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Microbiology > My Micro Part 1, USMLE > Flashcards

My Micro Part 1, USMLE Flashcards

1
Q

Bacterial structure: Rigid support

A

Peptidoglycan

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2
Q

Bacterial structure: Major surface antigens (2)

A

1) Cell wall

2) Outer membrane (G-)

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3
Q

Bacterial structure: Protects against osmotic pressure

A

Peptidoglycan

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4
Q

Bacterial structure: Site of oxidative and transport enzymes

A

Plasma membrane

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5
Q

Bacterial structure: Site of endotoxin

A

Outer membrane (G-)

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6
Q

Bacterial structure: Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in G-

A

Periplasm

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7
Q

Bacterial structure: Site of lipopolysaccharide

A

Outer membrane (G-); aka endotoxin

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8
Q

Bacterial structure: Mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface

A

Pilus/fimbria

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9
Q

Bacterial structure: Motility

A

Flagellum

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10
Q

Bacterial structure: Resistant to dehydration, heat, and chemicals

A

Spore

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11
Q

Bacterial structure: Forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation

A

Sex pilus

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12
Q

Bacterial structure: Contains genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins

A

Plasmid

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13
Q

Bacterial structure: Adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (e.g. indwelling catheters)

A

Glycocalyx

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14
Q

Bacterial structure: Sugar backbone with peptide side chains cross- linked by transpeptidase

A

Peptidoglycan

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15
Q

Bacterial structure: Lipoteichoic acid

A

Cell wall

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16
Q

Bacterial structure: Lipid A

A

Outer membrane (G-)

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17
Q

Bacterial structure: O polysaccharide

A

Outer membrane (G-)

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18
Q

Bacterial structure: Phospholipid bilayer

A

Plasma membrane

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19
Q

Bacterial structure: Contains hydrolytic enzymes, including beta lactamases

A

Periplasm

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20
Q

Bacterial structure: Component of pilus/fimbria

A

Glycoprotein

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21
Q

Bacterial structure: Component of flagellum

A

Protein

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22
Q

Bacterial structure: Components of spore

A

1) Dipicolinic acid

2) Peptidoglycan

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23
Q

Bacterial structure: Keratin-like coat

A

Spore

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24
Q

Bacterial structure: DNA

A

Plasmid

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25
Q

Bacterial structure: Component of capsule

A

Organized discrete polysaccharide layer EXCEPT B. anthracis

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26
Q

Subunits of bacterial ribosome

A

30S and 50S

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27
Q

Substances induced by exposure to major surface antigens

A

TNF and IL-1

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28
Q

Component of cell wall that induces TNF and IL-1

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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29
Q

Component of outer membrane (G-) that induces TNF and IL-1

A

Lipid A

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30
Q

Antigen of outer membrane (G-)

A

O polysaccharide

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31
Q

Component of capsule of B. anthracis

A

D-glutamate (a polypeptide, not polysaccharide)

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32
Q

Bacterial structure: Composed of loose network of polysacharides

A

Glycocalyx

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33
Q

Bacterial structure: Unique to G+

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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34
Q

Bacterial structure: Unique to G-

A

1) Outer membrane
2) Porin on outer membrane
3) Periplasmic space

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35
Q

G+ rods

A

1) Bacillus
2) Clostridium
3) Corynebacterium
4) Gardnerella (Gram variable)
5) Lactobacillus
6) Listeria
7) Mycobacterium
8) Propionibacterium

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36
Q

G- zoonotic rods

A
  • ELLAs
    1) Batonella
    2) Brucella
    3) Francisella
    4) Pasteurella
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37
Q

Branching filamentous G+ bacteria

A

1) Actinomyces

2) Nocardia

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38
Q

Weakly acid fast bacteria

A

Nocardia

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39
Q

Bacteria: Giemsa

A

Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience

1) Chlamydia (pleomorphic)
2) Borrelia (spirochete)
3) Rickettsia (pleomorphic)
4) Trypanosomes
5) Plasmodium

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40
Q

Bacteria without cell wall

A

1) Mycoplasma

2) Ureaplasma

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41
Q

Component of membrane of mycoplasma and ureaplasma

A

Sterols

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42
Q

Component of mycobacterial cell wall responsible for acid fast staining

A

Mycolic acids

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43
Q

Component of acid fast staining that stains my colic acid

A

Carbolfuchsin

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44
Q

Means of identification/staining of T. pallidum

A

1) Dark-field microscopy

2) Fluorescent antibody staining

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45
Q

Bacteria: Lacks classic peptidoglycan because of low muramic acid, rendering beta lactam antibiotics less effective

A

Chlamydia

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46
Q

Bacteria: PAS

A

Tropheryma whipplei (Whipple disease)

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47
Q

Bacteria: Ziehl-Neelsen

A

1) Mycobacteria
2) Nocardia
3) Cryptosporidium oocysts (protozoa)

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48
Q

Bacteria: India ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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49
Q

Bacteria: Silver stain

A

1) Fungi (P. jiroveci)
2) Legionella
3) H. pylori

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50
Q

Substance stained by PAS

A

[PASs the sugar]

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides

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51
Q

Alternative to Ziehl-Neelsen staining

A

Auramine-rhodamine stain (inexpensive but less specific)

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52
Q

Alternative to india ink

A

Mucicarmine

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53
Q

Mucicarmine stains the polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans what color?

A

Red

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54
Q

Culture medium/media: H. influenzae

A

Chocolate agar

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55
Q

Culture medium/media: N. gonorrhea/N. meningitidis

A

Thayer-Martin

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56
Q

Culture medium/media: B. pertussis

A

1) Bordet-Gengou

2) Regan-Lowe

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57
Q

Culture medium/media: C. diphtheriae

A

1) Tellurite agar

2) Loffler medium

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58
Q

Culture medium/media: M. tuberculosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

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59
Q

Culture medium/media: M. pneumoniae

A

Eaton agar

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60
Q

Culture medium/media: E. coli

A

EMB

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61
Q

Culture medium/media: Legionella

A

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron

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62
Q

Culture medium/media: Fungi

A

Sabouraud agar

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63
Q

Media content: CAP (esp. for H. influenzae)

A

1) Factor V (NAD)

2) Factor X (hematin)

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64
Q

Media content: Thayer-Martin, inhibits G+

A

Vancomycin

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65
Q

Media content: Thayer-Martin, inhibits G- except Neisseria

A

Colistin

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66
Q

Media content: Thayer-Martin, inhibits fungi

A

Nystatin

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67
Q

Media content: Thayer-Martin

A

[Very Typically Cultures Neisseria]

1) Vancomycin
2) Trimethoprim
3) Colistin
4) Nystatin

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68
Q

Media content: Bordet-Gengou

A

Potato

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69
Q

Media content: Regan-Lowe

A

1) Charcoal
2) Blood
3) Antibiotic

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70
Q

Media content: Eaton agar (esp. for M. pneumoniae)

A

Cholesterol

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71
Q

Use an O2-dependent system to generate ATP

A

Aerobes

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72
Q

Aerobes

A

[Nagging Pests MustBreathe]

1) Nocardia
2) Pseudomonas
3) MycoBacterium tuberculosis

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73
Q

Triggers for reactivation of M. tuberculosis

A

1) Immunocompromise

2) TNF-alpha inhibitor use

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74
Q

Generally foul smelling (short-chain fatty acids), are difficult to culture, and produce gas in tissue (CO2 and H2); normal flora in GIT

A

Anaerobes

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75
Q

Anaerobes

A

[Frankly Can’t Breathe Air]

1) Fusobacterium
2) Clostridium
3) Bacteroides
4) Actinomyces

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76
Q

Anaerobes lack these enzymes, making them susceptible to oxidative damage

A

1) Catalase

2) Superoxide dismutase

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77
Q

Antibiotics that are ineffective against anaerobes because they require O2 to enter bacterial cell

A

AminO2glycosides

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78
Q

Rely on host ATP for survival

A

Obligate intracellular bacteria

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79
Q

Obligate intracellular bacteria

A

[Really CHilly and COld]

1) Rickettsia
2) Chlamydia
3) Coxiella

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80
Q

Facultative intracellular bacteria

A

[Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY]

1) Salmonella
2) Neisseria
3) Brucella
4) Mycobacteria
5) Legionella
6) Francisella
7) Listeria
8) Yersinia pestis

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81
Q

Significance of spleen in ridding of encapsulated bacteria

A

Opsonized bacteria are cleared by spleen

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82
Q

Vaccines given for asplenics

A

1) S. pneumoniae
2) H. influenzae
3) N. meningitidis

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83
Q

T/F A polysaccharide antigen (capsule) alone can be presented to T cells, promoting T cell activation and subsequent class switching

A

F, conjugated to a carrier protein, enhancing immunogenicity

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84
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine with no conjugated protein

A

Pneumovax

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85
Q

Urease-positive organisms

A

[CHuck norris hates PUNKSS]

1) Cryptococcus
2) H. pylori
3) Proteus
4) Ureaplasma
5) Nocardia
6) Klebsiella
7) S. epidermidis
8) S. saprophyticus

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86
Q

Disease associated with recurrent infections with catalase (+) organisms

A

CGD

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87
Q

Enzyme deficient in CGD

A

NADPH oxidase

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88
Q

Pigment-producing bacteria: Yellow granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

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89
Q

Bacterial components that promote evasion of host immune response

A

Virulence factors

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90
Q

Virulence factor: Binds Fc region of IgG, preventing opsonization and phagocytosis

A

Protein A

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91
Q

Virulence factor: Secreted by SHiN to colonize respiratory mucosa

A

IgA protease

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92
Q

Virulence factor: Shares similar epitopes to human cellular proteins (molecular mimicry); possibly underlies the autoimmune response seen in acute rheumatic fever

A

M protein

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93
Q

Virulence factor: Needle-like protein appendage facilitating direct delivery of toxins from certain gram-negative bacteria to eukaryotic host cell

A

Injectisome aka type III secretion system

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94
Q

Bacteria: Protein A

A

S. aureus

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95
Q

Bacteria: M protein

A

GABHS

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96
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Gram-positive and gram- negative bacteria

A

Exotoxin

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97
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Secreted from cell

A

Exotoxin

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98
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Polypeptide

A

Exotoxin

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99
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: LPS

A

Endotoxin

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100
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Encoded in plasmid or bacteriophage

A

Exotoxin

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101
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Encoded in bacterial chromosome

A

Endotoxin

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102
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: High toxicity, low fatal dose

A

Exotoxin

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103
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Low toxicity, high fatal dose

A

Endotoxin

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104
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Fever, shock, DIC

A

Endotoxin

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105
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Induces antibodies called antitoxins (antigenic)

A

Exotoxin

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106
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Poorly antigenic

A

Endotoxin

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107
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Toxoids used as vaccines

A

Exotoxin

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108
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: No toxoids or vaccines available

A

Endotoxin

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109
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Stable at 100C for 1 hour

A

Endotoxin

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110
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Destroyed rapidly at 60C

A

Exotoxin

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111
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Meningococcemia

A

Endotoxin

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112
Q

Heat stable enterotoxin

A

Staphylococcal enterotoxin

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113
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Inactivate elongation factor (EF-2)

A

1) Diphtheria toxin, C. diphtheriae

2) Exotoxin A, P. aeruginosa

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114
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Inactivate 60S ribosome

A

1) Shiga toxin, Shigella spp

2) Shiga-like toxin, EHEC O157: H7

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115
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increases cAMP) > increases Cl− secretion in gut and H2O efflux

A

Heat-labile toxin (LT), ETEC

[Labile in the Air (Adenylate cyclase), Stable in the Ground (Guanylate cyclase)]

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116
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Overactivates guanylate cyclase (increases cGMP) > decreases resorption of NaCl and H2O in gut

A

Heat-stable toxin (ST), ETEC

[Labile in the Air (Adenylate cyclase), Stable in the Ground (Guanylate cyclase)]

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117
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Mimics the adenylate cyclase enzyme (increases cAMP)

A

Edema toxin, B. anthracis

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118
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increases cAMP) by permanently activating Gs > increases Cl− secretion in gut and H2O efflux

A

Cholera toxin, V. cholerae

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119
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increases cAMP) by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe

A

Pertussis toxin, B. pertussis

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120
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Proteases that cleave SNARE

A

1) Tetanospasmin, C. tetani

2) Botulinum toxin, C. botulinum

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121
Q

Toxin: GI mucosal damage > dysentery

A

Shiga toxin

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122
Q

Toxin: HUS

A

1) Shiga toxin

2) Shiga-like toxin

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123
Q

Toxin: Edematous borders of black eschar

A

Edema toxin of cutaneous anthrax

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124
Q

Toxin: 100-day cough in adults

A

Pertussis toxin

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125
Q

Toxin: Target Renshaw cells

A

Tetanospasmin

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126
Q

Toxin: Target NMJ cells

A

Botulinum toxin

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127
Q

Toxin: Prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and glycine)

A

Tetanospasmin

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128
Q

Toxin: Prevents release of stimulatory (ACh) signals

A

Botulinum toxin

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129
Q

Toxin: Spastic paralysis

A

Tetanospasmin

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130
Q

Toxin: Flaccid paralysis

A

Botulinum toxin

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131
Q

Toxin, bacteria: Phospholipase (lecithinase) that degrades tissue and cell membranes

A

Alpha toxin, C. perfringens

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132
Q

Toxin, bacteria: Protein that degrades cell membrane

A

Streptolysin O, S. pyogenes

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133
Q

ADP ribosylating A-B toxins

A

1) Diphtheria toxin
2) Exotoxin A
3) Shiga toxin
4) Shiga-like toxin
5) Heat-labile toxin
6) Edema toxin
7) Cholera toxin
8) Pertussis toxin
9) Tetanospasmin
10) Botulinum toxin

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134
Q

T/F EHEC invades host cells

A

F

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135
Q

Toxin, bacteria: Binds to MHC II and TCR outside of antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IL-1, IL-2, IFN-γ, and TNF-α > shock

A

1) TSST-1, S. aureus

2) Exotoxin A, S. pyogenes

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136
Q

Manifestations of alpha toxin

A

1) Myonecrosis > gas gangrene

2) Double zone of hemolysis on BAP

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137
Q

Toxin, bacteria: Scalded skin syndrome

A

Exfoliative toxin, S. aureus

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138
Q

Toxin: Food poisoning caused by S. aureus

A

Enterotoxin

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139
Q

Host antibodies against this toxin is used to detect rheumatic fever

A

Streptolysin O (ASO)

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140
Q

T/F ASO is responsible for post streptococcal GN

A

F

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141
Q

Ability to take up naked DNA (i.e., from cell lysis) from environment (also known as “competence”)

A

Transformation

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142
Q

Plasmid that contains genes required for sex pilus and conjugation

A

F+ plasmid

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143
Q

Sex pilus on F+ bacterium contacts F− bacterium. A single strand of plasmid DNA is transferred across the conjugal bridge (also known as the “mating bridge”)

A

F+ x F- Conjugation

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144
Q

T/F Chromosomal DNA is transferred in F+ x F-conjugation

A

F

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145
Q

Transfer of plasmid and chromosomal genes

A

Hfr x F- conjugation

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146
Q

Segment of DNA (e.g., transposon) that can “jump” (excision and reintegration) from one location to another, can transfer genes from plasmid to chromosome and vice versa.

A

Transposition

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147
Q

A “packaging” event

A

Generalized transduction

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148
Q

An “excision” event

A

Specialized transduction

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149
Q

Lytic phage infects bacterium, leading to cleavage of bacterial DNA. Parts of bacterial chromosomal DNA may become packaged in viral capsid. Phage infects another bacterium, transferring these genes.

A

Generalized transduction

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150
Q

Lysogenic phage infects bacterium; viral DNA incorporates into bacterial chromosome. When phage DNA is excised, flanking bacterial genes may be excised with it. DNA is packaged into phage viral capsid and can infect another bacterium.

A

Specialized transduction

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151
Q

Genes for these 5 bacterial toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage

A

[ABCDE]

1) Shiga-like toxin
2) Botulinum toxin
3) Cholera toxin
4) Diphtheria toxin
5) Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes

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152
Q

Differentiates staph from strep

A

Catalase
Staph (+)
Strep (-)

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153
Q

Differentiates S. aureus from S. epidermis and saprophyticus

A

Coagulase

S. aureus (+)

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154
Q

Differentiates S. epidermis from saprophyticus

A

Novobiocin sensitivity
Epidermidis, sensitive
Saprophyticus, resistant

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155
Q

Alpha hemolytic strep

A

S. pneumoniae

Viridans strep

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156
Q

Beta hemolytic bacteria

A

1) S. pyogenes
2) S. agalactiae
3) S. aureus
4) L. monocytogenes

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157
Q

Gamma hemolytic strep

A

Group D enterococcus (faecalis and faecium)

Group D nonenterococcus (bovis)

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158
Q

Differentiates S. pneumoniae from viridans strep

A

1) Optochin sensitivity (pneumoniae is sensitive)
2) Bile solubility (pneumoniae is bile soluble)
3) Capsule (pneumoniae has capsule)

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159
Q

Differentiates S. pyogenes from agalactiae

A

Bacitracin sensitivity (pyogenes is sensitive)

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160
Q

Differentiates Group D enterococcus from nonenterococcus

A

Growth in 6.5% NaCl (enterococcus grows)

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161
Q

Lancefield Group A strep

A

S. pyogenes

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162
Q

Lancefield Group B strep

A

S. agalactiae

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163
Q

Lancefield Group D strep

A

Enterococci and nonenterococci

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164
Q

Common characteristic growth of Group D streptococci

A

Growth in bile

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165
Q

Bacteria: Meningitis in newborns

A

1) Group B strep

2) L. monocytogenes

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166
Q

MRSA is resistant to

A

1) Methicillin

2) Nafcillin

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167
Q

Mechanism of resistance of MRSA

A

Altered PBP

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168
Q

Toxin and bacteria: Associated with prolonged use of vaginal tampons or nasal packing

A

TSST-1, S. aureus

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169
Q

A toxic shock– like syndrome associated with painful skin infection

A

S. pyogenes TSS

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170
Q

T/F Staphylococcal enterotoxin is preformed

A

T

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171
Q

Incubation period of S. aureus food poisoning

A

2-6 hours

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172
Q

Toxin responsible for abscess formation of S. aureus

A

Coagulase

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173
Q

Bacteria: Adherent biofilms in prosthetic devices

A

S. epidermidis

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174
Q

Bacteria: Most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women

A

E. coli

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175
Q

Bacteria: Second most common cause uncomplicated UTI in young women

A

S. saprophyticus

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176
Q

Bacteria: Normal skin flora that contaminates blood cultures

A

S. epidermidis

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177
Q

T/F S. aureus commonly colonizes the nares

A

T

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178
Q

S. aureus superantigen

A

TSST-1

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179
Q

Lancet-shaped, gram-positive, encapsulated diplococci

A

S. pneumoniae

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180
Q

S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of

A

MOPS

1) Meningitis
2) Otitis media in children
3) Pneumonia
4) Sinusitis

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181
Q

Bacteria: Rusty sputum

A

S. pneumoniae

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182
Q

Bacteria: Ventilator-associated pneumonia

A

P. aeruginosa

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183
Q

Bacteria: Sepsis in sickle cell disease and splenectomy

A

S. pneumoniae

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184
Q

T/F S. pneumoniae is non-virulent without capsule

A

T

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185
Q

Bacteria: Normal flora of oropharynx that cause dental caries

A

Viridans, S. mutans

[Viridans live in the MOUTH because they are not afraid op-to-chin (of-the-chin)]

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186
Q

Bacteria: Normal flora of oropharynx that cause subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged heart valves

A

Viridans, S. sanguinis

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187
Q

Bacteria: Erysipelas

A

S. pyogenes

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188
Q

Bacteria: Scarlet fever

A

S. pyogenes

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189
Q

Bacteria: Colonizes vagina and may cause pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis in babies

A

S. agalactiae

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190
Q

Bacteria: Club-shaped

A

C. diphtheriae

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191
Q

Bacteria: TSS-like syndrome

A

S. pyogenes

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192
Q

Bacteria: Necrotizing fasciitis

A

S. pyogenes

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193
Q

Bacteria: Produces CAMP factor, which enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus

A

S. agalactiae

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194
Q

Bacteria: PYR (+)

A

S. pyogenes

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195
Q

Criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Jones criteria

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196
Q

Major criteria for rheumatic fever

A

JONES

1) Joints
2) Carditis
3) Nodules
4) Erythema marginatum
5) Sydenham chorea

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197
Q

More commonly precedes post streptococcal GN: Impetigo vs pharyngitis

A

Impetigo

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198
Q

Bacteria: Sandpaper-like texture of skin

A

S. pyogenes (scarlet fever)

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199
Q

Bacteria: Strawberry tongue

A

S. pyogenes (scarlet fever)

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200
Q

Bacteria: Hippurate (+)

A

S. agalactiae

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201
Q

When to screen pregnant women for group B strep

A

35-37 weeks AOG

202
Q

Management for pregnant women with (+) group B strep colonization on culture

A

Intrapartum Penicillin

203
Q

T/F Enterococci are normal colonic flora

A

T

204
Q

Normal colonic flora that cause subacute endocarditis

A

Enterococci

205
Q

T/F Enterococci can cause UTI

A

T

206
Q

T/F Enterococci can cause biliary tract infections

A

T

207
Q

Subgroup of enterococci that are an important cause of nosocomial infection

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci

208
Q

Group D nonenterococcus that can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis and associated with colon Ca

A

S. bovis

209
Q

G+ rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

A

C. diphtheriae

210
Q

Spore-forming bacteria (3)

A

1) Bacillus
2) Clostridium
3) Coxiella

211
Q

(+) Elek test

A

C. diphtheriae

212
Q

Phase of bacterial growth wherein spores can be formed

A

End of stationary phase (nutrients are limited)

213
Q

T/F Spores have metabolic activity

A

F

214
Q

How to kill spore-forming bacteria

A

Autoclave at 121C for 15 minutes

215
Q

Causes antibiotic-associated colitis

A

C. difficile

216
Q

Causes gas gangrene

A

C. perfringens

217
Q

Also known as St. Anthony’s Fire

A

Erysipelas

218
Q

Means by which erysipelas rapidly spreads and invades

A

Lymphatics

219
Q

T/F Diazepam can be given for muscle spasms caused by C. tetani

A

T

220
Q

T/F Botulinum toxin is preformed

A

T

221
Q

T/F Botulinum toxin is heat-stable

A

F

222
Q

T/F In babies, ingestion of preformed botulinum toxin causes floppy baby syndrome

A

F, ingestion of SPORES in honey

223
Q

Toxin: C. difficile

A

1) Toxin A

2) Toxin B

224
Q

Toxin: C. difficile, enterotoxin, binds

to the brush border of the gut

A

Toxin A

225
Q

Toxin: C. difficile, cytotoxin, causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization > pseudomembranous colitis > diarrhea

A

Toxin B

226
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis is often due to antibiotic use especially ___

A

1) Clindamycin

2) Ampicillin

227
Q

C. difficile, diagnostic modality

A

Detection of one or both toxins in STOOL by PCR

228
Q

C. difficile, treatment

A

1) Metronidazole

2) Oral vancomycin

229
Q

Lesion of cutaneous anthrax

A

PAINLESS papule surrounded by vesicles > PAINLESS necrotic ulcer with black eschar

230
Q

Flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, and shock

A

Pulmonary anthrax (inhalation of spores)

231
Q

Bacteria: Reheated rice syndrome

A

B. cereus

232
Q

T/F B. cereus: Keeping rice warm results in germination of spores and enterotoxin formation

A

T

233
Q

B. cereus food poisoning, incubation period before nausea and vomiting

A

1-5 hours

234
Q

B. cereus, toxin

A

Cereulide

235
Q

T/F Cereulide is preformed

A

T

236
Q

B. cereus food poisoning, incubation period before watery, nonbloody diarrhea, and GI pain

A

8-18 hrs

237
Q

Bacteria: Cold deli meats

A

L. monocytogenes

238
Q

Transmission of L. monocytogenes to newborns

A

1) Transplacental

2) Vaginal during birth

239
Q

Long branching filamentous bacteria, normal oral flora

A

Actinomyces

240
Q

Long branching filamentous bacteria, found in soil

A

Nocardia

241
Q

Form “rocket tails” (via actin polymerization) that allow intracellular movement and cell-to-cell spread across cell membranes, thereby avoiding antibody

A

L. monocytogenes

242
Q

Oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts

A

Actinomyces

243
Q

Caused by nocardia in immunocompromised individuals

A

Pulmonary infections

244
Q

Caused by nocardia after trauma in immunocompetent individuals

A

Cutaneous infections

245
Q

Actinomyces, treatment

A

Pencillin [SNAP]

246
Q

Nocardia, treatment

A

Sulfonamides [SNAP]

247
Q

Only G+ organism to produce endotoxin

A

L. monocytogenes

248
Q

Amnionitis, septicemia, and spontaneous abortion in pregnant women

A

L. monocytogenes

249
Q

T/F BCG causes false negative PPD

A

F, false POSITIVE

250
Q

Cause false negative PPD

A

1) Anergic individuals (steroids, malnutrition, immunocompromised)
2) Sarcoidosis

251
Q

Granulomatosis infantiseptica

A

L. monocytogenes

252
Q

L. monocytogenes causes this disease in healthy individuals

A

Mild gastroenteritis

253
Q

L. monocytogenes causes this disease in immunocompromised individuals

A

Meningitis

254
Q

T/F Mild GE caused by L. monocytogenes is self-limited

A

T

255
Q

Treatment for L. monocytogenes in infants, immunocompromised, and elderly

A

Ampicillin

256
Q

Diagnostic modality for M. tuberculosis that has fewer false positives from BCG vaccination

A

IGRA (Interferon-γ release assay)

257
Q

MOTT that causes disseminated, non-TB disease in AIDS

A

M. avium-intracellulare

258
Q

Prophylaxis for M. avium-intracellulare is given to patients when

A

CD4+ count less than 50 cells/mm3

259
Q

Prophylaxis for M. avium-intracellulare (drug)

A

Azithromycin

260
Q

Produced by virulent strains of mycobacteria, inhibiting macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha

A

Cord factor

261
Q

Found on mycobacteria, inhibiting phagolysosomal fusion

A

Sulfatides

262
Q

Mycobacterium that causes cervical lymphadenitis in children

A

M. scrofulaceum

263
Q

Mycobacterium that causes hand infection in aquarium handlers

A

M. marinum

264
Q

T/F All mycobacteria are acid fast

A

T

265
Q

Mycobacterium that infects skin and superficial nerves—“glove and stocking” loss of sensation

A

M. leprae

266
Q

T/F M. leprae cannot be grown in vitro

A

T

267
Q

Reservoir that can be used to grow M. leprae

A

Armadillos

268
Q

2 forms of Hansen disease

A

1) Lepromatous

2) Tuberculoid

269
Q

Form of Hansen Disease: Presents diffusely over skin, with leonine facies

A

Lepromatous

270
Q

Form of Hansen Disease: Limited to a few hypothetic, hairless skin plaques

A

Tuberculoid

271
Q

Form of Hansen Disease: High cell-mediated immunity, largely Th1

A

Tuberculoid

272
Q

Form of Hansen Disease: Highly communicable

A

Lepromatous

273
Q

Form of Hansen Disease: Low cell-mediated immunity, largely humoral Th2

A

Lepromatous

274
Q

Treatment for Tuberculoid Hansen Disease

A

Dapsone + Rifampin

275
Q

Treatment for Lepromatous Hansen Disease

A

Dapsone + Rifampin + Clofazimine

276
Q

Differentiates N. meningitides from N. gonorrheae

A

Maltose fermentation (meningitidis ferments)

277
Q

Coccoid rods (2)

A

1) H. influenzae
2) B. pertussis
3) Pasteurella
4) Brucella

278
Q

Comma-shaped, oxidase (+)

A

1) C. jejuni
2) V. cholerae
3) H. pylori

279
Q

Darting motility

A

C. jejuni

280
Q

Comma-shaped, grows in 42C

A

C. jejuni

281
Q

Comma-shaped, grows in alkaline media

A

V. cholerae

282
Q

Comma-shaped, produces urease

A

H. pylori

283
Q

Fast lactose fermenters

A

KEE

1) Klebsiella
2) E. coli
3) Enterobacter

284
Q

Slow lactose fermenters

A

CS

1) Citrobacter
2) Serratia

285
Q

Lactose non-fermenter, oxidase (+)

A

Pseudomonas

286
Q

Differentiates lactose non-fermenters, oxidase (-)

A

H2S production (TSI agar)

287
Q

Produce H2S on TSI

A

SPY
Salmonella
Proteus
Yersinia

288
Q

Does not produce H2S on TSI

A

Shigella

289
Q

Weak lactose fermenter

A

Serratia

290
Q

Growth of lactose fermenters on EMV

A

Purple/black

291
Q

Gonococci vs meningococci: No vaccine due to antigenic variation of pilus proteins

A

Gonococci

292
Q

Gonococci vs meningococci: Septic arthritis

A

Gonococci

293
Q

Gonococci vs meningococci: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

Meningococci (meningococcemia)

294
Q

Gonococci vs meningococci: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

N. gonorrheae

295
Q

Mode of transmission of gonococci

A

1) Sexual

2) Perinatal

296
Q

Mode of transmission of meningococci

A

Respiratory and oral secretions

297
Q

N. gonorrhea, disease caused in neonates

A

Neontal conjunctivitis

298
Q

N. gonorrhea, prevents neonatal transmission

A

Erythromycin ointment

299
Q

N. meningitidis, prophylaxis for close contacts

A

1) Rifampin
2) Ciprofloxacin
3) Ceftriaxone

300
Q

N. gonorrheae, treatment

A

Ceftriaxone + azithromycin or doxycycline for possible chlamydial coinfection

301
Q

N. meningitidis, treatment

A

Ceftriaxone or Pen G

302
Q

H. influenzae, transmission

A

Aerosol

303
Q

Legionella, diagnosis

A

Antigen detection from urine

304
Q

Legionella, electrolyte abnormality

A

Hyponatremia

305
Q

Legionella, transmission

A

Aerosol FROM ENVIRONMENTAL SOURCE (no person to person transmission)

306
Q

Bacteria that can be grown with H. influenzae and provide Factor V through hemolysis of RBC

A

S. aureus

307
Q

Causes epiglotitis in children seen as thumb sign on lateral neck radiograph

A

H. influenzae

308
Q

H. influenzae, mucosal infection, treatment

A

Amoxicillin

309
Q

H. influenzae, meningitis, treatment

A

Ceftriaxone

310
Q

H. influenzae, prophylaxis for close contact with person with H. influenzae meningitis

A

Rifampin

311
Q

T/F H. influenzae causes flu

A

T

312
Q

Legionella, treatment

A

Macrolide or quinolone

313
Q

Severe pneumonia (often unilateral and lobar), fever, GI and CNS symptoms

A

Legionnaire’s disease

314
Q

Mild flu-like syndrome caused by Legionella

A

Pontiac fever

315
Q

Grape-like odor

A

P. aeruginosa

316
Q

Endotoxin vs exotoxin: Produced by P. aeruginosa

A

Both

317
Q

Swimmer’s ear

A

P. aeruginosa

318
Q

E. coli virulence factors: Cystitis and pyelonephritis

A

Fimbriae

319
Q

E. coli virulence factors: Pneumonia and neonatal meningitis

A

Capsule

320
Q

E. coli virulence factors: Septic shock

A

LPS

321
Q

E. coli strain: Clinical manifestations similar to Shigella

A

EIEC

322
Q

E. coli strain: Traveler’s diarrhea

A

ETEC

323
Q

E. coli strain: Heat-stable and heat-labile toxins

A

ETEC

324
Q

E. coli strain: Adheres to apical surface, flattens villi, prevents absorption, hence causes diarrhea in children

A

EPEC

325
Q

E. coli strain: Shiga-like toxin

A

EHEC

326
Q

E. coli strain: Dysentery

A

EHEC

327
Q

E. coli strain: HUS

A

EHEC

328
Q

Distinguishes EHEC from other E. coli

A

Does not ferment Sorbitol

329
Q

Used for multi-drug resistant Pseudomonas

A

1) Colistin

2) Polymyxin B

330
Q

Wound infection in burn victims

A

P. aeruginosa

331
Q

Lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics

A

Klebsiella

332
Q

Major cause of bloody diarrhea especially in children

A

C. jejuni

333
Q

Pet feces, contaminated milk, pork

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

334
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

A

P. aeruginosa

335
Q

Cause pseudoappendicitis (right lower abdominal pain due to mesenteric adenitis and/or terminal ileitis)

A

Y. enterocolitica

336
Q

Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

337
Q

Chronic pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients

A

P. aeruginosa, due to mucoid polysaccharide capsule > biofilm formation

338
Q

Rapidly progressive, necrotic cutaneous lesion caused by Pseudomonas bacteremia. Typically seen in immunocompromised patients.

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum

339
Q

HUS triad

A

1) Anemia
2) Thrombocytopenia
3) Acute renal failure due to micro thrombi formation

340
Q

RBC morphology in HUS

A

Schistocytes

341
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

342
Q

Transmission of C. jejuni

A

Fecal-oral

a) Person-to-person
b) Contact with infected animals (dogs, cats, pigs)

343
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A

Klebsiella

344
Q

Cause reactive arthritis (antecedent infections) (2)

A

1) C. jejuni

2) C. trachomatis (Reiter syndrome)

345
Q

Abscess in lungs and liver

A

Klebsiella

346
Q

Reservoir of Salmonella spp

A

Humans and animals EXCEPT S. typhi (humans only)

347
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella: Hematogenous spread

A

Salmonella spp

348
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella: Inactivated by gastric acid, hence large inoculum required

A

Salmonella spp

349
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella: Antibiotics PROLONGS duration of fecal excretion

A

Salmonella spp

350
Q

Vi capsule

A

S. typhi

351
Q

Immune response (predominant cell): S. typhi

A

Monocytes

352
Q

Immune response (predominant cell): Salmonella other than typhi

A

PMN

353
Q

Immune response (predominant cell): Shigella

A

PMN

354
Q

GI manifestation: S. typhi

A

Constipation followed by diarrhea

355
Q

GI manifestation: Salmonella other than typhi

A

Bloody diarrhea

356
Q

Rose spots on abdomen

A

S. typhi

357
Q

Bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella

358
Q

Forms of vaccine for S. typhi

A

1) Oral (live attenuated)

2) IM (capsular polysaccharide)

359
Q

Risk factor for MALT lymphoma

A

H. pylori

360
Q

H. pylori, most common initial treatment

A

Triple therapy: Amoxicillin (Metronidazole if with Penicillin allergy) + Clarithromycin + PPI

361
Q

Carrier state with gallbladder colonization

A

S. typhi

362
Q

Common sources include poultry, eggs, pets, and turtles

A

Salmonella other than typhi

363
Q

Shigella spp that causes most severe disease (produces most toxin)

A

S. dysenteriae

364
Q

Shigella spp that causes least severe disease (produces least toxin)

A

S. sonnei

365
Q

Key pathogenic mechanism of Shigella

A

Invasion (toxin)

366
Q

S. typhi, treatment

A

Ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolone

367
Q

Biggest spirochete

A

Borrelia

368
Q

Flu-like symptoms, myalgias, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema without exudate)

A

Leptospirosis

369
Q

Icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis

A

Weil disease

370
Q

Ixodes deer tick is vector for (3)

A

1) Borrelia
2) Anaplasma
3) Babesia

371
Q

Natural reservoir of Borrelia

A

Mouse

372
Q

Facial nerve palsy (typically bilateral), arthritis, cardiac block, erythema chronic migrans

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

373
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi, treatment

A

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

374
Q

Prevalent among surfers and in tropics (i.e. Hawaii)

A

Leptosipra interrogans

375
Q

Jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia

A

Weil disease

376
Q

Lesion, primary syphilis

A

Painless chancre

377
Q

Lesion, secondary syphilis

A

Maculopapular rash and condylomata lata

378
Q

Lesion, tertiary syphilis

A

Gumma

379
Q

T/F Latent phase of syphilis is characterized by ⊕ serology without symptoms

A

T

380
Q

Stage of syphilis: Disseminated disease

A

Secondary

381
Q

Stage of syphilis: Aortitis due to vasa vasorum destruction

A

Tertiary

382
Q

Stage of syphilis: Tabes dorsalis

A

Tertiary

383
Q

Stage of syphilis: Argyll Robertson pupil

A

Tertiary

384
Q

Diagnosis of neurosyphilis

A

CSF VDRL and PCR

385
Q

Placental transmission of syphilis, trimester

A

After first trimester

386
Q

Clinical manifestations of congenital syphilis

A

1) Facial abnormalities (rhagades - linear scars at angle of mouth, saddle nose, notched Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars, short maxilla)
2) Saber shins
3) CN VIII deafness

387
Q

Antibody detected by VDRL

A

Anti-cardiolipin

388
Q

False (+) VDRL

A

1) Viral infection (mono, hepatitis
2) Drugs
3) Rheumatic fever
4) Lupus and leprosy

389
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella

390
Q

Relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis

391
Q

Undulant fever

A

Brucella

392
Q

Bloody diarrhea from exposure to puppies and livestock

A

Campylobacter

393
Q

Parrots

A

Chlamydia psitacci (psittacosis)

394
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

T. pallidum (release of endotoxin from killed bacteria)

395
Q

Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

A

Coxiella burnetti

396
Q

Vector of Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

Ambylomma (Lone Star tick)

397
Q

Tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis

398
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

399
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

400
Q

Endemic typhus is aka

A

Murine typhus

401
Q

Endemic typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

402
Q

Plague

A

Yersinia pestis

403
Q

Ticks, rabbits, deer fly

A

Francisella tularensis

404
Q

Rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopsis)

A

Rickettsia typhi (endemic typhus)

405
Q

Human body louse (Pediculus humanus humanus)

A

Rickettsia prowazeki (epidemic typhus)

406
Q

Dermacentor (dog tick)

A

Rickettsia rickettsii (dog tick)

407
Q

Rats and prairie dogs are reservoir

A

Yersinia pestis

408
Q

T/F Gardnerella vaginalis is sexually transmitted

A

F

409
Q

Treatment for ALL rickettsial diseases and vector-borne illness

A

Doxycycline

410
Q

Rash in palms and soles (3)

A

1) Coxsackie A (hand, foot, and mouth disease
2) Secondary syphilis
3) Rocky mountain spotted fever

411
Q

Rash of rocky mountain spotted fever typically starts at

A

Wrists and ankles

412
Q

Rash of typhus typically starts at

A

Centrally, with sparing of palms and soles

413
Q

Monocytes with morulae (berry-like inclusions) in cytoplasm

A

Ehrlichiosis

414
Q

Granulocytes with morula in cytoplasm

A

Anasplasmosis

415
Q

Most common cause of culture negative endocarditis

A

Coxiella burnetti

416
Q

Elementary and reticulate bodies

A

Chlamydia

417
Q

Chlamydia morphology that is infectious and enters cells via endocytosis

A

Elementary body

[Enfectious, Enters cell, Endocytosis]

418
Q

Chlamydia morphology that replicates in cell by fission and reorganizes

A

Reticulate body

[Replicate, Reorganize into elementary bodies]

419
Q

Atypical “walking” pneumonia; x-ray looks worse than patient

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

420
Q

Mimic TB (granuloma formation)

A

Systemic mycoses

421
Q

Bird or bat droppings

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

422
Q

Chronic infection, cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Type A-C)

423
Q

Neonatal pneumonia, stacatto cough; neonatal conjunctivitis; PID

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Type D-K)

424
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Type L1-3)

425
Q

Swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate are known as

A

Buboes

426
Q

Pneumoniaw with hight tiger of cold agglutinins (IgM) that can lyse RBCs

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

427
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, treatment

A

1) Macrolides
2) Fluoroquinolones
3) Doxycycline

428
Q

Dimorphic fungi morphology: Cold

A

Fungi

429
Q

Dimorphic fungi morphology: Heat

A

Yeast

430
Q

The only dimorphic fungi that is not yeast in tissue

A

Coccidioidomycosis (spherule in tissue)

431
Q

Outbreaks in military recruits and prisons

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

432
Q

Systemic mycoses, treatment for LOCAL infection

A

Fluconazole or itraconazole

433
Q

Systemic mycoses, treatment for systemic infection

A

Amphotericin B

434
Q

T/F Systemic mycosis = person-to-person transmission

A

F

435
Q

Systemic mycoses (4)

A

1) Histoplasmosis
2) Blastomycosis
3) Coccidioidomycosis
4) Paracoccidioidomycosis

436
Q

Systemic mycosis: Broad-based budding

A

Blastomycosis

437
Q

Systemic mycosis: Smaller than RBCs and found within macrophages

A

Histoplasmosis

438
Q

Systemic mycosis: Same size as RBCs

A

Blastomycosis

439
Q

Systemic mycosis: T/F Can disseminate to bone and skin

A

T

440
Q

Systemic mycosis: Captain’s wheel morphology, much larger than RBCs

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

441
Q

Systemic mycosis: Case rate increase after earthquakes as spores are thrown into air resulting in lung spherules

A

Coccidioidomycosis

442
Q

Systemic mycosis: Latin America

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

443
Q

Systemic mycosis: San Joaquin valley fever

A

Coccidiodomycosis

444
Q

Systemic mycosis: Desert bumps and desert rheumatism

A

Coccidioidomycosis

445
Q

Cutaneous mycoses

A

1) Dermatophytes (MET: Microsporum, Epidermophyton, Trichophyton)
2) Tinea versicolor

446
Q

Clinical name given to dermatophyte (cutaneous fungal) infections

A

Tinea

447
Q

Branching septate hyphae visible on KOH preparation with blue fungal stain

A

Dermatophytes

448
Q

T/F Tinea capitis is associated with lymphadenopathy

A

T

449
Q

Ringworm with central clearing

A

Tinea corporis

450
Q

Tinea that often does not show central clearing

A

Tinea cruris

451
Q

3 varieties of tinea pedis

A

1) Interdigital
2) Moccasin distribution
3) Vesicular

452
Q

Most common variety of tinea pedis

A

Interdigital

453
Q

T/F Tinea versicolor is a dermatophyte

A

F

454
Q

Degradation of lipids produces acids that damage melanocytes and cause hypopigmented and/or pink patches

A

Tinea versicolor

455
Q

Tinea versicolor treatment

A

Selenium sulfide

456
Q

No rash. No vector. Causative organism can survive outside in its endospore form.

A

Coxiella burnetti

457
Q

Endocarditis in IV drug users

A

Candida

458
Q

Candida treatment: Vaginal candidiasis

A

Topical azole

459
Q

Candida treatment: Oral/esophageal candidiasis

A

1) Nystatin
2) Fluconazole
3) Caspofungin

460
Q

Candida treatment: Systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

461
Q

Fungal infection in CGD

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (invasive aspergillosis)

462
Q

Fungal infection in asthma and cystic fibrosis

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, ABPA)

463
Q

Heavily encapsulated yeast

A

C. neoformans

464
Q

Fungal infection in ketoacidotic diabetic and/or neutropenic patients (e.g., leukemia)

A

Mucor and Rhizopus

465
Q

Fungal infection that presents as diffuse, bilateral ground-glass opacities on CXR/CT

A

P. jiroveci

466
Q

Fungus ball in lung cavities especially after TB infection

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (aspergilloma)

467
Q

Soil and pigeon droppings

A

C. neoformans

468
Q

Aflatoxins

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

469
Q

“Soap bubble” lesions in brain

A

C. neoformans

470
Q

Septate hyphae that branch at 45-degree angle

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

471
Q

Opportunistic fungal infections

A

1) C. albicans
2) A. fumigatus
3) C. neoformans
4) Mucor and Rhizopus
5) P. jirovecii
6) S. schenckii

472
Q

T/F Aspergillus are dimorphic

A

F

473
Q

Eucalyptus trees

A

C. neoformans

474
Q

C. neoformans, mode of transmission

A

Inhalation

475
Q

Fungi proliferate in blood vessel walls, penetrate cribriform plate, and enter brain; rhinocerebral, frontal lobe abscess; cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Mucor and Rhizopus

476
Q

Disc-shaped yeast forms on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue

A

P. jiroveci

477
Q

P. jiroveci, treatment/prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

478
Q

When to start prophylaxis for P. jiroveci

A

CD4+ less than 200 cells/mm3

479
Q

Dissemination of S. schenckii

A

Lymphatic

480
Q

S. schenckii treatment

A

1) Itraconazole

2) KI

481
Q

Bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea (often seen in campers/hikers)

A

Giardiasis

482
Q

Severe diarrhea in AIDS

A

Cryptosporidium

483
Q

Transmission: Giardia lamblia

A

Cysts in water

484
Q

Transmission: E. hystolytica

A

Cysts in water

485
Q

Transmission: Cryptosporidium

A

Oocysts in water

486
Q

Black necrotic eschar on face

A

Mucor and Rhizopus

487
Q

Treatment, nucor and rhizopus

A

Surgical debridement

Amphotericin B

488
Q

Diagnosis: G. lamblia

A

Trophozoites or cysts in stool

489
Q

Diagnosis: E. hystolytica

A

1) Serology
2) Trophozoites with RBCs in cytoplasm
3) Cysts (up to 4 nuclei)

490
Q

Diagnosis: Cryptosporidium

A

Acid fast oocysts

491
Q

Treatment: G. lamblia

A

Metronidazole

492
Q

Treatment: E. hystolytica, symptomatic

A

Metronidazole

493
Q

Treatment: E. hystolytica, asymptomatic cyst passer

A

Iodoquinol

494
Q

Prevention, Cryptosporidium

A

Filter water supplies

495
Q

Protozoa that cause CNS infections

A

1) Toxoplasma gondii
2) Naegleria fowleri
3) Trypanosoma brucei

496
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis triad

A

1) Choriotetintis
2) Hydrocephalus
3) Intracranial calcification

497
Q

Cysts in meat (most common); oocysts in cat feces; crosses placenta

A

T. gondii

498
Q

African sleeping sickness

A

T. brucei

499
Q

Tsetse fly

A

T. brucei

500
Q

Ring-enhancing lesions on CT/MRI

A

T. gondii

Microbiology (4 decks)

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