologic response to an infectious agent: a. Intracellular bacteria AND an antibody response b. Bacteria in the interstitial space AND complement c. Cell-free viruses in the blood AND antibodies d. Bacterial infection of epithelial surfaces AND IgD antibodies e. Parasitic worms AND complement
5. The following are correctly matched with respect to the appropriate immunologic response to an infectious agent: b. Bacteria in the interstitial space AND complement c. Cell-free viruses in the blood AND antibodies e. Parasitic worms AND complement
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15. With respect to bacterial genetics: a. Plasmids replicate independently b. Spontaneous mutations always affect the phenotype of the cell c. Phenotypic variation may be due to change in gene expression in response to the environment d. Transduction can occur between bacteria of widely differing species e. The DNA is usually organized in a circular chromosome
15. With respect to bacterial genetics: a. Plasmids replicate independently c. Phenotypic variation may be due to change in gene expression in response to the environment d. Transduction can occur between bacteria of widely differing species e. The DNA is usually organized in a circular chromosome
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``` 20. Vaccines that are currently available to protect against infection caused by encapsulated pathogens include: a. S aureus vaccine b. S agalaciae vaccine c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine d. Pneumococcal vaccine e. Meningococcal vaccine ```
20. Vaccines that are currently available to protect against infection caused by encapsulated pathogens include: c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine d. Pneumococcal vaccine e. Meningococcal vaccine
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22. Regarding bacterial metabolism a. Aerobic respiration results in the partial breakdown of glucose to carbon dioxide, water and a lot of ATP b. Anaerobic respiration results in complete breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid, organic waste products and a little ATP c. Reduction is the gain of electrons by a molecule d. Oxidation is the loss of electrons by a molecule e. Catabolism is the metabolic breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones releasing energy
22. Regarding bacterial metabolism c. Reduction is the gain of electrons by a molecule d. Oxidation is the loss of electrons by a molecule e. Catabolism is the metabolic breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones releasing energy
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26. Regarding β-lactamases: a. Production can be induced b. They are produced only by Gram –ve cells c. Production can be constitutive d. They are highly immunogenic e. They confer resistance to aminoglycoside antibiotics
26. Regarding β-lactamases: a. Production can be induced c. Production can be constitutive
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27. Examples of β-lactam antibiotics include: a. Erythromycin b. A second-generation cephalosporin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Penicillin e. Rifampicin
27. Examples of β-lactam antibiotics include: b. A second-generation cephalosporin d. Penicillin
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31. The following antibiotics and their mechanisms are correctly matched: a. Glycopeptides e.g. vancomycin AND inhibition of cell wall glycopeptide synthesis b. Macrolides AND inhibition of protein synthesis c. Fluoroquinolones AND DNA polymerase d. Tetracyclines AND DNA synthesis inhibition e. Cephalosporins AND inhibition of cell wall synthesis
31. The following antibiotics and their mechanisms are correctly matched: a. Glycopeptides e.g. vancomycin AND inhibition of cell wall glycopeptide synthesis b. Macrolides AND inhibition of protein synthesis e. Cephalosporins AND inhibition of cell wall synthesis
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33. With respect to HIV infection: a. HIV-1 gp120 sequentially binds CD4 and CCR5 and/or CXCR4. b. The integrase enzyme is the first enzyme to act during the HIV-1 life cycle. c. The integrated provirus behaves in a similar fashion to other human genes, initiating transcription at the 5’ end. d. The viral protease cleaves the Gag and Gag-Pol polyproteins completely in the cytoplasm. e. One infected cell can produce between 20 and 130 000 new virions.
33. With respect to HIV infection: a. HIV-1 gp120 sequentially binds CD4 and CCR5 and/or CXCR4. c. The integrated provirus behaves in a similar fashion to other human genes, initiating transcription at the 5’ end. e. One infected cell can produce between 20 and 130 000 new virions.
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35. HIV-1 infects the following cell types: a. CD4+ T-lymphocyte cells b. CD8 T-lymphocyte cells c. Macrophages d. Natural killer cells e. Dendritic cells
35. HIV-1 infects the following cell types: a. CD4+ T-lymphocyte cells c. Macrophages e. Dendritic cells
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36. Persistence of HIV-1 infection is due to: a. the early establishment of viral reservoirs. b. the aberrant activation of the immune system. c. Immune escape from targeted epitopes. d. the lack of antibody responses to the virus. e. Slow decay of latently infected resting CD4+ T cells.
36. Persistence of HIV-1 infection is due to: a. the early establishment of viral reservoirs. c. Immune escape from targeted epitopes. e. Slow decay of latently infected resting CD4+ T cells.
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``` 55. In a patient with malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, the following parasite stages are seen on the peripheral blood smear: a. Immature gametocytes b. Mature gametocytes c. Gametes d. Late stage trophozoites e. Ring forms ```
55. In a patient with malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, the following parasite stages are seen on the peripheral blood smear: b. Mature gametocytes e. Ring forms
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56. Red blood cell invasion by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps: a. Initial attachment b. Reorientation to bring the apical end into contact with the red cell membrane c. Interaction with CD36 d. Secretion of proteins from the micronemes e. Passive entry through the red cell membrane
56. Red blood cell invasion by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps: a. Initial attachment b. Reorientation to bring the apical end into contact with the red cell membrane d. Secretion of proteins from the micronemes
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57. Degradation of haemoglobin by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps: a. Ingestion by the cytostome b. Fusion with the neutral digestive vacuole c. Digestion by specialized proteases of the host red blood cell d. Release of haem e. Biocrystallisation of haemozoin
57. Degradation of haemoglobin by Plasmodium falciparum involves the following steps: a. Ingestion by the cytostome d. Release of haem e. Biocrystallisation of haemozoin
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58. PfEMP 1 (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein): a. Is encoded by a family of var genes b. Is the most important determinant of parasite antigenic variation c. Is required for invasion into red blood cells d. Plays a major role in parasite cytoadherence e. Binds to band 3
58. PfEMP 1 (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein): a. Is encoded by a family of var genes b. Is the most important determinant of parasite antigenic variation d. Plays a major role in parasite cytoadherence
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59. Plasmodium falciparum sporozoites: a. Are injected into the human bloodstream by a female Anopheles mosquito b. Invade hepatocytes c. Replicate within 48 hours to produce merozoites d. Represent the non pathogenic stage of the parasite e. Produce gametocytes
59. Plasmodium falciparum sporozoites: a. Are injected into the human bloodstream by a female Anopheles mosquito b. Invade hepatocytes d. Represent the non pathogenic stage of the parasite

MOLMED past paper MCQs (1 decks)

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