ABIM 2015 - Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors (CYCLOSPORINE and TACROLIMUS) - by “inhibiting secretion of”; HIV Protease Inhibitors (-“NAVIR”) and Atypical Antipsychotics (CLOzapine, OLANzapine) - by “resistance to” (and causing WEIGHT GAIN) can cause DRUG-INDUCED DM?

A

Inhibit secretion of and cause resistance to INSULIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MACROvascular (coronary, cerebral, peripheral) and MICROvascular (RETINOpathy, NEPHROpathy, NEUROpathy) disease is seen in this endocrinological disorder?

A

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When the body becomes RESISTANT to the effects of INSULIN, the PANCREAS SECRETES MORE INSULIN as well as another compound that can be tested for in order to CHECK that the ELEVATED INSULIN in the BLOOD is ENDOGENOUS (made by the pancreas and not exogenously-administered)?

A

C-peptide (EACH insulin MOLECULE secreted by the pancreas has ONE C-peptide attached to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cystic Fibrosis, Hemochromatosis, Acromegaly, Cushing Syndrome, Glucagonoma, Pheochromocytoma, HYPERthyroidism, Down/Klinefelter/Turner/Wolfram/Prader-Willi/Stiff-Man (SYNDROMES), Myotonic Dystrophy, THIAZIDES (Chlorthalidone, HCTZ) and NIACIN (vit B3) can all cause this endocrinological disorder?

A

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What lab TEST is helpful in the DIAGNOSIS of HYPOglycemia in patients WITHOUT DM?

A

C-peptide (because EACH insulin MOLECULE secreted by the pancreas has ONE C-peptide attached to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What patients should be tested for PANCREATIC AUTO-Ab’s (islet-cell Ab’s or glutamic acid decarboxylase Ab’s) in order to differentiate between TYPE 1 DM and TYPE 2 DM?

A

OBESE patients (because they have BOTH increased levels of insulin and therefore C-peptide in the BLOOD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is it important to determine WHICH TYPE (1 or 2) DM a patient has?

A

Because TYPE 1 DM which is IMMUNE MEDIATED (PANCREATIC AUTO-Ab’s: islet-cell Ab’s or glutamic acid decarboxylase Ab’s) should be TREATED with INSULIN AS SOON AS POSSIBLE to AVOID DKA (high MORBIDITY and MORTALITY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What ASYMPTOMATIC patients should be SCREENED for DM?

A

ALL those who have a SUSTAINED BP of 135/80 mmHg (treated or untreated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An ABNORMAL Oral Glucose Tolerance Test on TWO (2) separate occasions, a SINGLE RANDOM PLASMA GLUCOSE ≥200 mg/dL WITH SYMPTOMS (polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision) are ALL diagnostic for what?

A

Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This TYPE of DM presents DRAMATICALLY with SEVERE SYMPTOMS of hypoglycemia (fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, visual blurring, N/V and dehydration) and is caused by slow AUTOIMMUNE destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic β-cells by Ab’s in patients with HLA - DQA/DQB susceptibility in CHROMOSOME 6?

A

TYPE 1 DM (HIGH RISK for DKA if not diagnosed and treated right away with INSULIN which results in HIGH MORBIDITY and MORTALITY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why must INSULIN therapy be STARTED RIGHT AWAY in a patient diagnosed with TYPE 1 DM?

A

Because once SYMPTOMATIC, a patient with TYPE 1 DM has approximately 80% pancreatic β-cells destroyed and has a HIGH RISK for DKA if not treated right away with INSULIN which results in HIGH MORBIDITY and MORTALITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why does the need for INSULIN dose REDUCTION (NOT D/C) occur once a patient with TYPE 1 DM is diagnosed and treated with INSULIN?

A

Because the RESIDUAL function of the REMAINING β-cells IMPROVES and can remain that way for MONTHS to YEARS (precisely why insulin dose should be LOWERED NOT D/C’d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When can a patient who INITIALLY presents with DKA and is treated with INSULIN and IVF’s, have their INSULIN DISCONTINUED and treated with LIFESTYLE changes and ORAL hypoglycemic agents?

A

When they do NOT HAVE TYPE 1 DM (absence of pancreatic auto-Ab’s or the characteristic HLA-gene associations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classic HYPOglycemic symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision) + RANDOM GLUCOSE >200 mg/dL?

A

DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FASTING PLASMA GLUCOSE ≥126 mg/dL on TWO SEPARATE OCCASIONS on TWO DIFFERENT DAYS?

A

DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A PLASMA GLUCOSE of ≥200 mg/dL WHILE performing an ORAL 2-HOUR 75 g GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST on TWO SEPARATE OCCASIONS on TWO DIFFERENT DAYS?

A

DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A RANDOM PLASMA GLUCOSE ≥200 mg/dL DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

A

DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A HbA1c ≥6.5% on TWO SEPARATE OCCASIONS on TWO DIFFERENT DAYS?

A

DIAGNOSTIC FOR: Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When DM is due to a SLOW DECLINE (decades) in β-cell FUNCTION that is NOT IMMUNE-MEDIATED (not due to pancreatic auto-Ab destruction of the β-cells) resulting in DECREASED INSULIN SECRETION over DECADES AND DEVELOPMENT of RESISTANCE to the effects of INSULIN, what TYPE of DM is it?

A

TYPE 2 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which patient is more likely to develop DM, one with a FAMILY H/O TYPE 1 DM or one with a FAMILY H/O TYPE 2 DM?

A

TYPE 2 DM by FAR (much stronger genetic association and inheritance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why although DKA can occur in TYPE 2 DM it is VERY RARE?

A

Because the pancreatic insulin-producing β-cells are NOT immunologically DESTROYED as they are in TYPE 1 DM and the DECLINE in FUNCTION is SLOW with some remaining β-cells that continue to function and not result in the LIPOLYSIS seen in complete or severe INSULIN DEFICIENCY thus not creating a KETO-ACID emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CENTRAL OBESITY + HTN + HYPERlipidemia + DM = ?

A

The Metabolic Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diet & Exercise, Metformin, Lipase Inhibitors (orlistat), α-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, voglibose -“bose”), Thiazolidinediones (-“glitazones”) and possibly Bariatric Surgery (BMI >40) have all SHOWN what DEFINITIVE CHANGE that other measures/drugs have NOT?

A

These ALL SUCCESSFULLY PREVENT or DELAY the onset of TYPE 2 DM by UP TO 3 YEARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

After SCREENING for DM at the FIRST OBSTETRIC VISIT using the usual criteria, when SHOULD ALL PREGNANT women be SCREENED for GESTATIONAL DM and with WHAT TEST?

A

At 24-28 WEEKS gestation AFTER an 8-HOUR FAST with the ORAL 2-HOUR 75 g GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What results on the ORAL 2-HOUR 75 g GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST are considered POSITIVE for GESTATIONAL DIABETES (NOT DM)?

A

FASTING: ≥92 mg/dL
1-HOUR: ≥180 mg/dL
2-HOUR: ≥153 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is considered a NORMAL FASTING PLASMA GLUCOSE?

A

Normal FASTING Plasma Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is CONSIDERED a NORMAL RANDOM PLASMA GLUCOSE?

A

Normal RANDOM Plasma Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is CONSIDERED a NORMAL HbA1c?

A

Normal HbA1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Physiologically, during pregnancy, there is a NORMAL INCREASED INSULIN RESISTANCE and when a PREGNANT woman’s pancreas CANNOT increase insulin SECRETION enough to overcome the resistance, this results in what condition?

A

GESTATIONAL DIABETES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When this condition is NOT treated in the PREGNANT woman, there is a HIGH risk for fetal MACROSOMIA (large baby >4,500 g), PREMATURE delivery, PREECLAMPSIA, STILLBIRTH, C-SECTION, JAUNDICE, HYPOglycemia/HYPOcalcemia and fetal RESPIRATORY COMPROMISE?

A

GESTATIONAL DIABETES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can PREGNANT women be EXCLUDED from testing for GESTATIONAL DIABETES and when SHOULD it be done EARLIER than 24-28 WEEKS gestation?

A

EXCLUDED: 30, previous H/O gestational diabetes or Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome - “PCOS”, previous fetus with MACROSOMIA (large baby >4,500 g), FAMILY H/O DM, or NON-WHITE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is GESTATIONAL DIABETES treated?

A

LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS (diet and exercise), INSULIN (if these changes are not sufficient) or ORAL agents (METFORMIN and GLYBURIDE if INSULIN is refused)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

METFORMIN, GLYBURIDE, INSULIN are SAFE to use in?

A

PREGNANT WOMEN (gestational diabetes or otherwise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gestational Diabetes and TYPE 2 DM are VERY likely to OCCUR in whom?

A

In women who have been DIAGNOSED with GESTATIONAL DIABETES in a previous pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the CHILD of a mother with PRE-PREGNANCY OBESITY who developed GESTATIONAL DIABETES at RISK for?

A

CHILDHOOD OBESITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why can conditions such a ACROMEGALY, CUSHING SYNDROME and GLUCAGONOMA) lead to DIABETES?

A

Because their HORMONAL ACTIONS are ANTAGONISTIC to INSULIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What ORAL medications SIGNIFICANTLY INCREASE the RISK of HYPOglycemia making PROPER self-monitoring by the patient CRUCIAL?

A

SULFONYLUREAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of the VARIABILITY in DAY-to-DAY blood GLUCOSE LEVELS?

A

DIET and EXERCISE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RBC’s live for 120 days, in states of SUSTAINED HYPERglycemia, GLUCOSE attaches to Hb by a process called GLYCOSYLATION and therefore, the average BLOOD GLUCOSE level during the 3 MONTHS can be tested for by?

A

HbA1c (measuring the glycosylated Hb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When should the HbA1c be tested for?

A

Every 3 MONTHS if patient’s therapy is being adjusted and every 6 MONTHS if on STABLE therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What routine test used for DIABETICS should NOT be done in patients that receive DIALYSIS, have HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA or have had a RECENT BLOOD TRANSFUSION?

A

HbA1c, because it will be FALSELY lowered due to the presence of ERYTHROCYTES that are not 120 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What should be the HbA1c GOAL for NON-PREGNANT patients with a LONG LIFE EXPECTANCY, NO CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE and a SHORT DURATION of DM?

A

HbA1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What should be the HbA1c GOAL for patients with a LONG-DURATION of DM, CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE, MULTIPLE CO-MORBIDITIES or H/O SEVERE HYPOglycemia?

A

HbA1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the AVERAGE DAILY BLOOD GLUCOSE in a patient with a HbA1c of 7.0, 8.0?

A

Average daily blood glucose in HbA1c of 7.0 - 154 mg/dL

Average daily blood glucose in HbA1c of 8.0 - 183 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MAJOR CARDIOVASCULAR RISK FACTOR for a patient with DM?

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS (due to inflammatory state of DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Should ASPIRIN be used in ALL patients with DM to decrease CARDIOVASCULAR RISK if there are no CONTRAINDICATIONS?

A

YES!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED EXERCISE DURATION and INTENSITY for DIABETICS for the PREVENTION of CARDIOVASCULAR RISK?

A

MODERATE EXERCISE for at LEAST 150 min/WEEK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

EVEN with NORMAL CHOLESTEROL LEVELS, in ALL patients >40 with DM and at least ONE other cardiovascular risk factor (AGE >65, smoking, obese, HTN) what MEDICATIONS MUST be RECOMMENDED as they have SIGNIFICANT BENEFITS?

A

STATINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the FIRST RECOMMENDATION for ALL patients diagnosed with DM?

A

LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS (diet, exercise, weight loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens to BLOOD GLUCOSE levels when a patient with DM EXERCISES when their INSULIN LEVELS are LOW (early, before breakfast)?

A

They RISE!! because exercise INDUCES hepatic gluconeogenesis and no insulin was taken (as patient did not eat breakfast yet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What PROCEDURE performed in patients with MORBID OBESITY and DM can cause DM to go into remission?

A

BARIATRIC surgery (BMI >40)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why do MOST patients with TYPE 2 DM eventually require MORE than ONE drug to PROPERLY maintain their blood glucose?

A

Because in TYPE 2 DM, the LOSS of pancreatic β-cell function is PROGRESSIVE in ADDITION to underlying INSULIN RESISTANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What should be RECOMMENDED for ALL patients AT TIME OF DIAGNOSIS of DM?

A

LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS (diet, exercise, weight loss) AND START a NON-INSULIN agent (METFORMIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the MAIN DRUG options for BLOOD GLUCOSE CONTROL?

A
  1. ORAL for control of POST-PRANDIAL BLOOD GLUCOSE [sulfonylureas (glipizide, -“ride, mide, zide”), α-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, voglibose -“bose”), meglitinides (rapaglinide, -“glinide”) and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, -“gliptin”)
  2. INJECTABLE that SLOW GASTRIC EMPTYING and SUPPRESS GLUCAGON (by the pancreas) - pramlintide, exenatide, liraglutide -“tide”
  3. INSULIN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the BEST ORAL agent to INITIALLY ADD to LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS (diet, exercise, weight loss) for MOST patients diagnosed with DM?

A

METFORMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What DM DRUGS should be AVOIDED in OLDER patients and those with IMPAIRED KIDNEY FUNCTION?

A

SULFONYLUREAS (glybuRIDE, chlorpropaMIDE) as these two in particular, have LONG HALF-LIVES and can cause PROFOUND HYPOglycemia (DEADLY) as well as their association with MYOCARDIAL DAMAGE (MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Besides these TWO (2) third-generation SULFONYLUREAS, other sulfonylureas have been associated with MYOCARDIAL DAMAGE (MI) and should be AVOIDED

A

gliclaZIDE and glimepiRIDE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

gliclaZIDE and glimepiRIDE?

A

Third-generation SULFONYLUREAS NOT associated with myocardial damage (MI) as the act EXCLUSIVELY on pancreatic β-cells (not also on myocardial cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What should be done next for treating DM in a patient in whom LIFESTYLE MODIFICATIONS and ORAL agents either DON’T or are NO LONGER sufficient in controlling their BLOOD GLUCOSE levels?

A

ADD INSULIN (ie NPH insulin at BEDTIME + DAYTIME METFORMIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are NPH insulin, insulin DETEMIR and insuline GLARGINE?

A

LONG-ACTING forms of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When should a long-acting form of INSULIN (NPH insulin) be used for controlling BLOOD GLUCOSE in DM?

A

At BEDTIME or FIRST THING in the MORNING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In order to MINIMIZE and PREVENT unpredictable episodes of HYPOglycemia DUE TO the DAY-to-DAY VARIABILITY of INSULIN ABSORPTION (diet, exercise, etc.), what INSULIN preparations work BEST?

A

BASAL + PRE-PRANDIAL INSULINS (same as used in TYPE 1 DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why do patients with TYPE 1 DM require LESS INSULIN than those with TYPE 2 DM?

A

Because patients with TYPE 1 DM are VERY SENSITIVE to INSULIN and those with TYPE 2 DM have a variable RESISTANCE to insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the average DIALY requirement of INSULIN for MOST patients where the LOWER limit is the requirement for patients with TYPE 1 DM and the HIGHER limit, the requirement for those with TYPE 2 DM?

A

0.5 - 1.5 units/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is a BASAL (NPH insulin) and a PRANDIAL INSULIN given?

A

1/2 of the DAILY dose is given as the BASAL (NPH insulin) INSULIN and the remainder of the DAILY dose is given in THREE (3) injections BEFORE EACH MEAL (ideally, these 3 injections would be approximated to the meal’s carbohydrate content ie 1 unit for every 10-15 g of carbs and 1 unit for every 25 mg/dL the PRE-PRANDIAL glucose level was above 100 mg/dL for TYPE 2 DM and for every 50 mg/dL over 100 mg/dL in TYPE 1 DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Why are ONCE-TWICE DAILY, SOLO REGIMENS with INTERMEDIATE-ACTING INSULINS (NPH insulin) or PRE-MIXED INSULINS (70%/30% preparations, etc.) NOT OPTIMAL even though they are less costly and more convenient?

A

Because they can cause more FREQUENT and UNPREDICTABLE HYPOglycemia and WEIGHT GAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This compound works by DECREASING HEPATIC GLUCOSE production, INCREASES PERIPHERAL GUCOSE UPTAKE and supports ANABOLISM (building cells?)

A

INSULIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

These compounds work by STIMULATING INSULIN SECRETION from PANCREATIC β-cells but MOST (earlier 1st and 2nd generation) have been linked to MYOCARDIAL DAMAGE and CANNOT be used in OLDER patients or those with RENAL dysfunction?

A

SULFONYLUREAS (only gliclaZIDE and glimepiRIDE are safe to use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

This compound works by DECREASING HEPATIC GLUCOSE production, DECREASES FREE FATTY ACIDS and INCREASES insulin-mediated UPTAKE of GLUCOSE in MUSCLES (can cause lactic acidosis in those with RENAL/LIVER dysfunction and in those with EtOH abuse)?

A

METFORMIN (Biguanide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

These compounds work by INHIBITING POLYSACCHARIDE ABSORPTION (carbohydrates)?

A

α-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, voglibose -“bose”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

These compounds work by activating receptors that regulate gene expression, increase PERIPHERAL UPTAKE of GLUCOSE and DECREASE HEPATIC GLUCOSE production?

A

THIAZOLIDINEDIONES (-“glitazones”) - these cause HF, MI, macular edema, osteoporosis and bladder cancer - DO NOT USE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

This medication used in treatment of DM, has been LINKED to BLADDER CANCER, HF, MI and MORTALITY?

A

rosiGLITAZONE (“not so rosy” - THIAZOLIDINEDIONES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

These compounds work by STIMULATING INSULIN SECRETION from PANCREATIC β-cells (same effect as sulfonylureas) but have NOT been show to cause the ADVERSE EFFECTS of sulfonylureas?

A

MEGLITINIDES (rapaGLINIDE, nateGLINIDE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the DIFFERENCE between the MEGLITINIDES (rapaGLINIDE, nateGLINIDE) and the SULFONYLUREAS (glipizide, -“ride, mide, zide”) in their mechanism of action and SAFETY?

A

BOTH have the SAME mechanism of action (STIMULATING INSULIN SECRETION from PANCREATIC β-cells) HOWEVER, of the sulfonylureas, ONLY gliclaZIDE and glimepiRIDE are safe to use as the rest cause MYOCARDIAL DAMAGE and PROFOUND HYPOglycemia in OLDER patients and those with RENAL dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

This compound works by INHIBITING FAT ABSORPTION?

A

ORLISTAT (Lipase Inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

These DRUGS used in treating DM, pramlinTIDE, exenaTIDE, liragluTIDE AND sitaGLIPTIN, saxaGLIPTIN, vildaGLIPTIN (-“tide, -gliptin”) work in which way?

A

SLOW GASTRIC EMPTYING and SUPPRESS GLUCAGON SECRETION by the pancreas (can cause pancreatitis, N/V and rashes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What TYPE of INSULIN agents are LISPRO, ASPART, GLULISINE and how quickly do they act?

A

RAPID-ACTING INSULINS (onset 5-15 min, peaks 45-90 min lasts 2-4 hrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which are the RAPID-ACTING INSULINS (5-15 min, peak 45-90 min last 2-4 hrs)?

A

LISPRO, ASPART, GLULISINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What quickly does REGULAR INSULIN act?

A

SHORT-ACTING (not rapid) - (onset 30 min-1 hr, peaks 2-4 hrs, lasts 4-8 hrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What TYPE of INSULIN is NPH insulin and how quickly does it act?

A

BASAL (long-acting) - (onset 1-3 hrs, peaks 4-10 hrs, lasts 10-18 hrs) - so if you take it first thing in the morning, it will be ready for LUNCH and if you take it at bedtime, it will be ready for BREAKFAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the ONLY difference between the BASAL (long-acting) insulins DETEMIR or GLARGINE and NPH insulin?

A

DETEMIR and GLARGINE have NO PEAKS (steady blood levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

ALL patients (previously DIAGNOSED with DM or NOT) ADMITTED to the hospital should be tested with these TWO (2) labs for assessment of their glucose status?

A

PLASMA GLUCOSE and HbA1c (plasma glucose should be taken frequently ie BEFORE MEALS and BEDTIME or EVERY 6 HOURS if NPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What should be done for a patient with DM admitted to the hospital who had been taking ONLY PO MEDS to control their BLOOD GLUCOSE and is now made NPO?

A

D/C PO agents
May continue the PO agents IF patients ARE EATING PO EXCEPT SULFONYLUREAS (glipizide, -“ride, mide, zide”) and MEGLITINIDES (rapaglinide, -“glinide”) as these can cause HYPOglycemia if PO food intake is unpredictable or stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In the SETTING of LACTIC ACIDOSIS, use of IMAGING with CONTRAST DYE, or LIVER DISEASE (acute or chronic) this MEDICATION MUST BE STOPPED as it can cause LACTIC ACIDOSIS if continued?

A

METFORMIN (Biguanide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In patients with DM admitted to the hospital, these agents MUST BE STOPPED if the patient has ANY suspected HEART DISEASE, EDEMA, LIVER DISEASE (acute or chronic) or OSTEOPOROSIS?

A

THIAZOLIDINEDIONES (-“glitazones”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What should the BLOOD GLUCOSE GOAL be for CRITICALLY ILL patients and how should it be most OPTIMALLY controlled?

A

140-180 mg/dL with IV INSULIN (for all other patients NO LOWER than 90 and NO HIGHER than 180 mg/dL when taken RANDOMLY post-prandially with 140 mg/dL fasting and pre-prandially )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is REQUIRED for hospitalized patients treated with INSULIN if a SLIDING-SCALE is to be used?

A

BASAL INSULIN (due to the potential wide swings in blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

BEST approach to treating hospitalized patients requiring INSUIN is the SAME as outpatients requiring INSULIN which is done in what way?

A

Give 1/2 of the DAILY dose as the BASAL (NPH insulin) INSULIN and give the remainder of the DAILY dose in THREE (3) injections BEFORE EACH MEAL (ideally, these 3 injections would be approximated to the meal’s carbohydrate content ie 1 unit for every 10-15 g of carbs and 1 unit for every 25 mg/dL the PRE-PRANDIAL glucose level was above 100 mg/dL for TYPE 2 DM and for every 50 mg/dL over 100 mg/dL in TYPE 1 DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) and DKA can occur in what states?

A

INSULIN-DEFICIENCY (induces hepatic gluconeogenesis worsening HYPERglycemia as well as the HYPERglycemia that occurs from dietary GLUCOSE in the absence of INSULIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the THREE (3) most COMMON cause of DKA?

A

New-Onset TYPE 1 DM, UNDER-DOSING of INSULIN and MISSED INSULIN DOSING (alone or in the setting of infection or serious illness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A patient with TYPE 1 DM with COMPLETE INSULIN DEFICIENCY will develop DKA (HCO3¯

A

BLOOD GLUCOSE: ~400-500 mg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A patient with DM who is NOT EATING/DRINKING or a patient with DM and LIVER DISEASE or EtOH-associated HEPATIC IMPAIRMENT with a resulting DECREASED HEPATIC GLUCOSE PRODUCTION (gluconeogenesis from hepatic glycogen stores) will develop DKA (HCO3¯

A

BLOOD GLUCOSE: ~200-250 mg/mL (because the liver gets slowly depleted of glycogen stores (pt who isn’t eating) used for gluconeogenesis and glucose rises slowly until the liver is depleted or the process of gluconeogenesis is hampered (by the injured liver) and fatty acid breakdown and ketogenesis occur because glucose is still not available to the cells/organs that require it in the continued absence of insulin - which stops lipolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the PRIMARY cause of HYPERglycemia in DKA?

A

INDUCED HEPATIC GLUCONEOGENESIS (glucose production by the liver from glycogen stores) due to the ABSENCE of INSULIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

An OLDER patient with ONLY a PARTIAL INSULIN DEFICIENCY (TYPE 2 DM) can develop HYPERglycemia and DEHYDRATION SLOWLY over days to weeks and if they still PRODUCE just ENOUGH INSULIN to PREVENT LIPOLYSIS (thus no ketoacidosis) but NOT ENOUGH to control the BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL, they will remain NON-KETOTIC and IF they DRINK SUGARY LIQUIDS to quench their THIRST or EAT SUGARY FOODS and if that patient has an IMPAIRED KIDNEY EXCRETION of GLUCOSE or a CO-EXISTING INFECTION or ILLNESS what can develop and with what BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL?

A

HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) - a SEVERE HYPERosmolar NON-KETOTIC HYPERglycemia with VERY HIGH GLUCOSE LEVELS (>700 mg/dL) and NORMAL SERUM HCO3¯ (24 meq/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

POLYuria, POLYdipsia, Weight Loss are the EARLY SYMPTOMS of what DIABETIC situation?

A

HYPERglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

AMS, LETHARGY, DROWSINESS, FOCAL NEUROLOGIC DEFICITS, N/V, ABD PAIN, HYPERventilation and COMA are the LATE SYMPTOMS of what DIABETIC situation?

A

HYPERglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What MUST be done AT THE SAME TIME of INSULIN administration in a patient with DKA and why?

A

POTASSIUM (K⁺) administration, because ALTHOUGH SERUM K⁺ levels “appear” normal, they do so because INTERcellular K leaked out into the serum and INSULIN administration RAPIDLY moves the K⁺ BACK INTO THE CELLS resulting in severe HYPOkalemia (decreased SERUM K⁺)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Besides blood work performed in assessing and treating a patient with DKA (glucose, electrolytes, Cr, BUN, CBC, U/A, Plasma Osmolality, Serum Ketones and an ABG, what OTHER test should be done due to the SIGNIFICANT risk of SEVERE ELECTROLYTE DISTURBANCES?

A

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How often should SERUM GLUCOSE and ELECTROLYTES be checked when treating DKA?

A

SERUM GLUCOSE: HOURLY

ELECTROLYTES: every 2-4 HOURS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Where should patients with DKA or HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) be treated?

A

ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Due to KETOACIDOSIS ALONE, EVEN in the ABSENCE of an INFECTION, how HIGH can the WBC count be in DKA?

A

> 20,000!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Do patients with DKA mount a FEVER if an INFECTION is concomitantly present?

A

USUALLY NOT (so absence of a fever, does NOT r/o infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When will a patient with DKA have DKA-ASSOCIATED ABDOMINAL PAIN that if seen WITHOUT this co-existing condition is likely attributed to ANOTHER intra-abdominal process?

A

When SERUM HCO3¯

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What BLOOD test is SIGNIFICANTLY ELEVATED in patients with DKA that IS NOT a reliable indicator for PANCREATITIS in this SETTING?

A

AMYLASE (can be >1000 units/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What BLOOD GLUCOSE level is considered HYPOglycemic resulting in the BRAIN-MEDIATED ACTIVATION of the PANCREAS, LIVER and ADRENAL GLANDS to RAISE the BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL?

A

BLOOD GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) are known as what CRISES?

A

HYPERglycemic CRISES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When treating HYPERglycemic CRISES DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) with IVF’s using NS (while monitoring serum Na levels every 2-4 hours) and giving INSULIN and K⁺, what do you CHANGE when the BLOOD GLUCOSE level has DECREASED to 200 (DKA) or 300 (HHS) mg/dL?

A

Change the IVF’s from NS (or from 1/2 NS “0.45% NS” if serum Na became normal or HIGH) to D5 1/2 NS “5% Dextrose 0.45% NS”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When treating HYPERglycemic CRISES DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) with IV INSULIN BOLUS FIRST, then at a RATE of 0.1 units/kg/hr (while monitoring blood glucose HOURLY) if the BLOOD GLUCOSE does not DECREASE by 10% in the first HOUR, give ANOTHER BOLUS at an INCREASED DOSAGE of 0.14 units/kg and RESUME same RATE. What should you do when the BLOOD GLUCOSE level has DECREASED to 200 (DKA) or 300 (HHS) mg/dL?

A

REDUCE the RATE to 0.02-0.05 units/kg/hr MAINTAINING the BLOOD GLUCOSE at a level between 150-200 mg/dL until the INCREASED anion gap METABOLIC Acidosis is RESOLVED in DKA (gap is due to the keto acids - the “unmeasured anions”) as there is NO ACIDOSIS in HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When treating HYPERglycemic CRISES DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) and SERUM K⁺

A

Give IV KCl 20-30 meq/hr via CENTRAL LINE until K >3.3 meq/L, then ADD 20-30 meq of KCl to EACH LITER of IVF and KEEP SERUM K⁺ between 4.0-5.0 meq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

When treating HYPERglycemic CRISES DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) and SERUM K⁺ >5.2 meq/L, what MUST YOU DO?

A

START INSULIN & IVF, DO NOT GIVE K⁺

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When treating HYPERglycemic CRISES DKA and HYPERglycemic HYPERosmolar Syndrome (HHS) you notice on the ABG that the pH was 6.9, what do you do?

A

GIVE Na-BICARBONATE (NaHC03¯) AND KCl over 2 HOURS (DO NOT give sodium bicarbonate if pH >6.9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

BRAIN-MEDIATED ACTIVATION of the PANCREAS, LIVER and ADRENAL GLANDS to RAISE the BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL in a state of HYPOglycemia (blood glucose

A

GROWTH HORMONE (anterior pituitary bg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Why are the SYMPTOMS of sweating, rapid heartbeat, anxiety, hunger (polyphagia) and tremor prevalent in a state of HYPOglycemia (blood glucose

A

Due to the ACTIVATION of the ADRENAL GLANDS by the brain (via adrenocorticotrophic hormone ACTH) and resulting RELEASE of CATECHOLAMINES epinephrine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What do the symptoms of cognitive impairment, somnolence, dizziness, impaired speech and change in personality suggest in a DIABETIC?

A

SEVERE HYPOglycemia and IMPENDING SEIZURES and LOSS of CONSCIOUSNESS as well as focal neurologic signs such as HEMIparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In a patient with TYPE 2 DM, EXERCISE before BEDTIME and EtOH consumption can potentially cause what if carbohydrates are not ingested?

A

HYPOglycemia (liver and muscles take up blood glucose to replenish glycogen after exercise and the liver’s ability to induce gluconeogenesis in the setting of alcohol consumption is impaired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the DANGER in the DIAGNOSTIC process of a TYPE 2 DIABETIC who abuses EtOH?

A

Attributing HYPOglycemic symptoms to alcohol INTOXICATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What can occur in a patient with TYPE 1 DM, in patients STRIVING for EXCELLENT GLYCEMIC CONTROL (HbA1c

A

Their HYPOglycemic SYMPTOMS may NOT be apparent or recognized even by the patient (due to deteriorated response) - treat by reducing insulin dose and increasing carbohydrate intake for a blood glucose level between 150-200 mg/dL to “RESET” the body’s ability to “SENSE”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the CHANGE in BLOOD GLUCOSE “NUMBER” between CHANGES of “1.0” in HbA1c?

A

~28-29 mg/dL (HbA1c of 6.0 - blood glucose of 126; HbA1c of 7.0 - blood glucose of 154; HbA1c of 8.0 - blood glucose of 183) - [183-154=29, 154-126=28, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When a typical DIABETIC “senses” symptoms of HYPOglycemia (blood glucose

A

Verify that the BLOOD GLUCOSE is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When a typical DIABETIC has SEVERE symptoms of HYPOglycemia (blood glucose

A

ANOTHER person should help by ADMINISTERING SUBLINGUAL GLUCOSE (or IV or SQ glucagon, depending on setting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

When does a typical DIABETIC have SYMPTOMS of HYPOglycemia WITH BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS >70 mg/dL (can occur at levels at 120 mg/dL or even higher)?

A

When they are at CHRONICALLY elevated BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS (poorly controlled diabetic) >200 mg/dL and then LOWERED closer to the normal range by medications or lifestyle changes (maintaining consistency resets the patient’s symptom threshold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the EARLIEST indication of MICROVASCULAR damage from HYPERglycemia?

A

RETINAL damage - EDEMA, HARD EXUDATES, TINY HEMORRHAGES - (this is why ALL patients with TYPE 1 DM must be checked by ophthalmologist 5 years AFTER diagnosis, then ANNUALLY and why ALL patients with TYPE 2 DM must be checked AT TIME OF DIAGNOSIS, then ANNUALLY) - in pregnant women with either type of DM, diabetic retinopathy must be SCREENED for in FIRST TRIMESTER and checked EVERY TRIMESTER, then ANNUALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Retinal EDEMA, HARD/SOFT EXUDATES, TINY HEMORRHAGES in a diabetic are collectively called?

A

BACKGROUND or “NON-PROLIFERATIVE” diabetic retinopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Retinal EDEMA, extensive HARD/SOFT EXUDATES, extensive HEMORRHAGES from ruptured blood vessels in a diabetic are collectively called?

A

PROLIFERATIVE diabetic retinopathy - leads to RETINAL DETACHMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What can COMMONLY happen in patients with POOR GLYCEMIC control and in PREGNANT women who are diagnosed with DIABETIC RETINOPATHY and are started on TREATMENT with RAPID IMPROVEMENT in GLYCEMIC CONTROL?

A

TEMPORARY (reversible) WORSENING of the retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

How are ADVANCED DIABETIC RETINOPATHY and MACULAR EDEMA treated?

A

LASER PHOTOCOAGULATION (retinopathy) and FOCAL LASER THERAPY (edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What LOSS of vision is EXPECTED in LASER treatment for PROLIFERATIVE (neovascularization) DIABETIC RETINOPATHY as a trade off for preventing major retinal bleeding/detachment seen without treatment?

A

LOSS of PERIPHERAL vision, however CENTRAL vision is preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is an ALTERNATIVE to LASER PHOTOCOAGULATION in patients with PROLIFERATIVE (neovascularization) DIABETIC RETINOPATHY?

A

INTRA-OCULAR injections of INHIBITORS of Vascular Endothelial Growth Factors (VEGF-I) bevaciZUMAB and ranibiZUMAB every 4-8 WEEKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How does CHRONIC HYPERglycemia cause KIDNEY INJURY leading to CKD?

A

HYPERglycemia causes DIRECT, PROGRESSIVE damage to the GLOMERULAR BASEMENT MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What ANNUAL test in ALL patients with DM beginning AT DIAGNOSIS for those with TYPE 2 DM and 5 YEARS AFTER DIAGNOSIS for those with TYPE 1 DM performed to PREVENT DIABETIC NEPHROPATHY and CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE can result in FALSE ELEVATIONS in the setting of VIGOROUS EXERCISE, MENSTRUATION, ACUTE HYPERglycemia and during ILLNESS?

A

URINE microalbumin (and protein) using the Urine PROTEIN:Cr (30-300 mg/g indicate microalbuminuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What can cause an ACUTE distal SYMMETRIC diabetic neuropathy resulting in a SEGMENTAL DEMYELINATION with a STOCKING-GLOVE distribution?

A

Episodes of SEVERE HYPERglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Sharp, stabbing, burning PAIN in the toes, feet, lower legs and hands with dysesthesia (discomfort in the skin when touched) and a heaviness/clumsiness in their feet/legs are symptoms seen in DIABETICS with what condition?

A

PERIPHERAL Diabetic Neuropathy (can cause CARPAL TUNNEL syndrome and MERALGIA PARESTHETICA - numbness in OUTER THIGH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is used to treat PERIPHERAL Diabetic Neuropathy BESIDES tight glycemic control?

A

TOPICAL CAPSAICIN cream, low-dose TCA’s (amitriptyline), SSRI’s/SNRI’s (sertraline, citalopram/venlafaxine, duloxetine)
IF NOT SUFFICIENT with ABOVE, use GABAPENTIN, PREGABALIN, carbamazepine, phenytoin (NO OPIATES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A form of DIABETIC NEUROPATHY that presents with PROXIMAL LEG WEAKNESS followed by WEIGHT LOSS and PAIN?

A

Diabetic AMYOTROPHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What FOOT DEFORMITY can develop in DIABETICS with minor foot trauma, axonal loss and small muscle atrophy?

A

CHARCOT Foot Deformity (bony degeneration of a weight-bearing joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Erectile Dysfunction (50% of men >50 yo), Chronic Diarrhea/Constipation, Orthostatic HYPOtension, Resting Sinus Tachycardia, Postprandial HYPOtension, Sudden Cardiac Death, Abnormal Hidrosis (sweating) and Neurogenic Bladder can ALL be seen in WHOM?

A

DIABETICS with damage to AUTONOMIC NERVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What happens in a NORMAL person as BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS fall in between meals and fasting?

A

Pancreas stops secreting insulin and Hepatic glycogenolysis (breakdown of stored glycogen) supplies glucose to maintain BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS >70 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What organ SECRETES the HORMONE GLUCAGON and what does it do?

A

The PANCREAS, it STIMULATES the LIVER to break down stored GLYCOGEN into GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the EFFECT of GROWTH HORMONE on BLOOD GLUCOSE?

A

Growth Hormone INHIBITS the actions of INSULIN in states of MODERATE HYPOglycemia (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the EFFECT of CORTISOL on BLOOD GLUCOSE?

A

In MODERATE HYPOglycemia (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What happens during HEPATIC GLUCONEOGENESIS?

A

PROTIENS (amino acids) and FAT (free fatty acids) are converted into GLUCOSE and KETONES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

When does HEPATIC GLUCONEOGENESIS become the ONLY source for GLUCOSE production (by breakdown of proteins and fat) in HYPOglycemic states?

A

When HEPATIC GLYCOGEN stores are EXHAUSTED - 8 HOURS - (by the pancreatic action of GLUCAGON and the adrenal action of CORTISOL) or by SEPSIS, EXTREME STARVATION, LIVER DYSFUNCTION (alcohol) or CORTISOL and thus ACTH deficiency (ADDISON disease - chronic adrenal insufficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What can cause HYPOglycemic SYMPTOMS in the NORMAL FASTING STATE (in between meals, overnight)?

A

Insulinoma (VERY RARE), Injecting Insulin (absence of the C-peptide) and taking ORAL Sulfonylureas or Meglitinides (BOTH INDUCE INSULIN secretion by pancreatic β-cells - in which case C-peptide WILL be present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the WHIPPLE TRIAD for DIAGNOSING FASTING HYPOglycemia (SYMPTOMS of HYPOglycemia that occur in between meals, overnight)?

A
  1. HYPOglycemic SYMPTOMS are present

2. LOW BLOOD GLUCOSE (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is done NEXT in searching for the cause of FASTING HYPOglycemia once it is confirmed by the WHIPPLE TRIAD?

A

INPATIENT 72-HOUR FAST while REGULARLY measuring BLOOD GLUCOSE, PRO-INSULIN (insulin precursor: insulin-C-peptide complex), INSULIN, C-peptide, β-hydroxybutyrate (ketone produced in the absence of insulin) and SULFONYLUREA/MEGLITINIDE levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q
  1. What is found on blood work in the case of FASTING HYPOglycemia if due to an INSULINOMA during the INPATIENT 72-HOUR FAST, once no evidence of surreptitious SULFONYLUREA/MEGLITINIDE ingestion or exogenous insulin injection has been confirmed? 2. What should be done next?
A
  1. HIGH LEVELS of BOTH INSULIN and C-peptide (because insulinomas CAUSE the PANCREAS to release too much endogenous insulin)
  2. CT abdomen/EUS to confirm and SURGERY to remove
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What should be done in the case of FASTING HYPOglycemia if it is discovered to be due to surreptitious SULFONYLUREA/MEGLITINIDE ingestion or exogenous insulin injections?

A

Psychiatric Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q
  1. How do you test someone that has SYMPTOMS of POST-PRANDIAL HYPOglycemia (sleepy, shaky, weak 1-3 hours after large carbohydrate meal) WITHOUT a H/O gastric BYPASS surgery? 2. How do you treat this?
A
  1. Observe patient and MEASURE BLOOD GLUCOSE when SYMPTOMS occur, NOT with the oral glucose tolerance test as you MAY INDUCE more SYMPTOMS
  2. Treat by RECOMMENDING SMALL, FREQUENT meals just as you would for someone who DID have a gastric BYPASS surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the ONLY PITUITARY HORMONE NOT DECREASED by an INJURY to the PITUITARY STALK (which is the part of the pituitary that receives signals from the HYPOTHALAMUS to RELEASE pituitary hormones) and WHY?

A

PROLACTIN (because this is the ONLY pituitary hormone whose CONTINUOUS hypothalamic generated signal through the pituitary stalk is an INHIBITORY one via DOPAMINE, whereas for ALL other PITUITARY hormones, the signal is a SECRETORY one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What occurred in a patient in whom ALL pituitary HORMONES (LH, FSH, GH, ACTH, TSH, ADH, OXYTOCIN) EXCEPT PROLACTIN are DECREASED?

A

Injury to the pituitary stalk (because PROLACTIN is the ONLY pituitary hormone whose CONTINUOUS hypothalamic generated signal through the pituitary stalk is an INHIBITORY one via DOPAMINE, whereas for ALL other PITUITARY hormones, the signal is a SECRETORY one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

SATIETY and BODY TEMPERATURE regulation are controlled by what structure?

A

HYPOTHALAMUS (also hypersexuality and somnolence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the most COMMON causes of HYPOpituitarism?

A

PRIMARY pituitary TUMORS and their TREATMENT (surgery, radiation) followed by EXTRA-PITUITARY lesions (meningioma, germinoma, craniopharyngioma, Rathke cleft cyst - congenital)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What INFILTRATIVE diseases most COMMONLY affect the PITUITARY gland resulting in HYPOpituitarism?

A

HEMOCHROMATOSIS, LANGERHAN’s Cell Histiocytosis (a lymphoproliferative disease where abnormal “Langerhan cells” proliferate from bone marrow and also affect SKIN with face/chest/abd rash and LYMPH NODES), TB, SARCOIDOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are PITUITARY APOPLEXY (tumor-caused) and SHEEHAN SYNDROME (blood loss/hypotension DURING CHILDBIRTH - “SHE couldn’t HANdle it”)?

A

Vascular diseases that cause INFARCTION (subarachnoid hemorrhage can do this as well) of the PITUITARY resulting in HYPOpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

An AUTOIMMUNE disorder that OCCURS in the setting of ACTH deficiency (ADDISON disease, etc.) and PREGNANCY (during or after) p/w HYPOpituitarism due to the SYMMETRIC ENLARGEMENT of the SELLA TURCICA?

A

LYMPHOCYTIC HYPOPHYSITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

LYMPHOCYTIC HYPOPHYSITIS, PITUITARY APOPLEXY and SHEEHAN SYNDROME all have WHAT in common?

A

HYPOpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

SUDDEN ONSET HA and DIPLOPIA with ACUTE HYPOpituitarism (AMS, electrolyte abnormalities, body temperature changes, HR changes) is a SURGICAL EMERGENCY in this condition?

A

Pituitary APOPLEXY (tumor-caused infarct/hemorrhage into the pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Besides SURGICAL management for PITUITARY APOPLEXY (tumor-caused infarct/hemorrhage into the pituitary), what is the MEDICAL MANAGEMENT?

A
  • GLUCOCORTICOID REPLACEMENT due to ACTH deficiency (HYDROCORTISONE) and IVF’s - DEXTROSE
  • Replacement of TSH, LH, FSH and GH are NOT emergent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

A woman presents S/P delivery in which she was HYPOtensive, with symptoms of inability to lactate and amenorrhea?

A

SHEEHAN SYNDROME (blood loss/hypotension DURING CHILDBIRTH - “SHE couldn’t HANdle it”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of MORTALITY in patients with HYPOpituitarism such as seen in SHEEHAN SYNDROME?

A

CENTRAL (CNS) ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY (due to ACTH deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

When PROGRESSIVE HYPOpituitarism is seen in a patient who has a H/O brain lesion s/p treatment, what is the cause?

A

RADIATION therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

OF ALL PITUITARY HORMONES, the DEFICIENCY of WHICH ONE HORMONE is ACUTELY LIFE THREATENING and WHY?

A

ACTH deficiency, because of associated CORTISOL deficiency (hydrocortisone) and ALDOSTERONE deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the effect of GROWTH HORMONE DEFICIENCY in ADULTS (short-stature in children - dwarfism)?

A

LOSS of MUSCLE, INCREASED FAT, LOSS of STRENGTH and STAMINA, DECREASED BONE DENSITY, INCREASED cardiovascular RISK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the MINERALOCORTICOID produced by the outermost ADRENAL CORTEX?

A

ALDOSTERONE (rening-angiotensin-aldosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the GLUCOCORTICOID produced by the middle ADRENAL CORTEX?

A

CORTISOL (hydrocortisone) - replaced by PREDNISONE and other steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is produced by the innermost ADRENAL CORTEX?

A

TESTOSTERONE (although only ~10% in men as the rest is produced by the testicles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is produced by the ADRENAL MEDULLA?

A

CATECHOLAMINES (EPInephrine and NOREPInephrine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the most COMMON PITUITARY HORMONE DEFICIENCY seen after NEUROSURGERY or RADIATION THERAPY for a lesion in the SELLAR (sella turcica) region?

A

Growth Hormone (GH) - LOSS of MUSCLE, INCREASED FAT, LOSS of STRENGTH and STAMINA, DECREASED BONE DENSITY, INCREASED cardiovascular RISK and DECREASED QUALITY OF LIFE (decreased sensation of “well being”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How is Growth Hormone (GH) DEFICIENCY tested for?

A

By testing for the level of Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1) which is what the LIVER makes after exposure to GH by the PITUITARY gland - IT WOULD BE LOW or testing for GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone), glucagon or arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

When the PITUITARY gland produces LESS LH and FSH) the result is HYPOgonadotropic HYPOgonadism (reduced ESTROGEN production and reduced OVULATION) as well as (reduced TESTOSTERONE and SPERM) resulting in what SYMPTOMS?

A

Amenorrhea, Breast Atrophy, Vaginal Dryness, Reduced Libido, Erectile Dysfunction, Loss of Muscle/Bone Mass and Anemia (men) AND possible GALACTORRHEA (if HYPERprolactinemia is the cause as it suppresses GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus and thus suppressed LH and FSH secretion by the pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

When WOMEN EXERCISE HEAVILY, LOSE significant WEIGHT, SEVERELY RESTRICT their DIET (anorexia), have SIGNIFICANT STRESS/ILLNESS what hormone-associated deficiency can occur?

A

DECREASED LH and FSH resulting in HYPOgonadotropic HYPOgonadism (reduced ESTROGEN production and reduced OVULATION, OSTEOPOROSIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

If a patient presents with SYMPTOMS of Amenorrhea, Breast Atrophy, Vaginal Dryness, Reduced Libido, Erectile Dysfunction, Loss of Muscle/Bone Mass, Galactorrhea and HYPOgonadotropic HYPOgonadism is suspected and confirmed by DECREASED LH and FSH, what should be done next?

A

MRI or CT of the head (look for a lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

When does HYPOgonadotropic HYPOgonadism (reduced ESTROGEN production and reduced OVULATION) as well as (reduced TESTOSTERONE and SPERM) occur with SYMPTOMS of GALACTORRHEA?

A

When it is caused by or there is concomitant HYPERprolactinemia (suppresses GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus and thus suppressed LH and FSH secretion by the pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

When there is a TSH deficiency in the setting of HYPOpituitarism, how is this treated and adjusted?

A

Treated with LEVOTHYROXINE and progress checked with T4 levels and CLINICAL SYMPTOMS, NOT TSH (as TSH is not released by the pituitary in this condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

When there is an ACTH deficiency in the setting of HYPOpituitarism, how is this treated and adjusted?

A

Treated with HYDROCORTISONE or PREDNISONE, adjusted clinically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q
  1. When there is a LH/FSH deficiency in the setting of HYPOpituitarism, how is this treated in MEN? 2. Women?
A
  1. MEN: TESTOSTERONE (and injected LH/FSH if FERTILITY is desired)
  2. WOMEN: low-dose COMBINED oral contraceptives or estrogen/medroxyprogesterone (and injected LH/FSH if FERTILITY is desired)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What MUST be done for BOTH MEN and WOMEN in the setting of LH/FSH deficiency due to HYPOpituitarism in ADDITION to supplementation of ESTROGEN/PROGESTERONE (women) and TESTOSTERONE (men) if FERTILITY is DESIRED?

A

Injected LH/FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

When there is a GH deficiency in the setting of HYPOpituitarism, how is this treated and adjusted?

A

Treated with GH supplementation, adjusted to maintain IGF-1 levels in the mid-normal range (higher doses for women on oral estrogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

When there is an ADH (vasopressin) deficiency in the setting of HYPOpituitarism, how is this treated?

A

Treated with DESMOPRESSIN (vasopressin “ADH” analogue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

How does the HYPOTHALAMUS STIMULATE the POSTERIOR PITUITARY gland to SECRETE either ADH (vasopressin) or OXYTOCIN?

A

VIA direct NEURAL stimulation, NOT through a “hormone-releasing-hormone” as is done for the anterior pituitary hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are the SERUM levels of ACTH and CORTISOL when there is an ACTH DEFICIENCY?

A

LOW/NORMAL ACTH and LOW CORTISOL (because the LOW cortisol level, although signaling the HYPOTHALAMUS to release CRH so that the PITUITARY RELEASES ACTH, however because either something is wrong with the hypothalamus or the pituitary, ACTH is not increased and CORTISOL is low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is the SERUM ACTH level when there is a PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY?

A

HIGH! (because the LOW cortisol level signals the HYPOTHALAMUS to release CRH so that the PITUITARY RELEASES ACTH and both the hypothalamus and pituitary are normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

SKIN PIGMENTATION occurs with what HORMONAL abnormality?

A

ADDISON Disease - PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY due to the effects of ELEVATED ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

A patient with dark skin pigmentation on lips and buccal mucosa, gingiva presents with malaise, weakness, fatigue and HYPOtension and HYPERkalemia, what does he have?

A

ADDISON Disease - PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY due to the effects of ELEVATED ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Why does a patient with ACTH deficiency (not primary adrenal issue) and therefore a problem with the HYPOTHALAMUS or PITUITARY not present with HYPOtension or HYPERkalemia?

A

Because the ALDOSTERONE produced in the outermost portion of the ADRENAL CORTEX is NOT CONTROLLED by the HYPOTHALAMUS/PITUITARY but SEPARATELY by the KIDNEYS/LUNGS/LIVER renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

HIGH ACTH with HYPOtension and HYPERkalemia?

A

ADDISON Disease - PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of ACTH deficiency (disturbance in the hypothlamic-pituitary axis)?

A

Suppression of the secretion of CRH (hypothalamus) and therefore ACTH (pituitary) by EXOGENOUS CORTICOSTEROID administration (prednisone, megestrol - appetite stimulant used in HIV and cancer patients, etc.) >2-3 WEEKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How can you tell that ACTH deficiency is NOT due to MEDICATION (corticosteroids) use?

A

Because OTHER pituitary hormones would ALSO be deficient, not JUST ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How can you tell if HYPOthyroidism is due to a CENTRAL (CNS) cause?

A

By measuring the SERUM TSH (NORMAL/low) AND T4 (LOW) which would be due to understimulation of the THYROID gland due to a LOW TRH (hypothalamic) or TSH (pituitary) issue where these should be HIGH if the T4 was low (NEED BOTH TSH and T4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Fatigue, Weight GAIN, COLD-intolerance, CONSTIPATION, BRITTLE hair, dry skin, edema, MOOD changes, poor short-term MEMORY and CONCENTRATION, DEPRESSION, SLOW REFLEXES?

A

HYPOthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

How can you tell if HYPOthyroidism is due to a PRIMARY (THYROID) cause?

A

Without a concomitant central cause, the TSH level would be HIGH (T4 and T3 would be low but not necessary) as the properly-functioning hypothalamic/pituitary axis is trying to STIMULATE an ABNORMAL THYROID gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

When a patient is suspected of having HYPOthyroidism and their measured TSH is NORMAL or LOW, what must also be checked?

A

Serum T4 - would also be LOW (because this would demonstrate the problem to be CENTRAL - hypothalamic/pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

In starvation, critical illness or patients in intensive care unit who have NORMAL/LOW T4, T3 and TSH but ELEVATED rT3 (reverse T3) have what condition?

A

EUTHYROID SICK-SYNDROME (thyroid if normal and the lab abnormalities are caused by the sickness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

When does SUBCLINCAL (“partial”) CENTRAL DIABETES INSIPIDUS (DI) become clinically apparent?

A

During stress such as WATER DEPRIVATION (loss of a patient’s usual access to water) or PREGNANCY (due to placental vasopressinase - a placental enzyme that degrades vasopressin causing the “partial” release of vasopressin to now become insufficient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

In a patient with POLYURIA, serum Na is found to be HIGH-NORMAL or HIGH with a LOWER URINE OSMOLALITY than SERUM OSMOLALITY, what’s the likely problem?

A

Diabetes Insipidus (DI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

In a patient with POLYURIA, serum Na is found to be

A

SIADH - look for a cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

In a patient with POLYURIA, serum Na is found to be NORMAL with a LOW URINE/BLOOD OSMOLALITY, what should be done next?

A

Water Deprivation test to DIFFERENTIATE between DIABETES INSIPIDUS (DI) and PRIMARY POLYDIPSIA (psychogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is meant by a PITUITARY micro/macro adenoma?

A

Pituitary MICROadenoma 1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Are most pituitary tumors functional or non-functional? Of the functional ones, which is the most COMMON?

A

Most are NON-FUNCTIONAL adenomas

Most COMMON FUNCTIONAL pituitary tumor is the PROLACTINOMA (prolactin >200 ng/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Tumors of the Pituitary, Parathyroid and Pancreas are part of what FAMILIAL syndrome?

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia - 1 (MEN-1) the 3 P’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Even when benign (most), PITUITARY adenomas cause what type of problems due to their location and mass effect?

A

Visual Field Defects (optic chiasm), HEADACHES, compressive effect on the remaining pituitary with HYPOpituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What should ALWYS be done if a MASS in the SELLA TURCICA is incidentally detected on a CT?

A

FOLLOW-UP with MRI and HORMONAL ANALYSIS (HYPO/HYPER) INCLUDING SERUM PROLACTIN level, check for VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

MRI, Hormonal Analysis (HYPO/HYPER) and Serum PROLACTIN level, check for VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS?

A

Tests that MUST be done for ALL masses in the SELLA TURCICA whether found INCIDENTALLY or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What should be done for a pituitary tumor that is found to be CAUSING HORMONAL CHANGES either because it is FUNCTIONAL (secreting hormones) or due to compression of the pituitary causing HYPOpituitarism?

A

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HYPOpituitarism) or SURGERY (if functional - except prolactinomas - serum prolactin >200 ng/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What should be done for a pituitary tumor that is found to be neither FUNCTIONAL nor causing MASS effect or HYPOpituitarism?

A

Serial Follow-up Evaluataions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is located in the SUPRASELLAR region of the cranium (“above” the sella turcica where the pituitary gland sits)?

A

The OPTIC CHIASM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia (can’t see the temporal halves) and Diplopia are visual defects seen with what condition?

A

Pituitary tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

A patient with a pituitary tumor reports a SUDDEN EXPLOSIVE HEADACHE, what happened?

A

Likely hemorrhagic infarction of the tumor (Pituitary Apoplexy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Is DIABETES INSIPIDUS (DI) caused by PRIMARY pituitary tumors?

A

VERY RARELY, more commonly due to a NON-PITUITARY lesion such as a CYSTIC TUMOR (craniopharyngioma or Rathke cleft cyst - congenital) or metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What is the TREATMENT for ALL SECRETORY PITUITARY tumors and ALL PITUITARY MACROADENOMAS (>1 cm) EXCEPT for which ONE?

A

SURGICAL RESECTION of ALL Pituitary tumors that are FUNCTIONAL (secrete hormone) or those that are >1 cm (MACROADENOMAS) EXCEPT PROLACTINOMAS (prolactin >200 ng/mL) - treated with DOPAMINE agonists (dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What treatment is provided after a ENDONASAL TRANS-SPHENOIDAL resection of a pituitary tumor if there is RESIDUAL DISEASE, continued HYPERsecretion of hormones or patients CANNOT undergo SURGERY?

A

RADIATION THERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

DOPAMINE AGONISTS are used as FIRST-LINE TREATMENT (NOT SURGERY - because tumors shrink by >50% with medical therapy ALONE) to treat what TUMOR?

A

PITUITARY Prolactinoma - serum prolactin >200 ng/mL - (cabergoline or bromocriptine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Pregnancy, Nipple Stimulation, Strenuous Exercise and Food Intake are all PHYSIOLOGIC causes of this hormonal action?

A

HYPERprolactinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of HYPERprolactinemia that is NOT PHYSIOLOGIC (Pregnancy, Nipple Stimulation, Strenuous Exercise, Food Intake)?

A

Pituitary Prolactinoma - serum prolactin >200 ng/mL - (benign adenoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What are the other FIVE (5) causes of HYPERprolactinemia once a PROLACTINOMA (prolactin >200 ng/mL) and PHYSIOLOGIC HYPERprolactinemia have been EXCLUDED?

A

Tumor (hypothalamic, sellar) affecting the pituitary STALK, HYPOthyroidism, Cirrhosis, Kidney Failure (Cr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Estrogens, Haloperidol, Risperidone, MAOI’s, TCA’s, Fluoxetine, Opiates, Metoclopramide, Domperidone, Methyldopa, Verapamil and COCAINE can all cause HYPERprolactinemia through what action?

A

Antidopaminergic (block dopamine secretion which inhibits prolactin secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

SERUM PROLACTIN levels CORRESPOND DIRECTLY with PROLACTINOMA SIZE. What SERUM PROLACTIN LEVEL is DIAGNOSTIC for a PROLACTINOMA?

A

Serum Prolactin >200 ng/mL (normal is 5-20 ng/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What other PITUITARY HORMONE is AFFECTED INDIRECTLY by a PROLACTINOMA or by another cause of HYPERprolactinemia (Tumor (hypothalamic, sellar) affecting the pituitary STALK, HYPOthyroidism, Liver Disease, Kidney Failure (Cr

A

GH (because HYPOTHALAMIC secretion of GnRH is INHIBITED by the INCREASED SECRETION of HYPOTHALAMIC DOPAMINE (negative inhibitory response to HYPERprolactinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

If a patient presents with HYPERprolactinemia without a CLEAR secondary or drug-induced cause, what should be done next?

A

MRI of the PITUITARY gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Galactorrhea, Gynecomastia, Oligomenorrhea, Amenorrhea, Hirsutism, Erectile Dysfunction, Decreased Libido, Infertility, HA, Osteopenia and Osteoporosis are all manifestations of this HORMONE oversecretion that WARRANT treatment?

A

HYPERprolactinemia (treat with dopamine agonists - cabergoline or bromocriptine, NOT SURGERY - as tumors typically shrink by >50% with medical therapy ALONE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What should be done to treat a PROLACTINOMA (prolactin >200 ng/mL) in a patient that complains of visual field defects caused by its mass effect?

A

STILL NO SURGERY, treat with dopamine agonists - cabergoline or bromocriptine - as tumors typically shrink by >50% with medical therapy ALONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What should be done when a DRUG-INDUCED (Haloperidol, Risperidone, MAOI’s, TCA’s, FLUOXETINE) HYPERprolactinemia is diagnosed (psychiatric disorders) and the drug should not be stopped, nor should a dopamine-agonist be used (carbergoline, bromocriptine) as it may WORSEN the psychiatric disease?

A

Consult PSYCHIATRY

223
Q

How can you treat the ESTROGEN deficiency (oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea, hirsutism, decreased libido, infertility, osteopenia/osteoporosis) in a woman with a PROLACTINOMA who does NOT desire pregnancy?

A

LOW-DOSE ESTROGEN in the form of ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES with regular monitoring of PROLACTIN levels

224
Q

Pituitary ADENOMAS [prolactinoma, those causing acromegaly (GH), those causing Cushing disease (ACTH) and NON-FUNCTIONAL] can all be treated with what?

A

CABERGOLINE (except TSH-secreting adenomas which require OCTREOTIDE)

225
Q

When can CABERGOLINE or BROMOCRIPTINE be D/C’d after treating HYPERprolactinemia (due to any cause)?

A

When serum prolactin levels have been NORMAL (5-20 ng/mL) >2 YEARS and NO VISIBLE tumor on MRI with close follow-up (50% recurrence rates)

226
Q

When a prolactinoma is UNRESPONSIVE to medical therapy (cabergoline, bromocriptine) or MEDICAL TREATMENT is NOT TOLERATED (GI upset, congestion, HA, dizziness) or if the prolactinoma has a CYSTIC component (unresponsive to medical therapy), how should it be treated?

A

SURGICAL RESECTION (endonasal transsphenoidal)

227
Q

In women with PROLACTINOMAS, EVEN though BOTH cabergoline and bromocriptine are SAFE (B) in pregnancy, the RECOMMENDATION is to STOP these drugs AFTER CONCEPTION EXCEPT when?

A

There are VISUAL FIELD DEFECTS due to optical chiasm compression by the PROLACTINOMA

228
Q

What OCCURS PHYSIOLOGICALLY to the PITUITARY GLAND DURING PREGNANCY and to an EXISTING PROLACTINOMA?

A

THEY BOTH INCREASE in SIZE

229
Q

In the case of a SYMPTOMATIC PROLACTINOMA during pregnancy (whether it was existing and treated or newly diagnosed) what is the RECOMMENDED TREATMENT?

A

Start BROMOCRIPTINE (preferred agent), TRANSSPHENOIDAL SURGERY or DELIVERY if appropriate (timing)

230
Q

When can Cabergoline or Bromocriptine be RESTARTED in a woman who has had these medications STOPPED after conception?

A

ONCE BREASTFEEDING has STOPPED (not safe in breastfeeding)

231
Q

Should routine PROLACTIN levels be drawn during pregnancy or routine MRI’s be done?

A

NO, also, prolactin levels are of no value during pregnancy

232
Q

Frontal Bossing (big forehead), Prognathism (jaw protrusion), Increased spacing between teeth and Dental abnormalities (malocclusion - w/difficulty chewing), Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Type 2 DM, OSA, Excess Sweating, Large Nose/Lips/Tongue, Skin Tags, Arthritis, Increased Cardiovascular Disease, Increased Adenomatous Colon Polyps and Colon Cancer are ALL seen with which HORMONE abnormality?

A

ACROMEGALY due to a GH-secreting pituitary tumor (adenoma)

233
Q

A screening colonoscopy is recommended for ALL patients with this HORMONE abnormality?

A

ACROMEGALY due to a GH-secreting pituitary tumor (adenoma) - due to their higher RISK for Colon Cancer

234
Q

How is GH HYPERsecretion confirmed in the setting of ACROMEGALY with a suspected GH-secreting pituitary tumor (adenoma)?

A

Serum Insulin-like Growth Factor - 1 (IGF-1) - HIGH

-Rarely, an oral glucose tolerance test measuring GH levels can be done and if a level

235
Q

Why is Serum GH not directly measured when a confirmation of GH HYPERsecretion is desired in the setting of ACROMEGALY with a suspected GH-secreting pituitary tumor (adenoma)?

A

Because GH secretion by the pituitary is PULSATILE and not consistent

236
Q

When treating ACROMEGALY, what changes caused by the disease are PERMANENT?

A

The BONY changes

237
Q

AFTER SURGICAL RESECTION of the FUNCTIONING GH-secreting PITUITARY ADENOMA, if there are still RESIDUAL SYMPTOMS of ACROMEGALY, what ADJUVANT MEDICAL therapy is used?

A

OCTREOTIDE/lanreotide (can also use cabergoline) as well as adjuvant RADIATION therapy

238
Q

What OTHER (second-line therapy) drug can be used as an adjuvant to treat ACROMEGALY (if there are still residual symptoms) which NORMALIZES IGF-1 in >90% of patients (65% with octreotide and 40% with cabergoline) HOWEVER LFT’s must be monitored as well as follow-up MRI’s as tumor GROWTH has been described with this drug?

A

PEGvisomant

239
Q

An INCIDENTALLY-found pituitary tumor is most COMMONLY non-functional and what are it’s most likely features that would warrant intervention?

A

These are most commonly found as MACROadenomas (>1 cm) and may be causing MASS effect with visual field loss and other symptoms such as HA and well as HYPOpituitarism - the recommendations is that ALL MACROADENOMAS be surgically removed EXCEPT for prolactinomas because these respond well and rapidly to DOPAMINE-agonists (cabergoline and bromocriptine) in both reduction of hormone and shrinkage. In contrast, ALL FUNCTIONAL pituitary tumors require SURGICAL resection regardless of size, again EXCEPT prolactinomas

240
Q

If an INCIDENTALLY-found pituitary tumor is found to be a MICROadenoma (

A

MONITORING with MRI every 6-12 months to assess for symptom development and growth

241
Q

For ALL SURGICALLY RESECTED PITUITARY ADENOMAS (functional or not), adjuvant RADIATION therapy post-resection is appropriate for any RESIDUAL SYMPTOMS. ADDITIONALLY, for ACTH - secreting pituitary adenomas adjuvant INITIAL post-surgical therapy, PRIOR to considering RADIATION therapy, CABERGOLINE should be used and for GH and TSH - secreting pituitary adenomas, what drug should be used PRIOR to considering RADIATION therapy?

A

OCTREOTIDE/lanreotide

242
Q

What NORMALLY INHIBITS secretion of TRH/TSH by both the hypothalamus and the pituitary (by negative feedback)?

A

Thyroxine (T4 - made by the thyroid gland) and Triiodothyronine (T3 - some made by the thyroid gland, the MAJORITY made by peripheral tissues - LIVER & KIDNEY that convert T4)

243
Q

EXCESS T4 (thyroxine) due to ANY cause is called what?

A

THYROTOXICOSIS

244
Q

Which are the ONLY BIOLOGICALLY-ACTIVE forms of thyroid hormone?

A

free T4 and free T3 (unbound)

When these are BOUND (to thyroxine-binding-globulin “TBG”) the hormones are INACTIVE and reflect STORED hormone reserves

245
Q

What compound is REQUIRED for THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS (T4 - thyroxine)?

A

IODINE (requirements increase in pregnancy/lactation)

246
Q

In patients with a NORMAL PITUITARY gland, what is the MOST SENSITIVE test for thyroid function?

A

TSH

247
Q

In a patient with HYPOthyroidism, when TSH is low and you’re suspecting a PITUITARY dysfunction, what should you test for next to confirm?

A

Serum free T4 (reflects biologically-active, UNBOUND T4 made by the thyroid gland) - if LOW, then the problem is CENTRAL because there is no negative-feedback inhibition of the pituitary or hypothalamus yet TSH is low

248
Q

When is it appropriate to check the serum freeT3?

A

When looking for T3 thyrotoxicosis (excess T3)

249
Q

When should the serum THYROGLOBULIN (Tg) be measured?

A

When suspecting a SUBACUTE THYROIDITIS or SURREPTITIOUS ingestion of thyroid hormone (T4 or T3) or followed as a tumor marker in thyroid cancer

250
Q

What is the function of THYROGLOBULIN (Tg), which is made exclusively in the thyroid gland (and by thyroid cancers)?

A

Thyroglobulin (Tg) STORES the thyroid hormones T4 and T3 made in the thyroid gland after contact with IODINE (iodination) and SECRETES it in response to TSH (most of T3 is made by peripheral tissues - LIVER & KIDNEY - after conversion of T4) some of the Thyroglobulin (Tg) itself is also secreted and thus measurable

251
Q

When should the serum Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) and Thyrotropin-Binding Inhibitory Immunoglobulin (TBII) be measured?

A

GRAVES Disease (TSH-receptor Stimulating (TSI) and Blocking (TBII) Ab’s - an autoimmune HYPERthyroidism disease

252
Q

When should the serum Anti-Thyroid Peroxidase Ab’s (anti-TPO) and Anti-THYROGLOBULIN Ab’s (anti-Tg) be measured?

A

When suspecting HASHIMOTO Thyroiditis (an autoimmune HYPOthyroidism disease)

253
Q

When would you use the RADIOACTIVE IODINE UPTAKE scan (RAIU-scan)?

A

In a NON-PREGNANT, NON-BREASTFEEDING patient, to determine the cause of THYROTOXICOSIS (excess T4 (thyroxine) due to ANY cause) by examining the UPTAKE PATTERN

254
Q

In a patient with ANY symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction, this is the FIRST test that should be used?

A

Serum TSH (normal 0.5-5.0 µU/mL)

255
Q

What should be measured in a patient in which PITUITARY dysfunction is the suspected cause of thyroid dysfunction (neurosurgery, cranial irradiation, massive head trauma)?

A

BOTH TSH and freeT4

256
Q

What would free T4 and free T3 levels be in THYROTOXICOSIS?

A

BOTH would be elevated (unless, rarely only the free T3 level was high, due to T3 thyrotoxicosis)

257
Q

Should you measure the T3 level in HYPOthyroidism?

A

NO, because it can be conserved even when HYPOthyroidism is severe and therefore of NO diagnostic value in this setting

258
Q

What is an autoimmune HYPOthyroidism disease?

A

HASHIMOTO thyroiditis

259
Q

What is an autoimmune HYPERthyroidism disease?

A

GRAVES disease

260
Q
  1. In the setting of a NORMAL TSH, what should be done for treatment if a SERUM thyroid antibody titer (anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies “anti-TPO”; anti-TSH receptor Ab’s “anti-TSI & anti-TBII”; anti-Thyroglobulin Ab’s “anti-TBG Ab’s) was positive for any of these? 2. What does the presence of these Ab’s suggest?
A
  1. NOTHING (EXCEPT in WOMEN who either ARE or wish to BECOME PREGNANT, serial measurements of anti-TPO Ab’s are appropriate due to the HIGH risk for INFERTILITY, PRETERM DELIVERY and MISCARRIAGE)
  2. Presence of these Ab’s suggests a FUTURE risk of autoimmune thyroid disease
261
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED serum anti-thyroid Ab to test for in order to assess risk for future autoimmune HYPOthyroidism (HASHIMOTO) in a patient with a STRONG FAMILY H/O autoimmune HYPOthyroidism?

A

anti-thyroid peroxidase Ab’s (anti-TPO) - NOT anti-TBG

262
Q
  1. What is the ONLY indication for treatment of a thyroid condition regardless of the presence of anti-thyroid Ab’s which is the reason why serial testing for the level of these Ab’s is NOT RECOMMENDED as their quantities DO NOT correlate with when the disease might develop? 2. Is there an exception to this recommendation?
A
  1. ABNORMAL TSH is the ONLY indication to treat
  2. YES, for WOMEN who either ARE or wish to BECOME PREGNANT, serial measurements of anti-TPO Ab’s are appropriate due to the HIGH risk for INFERTILITY, PRETERM DELIVERY and MISCARRIAGE
263
Q

What can be tested for in the setting of HYPERthyroidism with HIGH-SUSPICION for GRAVES disease but INSUFFICIENT CLINICAL evidence exists OR Radioactive Iodine Uptake scan (RAIU-scan) is either NOT AVAILABLE or CONTRAINDICATED such as with PREGNANCY or BREASTFEEDING?

A

Serum anti-TSI and anti-TBII Ab’s [anti-TSH receptor Ab’s: “anti-TSI - Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI)” and “anti-TBII - Thyrotropin-Binding Inhibitory Immunoglobulin (TBII)”]

264
Q

How do HYPERthyroidism and DESTRUCTIVE Thyroiditis affect the serum level of THYROGLOBULIN (Tg)?

A
  • BOTH cause it to be INCREASED
  • [Thyroglobulin (Tg) STORES the thyroid hormones T4 and T3 made in the thyroid gland after contact with IODINE (iodination) and SECRETES it in response to TSH (most of T3 is made by peripheral tissues - LIVER & KIDNEY - after conversion of T4) some of the Thyroglobulin (Tg) itself is also secreted and thus measurable
265
Q

How does SURREPTITIOUS (factitious “false”) THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) caused by INGESTION of EXOGENOUS thyroid hormone, affect the serum level of THYROGLOBULIN (Tg)?

A
  • DECREASED (because TSH would be LOW thus inhibitory)
  • [Thyroglobulin (Tg) STORES the thyroid hormones T4 and T3 made in the thyroid gland after contact with IODINE (iodination) and SECRETES it in response to TSH(most of T3 is made by peripheral tissues - LIVER & KIDNEY - after conversion of T4) some of the Thyroglobulin (Tg) itself is also secreted and thus measurable
266
Q

When a patient is EUTHYROID (normal thyroid gland) however has SYMPTOMS and LABS consistent with THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) and SURREPTITIOUS (factitious “false”) caused by INGESTION of EXOGENOUS thyroid hormone, what should be measured?

A

Serum THYROGLOBULIN (Tg) because it would be LOW - this is the ONLY way to be able to tell that the observed THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) is NOT due to ENDOGENOUS secretion of thyroid hormone but rather by an EXOGENOUS source

267
Q
  1. When a patient has been TREATED for a WELL-DIFFERENTIATED THYROID CANCER (PAPILLARY or FOLLICULAR), what can be measured to assess RECURRENCE or PERSISTENCE at the EARLIEST POSSIBLE STAGE? 2. What can INTERFERE with this measurement resulting in FALSELY LOW results?
A
  1. Serum THYROGLOBULIN (Tg) - can be used as an effective tumor marker in these well-differentiated cancer types (in UNDIFFERENTIATED or POORLY-DIFFERENTIATED thyroid cancers “RAS-mutations” such as “ANAPLASTIC Thyroid Cancer (ATC) - due to altered cell morphology, measuring thyroglobulin would not be helpful)
  2. The presence of anti-THYROGLOBULIN Ab’s (anti-Tg) and therefore, the PRESENCE of these Ab’s MUST ALSO be measured
268
Q

What type of THYROID cancers are PAPILLARY or FOLLICULAR thyroid cancers?

A

WELL-DIFFERENTIATED Cancers (the cancer cells and therefore their secreted products look SIMILAR to normal tissue)

269
Q

Why does RADIOACTIVE IODINE work as an ablative treatment for WELL-DIFFERENTIATED THYROID CANCERS (Papillary and Follicular)?

A

Because the IODINE is TAKEN UP by the NORMAL and CANCEROUS THYROID cells causing their DESTRUCTION due to their RADIATION effects

270
Q

MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER is a thyroid cancer that ORIGINATES from the THYROID’s PARAFOLLICULAR CELLS (C-Cells) which secrete the HORMONE CALCITONIN. THEREFORE, in patients with a H/O MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER, the hormone CALCITONIN is measured as the PREFERRED TUMOR MARKER in this cancer of the THYROID. In what OTHER setting is the measurement of serum CALCITONIN helpful?

A

CALCITONIN should be measured in ALL patients with THYROID NODULES or THYROID DYSFUNCTION that have a FAMILY H/O MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER with features of the FAMILIAL Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia - 2 (MEN-2) - PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA & MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER (can include parathyroid cancer - 2a or mucosal neuromas and Marfan disease 2b) or those with POSITIVE BIOPSY (of a thyroid nodule - US-guided FNA) for Medullary Thyroid Cancer

271
Q

What information does measuring the level of the serum hormone CALCITONIN provide?

A

The possibility of PRESENCE, RECURRENCE or PERSISTENCE of MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER

272
Q

What test can be performed in patients with HYPERthyroidism and therefore THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) to assess for an excess ENDOGENOUS source of thyroid hormone production?

A

Radioactive Iodine Uptake scan (RAIU-scan) - would be HIGH (>30% after 24 hrs or HIGH-NORMAL, where normal uptake is between 5-25%)

273
Q

What would the RESULT of a Radioactive Iodine Uptake scan (RAIU-scan) in the setting of an excess source of EXOGENOUS thyroid hormones (surreptitious “factitious” thyrotoxicosis) and in SUBACUTE (de Quervain)/SILENT/POSTPARTUM thyroiditis?

A

Radioactive Iodine Uptake scan (RAIU-scan) - would be LOW (

274
Q

What would a RAIU-scan look like in GRAVES disease, which is an autoimmune disease of the thyroid causing HYPERthyroidism due to a combination of AUTO TSH-receptor STIMULATING (TSI) and TSH-receptor BLOCKING (TBII) Ab’s?

A

DIFFUSE UPTAKE of radioactive iodine

275
Q

In approximately 30% of women who present with POSTPARTUM HYPOthyroidism, there will be an ELEVATED level of anti-THYROID PEROXIDASE Ab’s (anti-TPO). Is this diagnostic for HASHIMOTO thyroiditis?

A

NO!! it is due to POSTPARTUM THYROIDITIS

276
Q

What does “ENDOGENOUS THYROID GLAND OVERACTIVITY” refer to?

A

HYPERthyroidism

277
Q

GRAVES disease, Toxic Multinodular Goiter and Toxic Adenoma are all examples of what kid of thyroid disease?

A

HYPERthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis caused by ENDOGENOUS thyroid gland overactivity with resulting EXCESS production of thyroid hormones)

278
Q

Fatigue, Anxiety, Insomnia, STARE, Weight LOSS (despite increased appetite), Tremor, HEAT-intolerance, Oligo/Amenorrhea, Diarrhea, PALPITATIONS, HF, A-fib, SOB, DOE and Muscle Weakness are ALL symptoms seen in what?

A

HYPERthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)

279
Q

LOW/suppressed TSH level and HIGH free T4/free T3 levels?

A

THYROTOXICOSIS

280
Q

Can the anti-Thyroid Peroxidase Ab’s (anti-TPO) and anti-THYROGLOBULIN (Tg) Ab’s (anti-Tg) normally found in HASHIMOTO thyroiditis (HYPOthyroidism) ALSO be found in THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3)?

A

YES!! (which is why although found with HASHIMOTO thyroiditis, the presence of these are not SUFFICIENT for the diagnosis of HASHIMOTO thyroiditis requiring testing for TSH and CLINICAL evidence of HYPOthyroidism)

281
Q

When patients with THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) P/W EITHER a PALPABLE thyroid NODULE, or the presence of a HYPOfunctioning area on a RAIU-scan (ie NOT DIFFUSE uptake) or a PERSONAL or FAMILY H/O THYROID CANCER, what TEST should be done next?

A

Thyroid US

282
Q
  1. A patient that P/W symptoms of THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3) BUT has a NORMAL, low-NORMAL or high-NORMAL TSH with HIGH free T4 or free T3 levels most likely has what? 2. What should be DONE NEXT?
A
  1. A TSH-secreting PITUITARY tumor (serum “α-TSH >1)
    - “α-TSH” suggests pituitary source
  2. MRI
283
Q

When can the TSH and free T4 be HIGH but T3 LOW with no evidence of pituitary tumor?

A

When there is a PERIPHERAL TISSUE (LIVER, KIDNEY) RESISTANCE to the thyroid hormone (free T4)

284
Q

Autoimmune disease that affects the THYROID (HYPERthyroidism), Ocular Muscles, Orbital Fat and Skin (pretibial myxedema) resulting in PROPTOSIS and DIPLOPIA?

A

GRAVES disease

285
Q

What DISEASE mechanism establishes AUTONOMOUS THYROID gland function resulting in THYROTOXICOSIS - excess free T4 and free T3 secretion (with no interference from the pituitary gland, thyroid hormones produced or the hypothalamus)?

A

GRAVES disease via anti-TSH RECEPTOR Ab’s (TSH-receptor Stimulating (TSI) and Blocking (TBII) Ab’s)

286
Q

What MANIFESTATION of GRAVES disease can occur with NORMAL TSH, free T4 and free T3 BUT ONLY in the PRESENCE of nti-TSH RECEPTOR Ab’s (TSH-receptor Stimulating (TSI) and Blocking (TBII) Ab’s)

A

GRAVES OPHTHALMOPATHY (exophthalmos, diplopia, conjunctival irritation)

287
Q

Smooth, Rubbery, Firm GOITER with a BRUIT is seen in what disease?

A

GRAVES disease (autoimmune HYPERthyroidism)

288
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED medication for treating the ADRENERGIC symptoms of THYROTOXICOSIS (palpitations, HF, A-fib, SOB, DOE)?

A

β-blocker ATENOLOL (cardioselective β-blocker)

289
Q

What are the RECOMMENDED medications used to treat GRAVES disease itself (not just it’s symptoms)?

A

METHIMAZOLE or PROPYLTHIOURACIL (used in PREGNANCY), radioactive Iodine (I-131), or surgery

290
Q

Do serial TSH measurements have any roll in monitoring patients with HYPERthyroidism?

A

NO

291
Q

What is the MAIN adverse effect of anti-thyroid drugs METHIMAZOLE and PROPYLTHIOURACIL?

A

LIVER toxicity (elevated LFT’s) - thus a BASELINE CBC and LFT’s are REQUIRED prior to initiating treatment

292
Q

Although a SINGLE dose of RADIOACTIVE Iodine (I-131) is effective (90%) in the ablation of an OVERACTIVE THYROID such as in the THYROTOXICOSIS noted in HYPERthyroidism with GRAVES disease, the treatment can cause INITIAL EXACERBATION of THYROTOXICOSIS (released storage of pre-formed thyroid hormone) as well as transient anterior neck pain/tenderness. What is the EXPECTED and DESIRED outcome from this treatment?

A

PERMANENT HYPOthyroidism (the entire gland is destroyed) - in 2-3 months AFTER treatment, REQUIRING thyroid hormone replacement with LEVOTHYROXINE

293
Q

What is the PRIMARY treatment of GRAVES OPHTHALMOPATHY?

A

Establishing a EUTHYROID (normal thyroid) state

294
Q

Due to the INITIALLY-observed EXACERBATION of THYROTOXICOSIS (excess free T4 and free T3 secretion) AFTER treatment with radioactive iodine (I-131) as well as the SLOW INITIAL action of anti-thyroid drugs (METHIMAZOLE and PROPYLTHIOURACIL), the RECOMMENDED FIRST-LINE therapy for GRAVES disease patients WITH OPHTHALMOATHY is what?

A

SURGERY

295
Q

Activation of the expression of a MUTATION in the TSH-RECEPTOR gene can lead to AUTONOMY of FUNCTION of the THYROID gland with secretion of EXCESS free T4 and free T3 from the affected thyroid NODULES in these TWO (2) disease process?

A

TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER (palpable nodules or overall enlargement) and TOXIC ADENOMA

296
Q

What can exposure to Iodinated-Contrast Dye used in CT-scans or Angiography (cardiac studies, etc.) TRIGGER in patients with SUBCLINICAL AUTONOMY of FUNCTION of the THYROID gland as exists in TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER and TOXIC ADENOMA?

A
  • THYROTOXICOSIS (HYPERthyroidism due to excess free T4 and free T3 secretion)
  • Use of MRI or US is recommended in these patients
297
Q

What is RECOMMENDED in a patient with a THYROID NODULE(S)?

A

US of the thyroid to assess for cancer and need for biopsy (US-guided FNA)

298
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED treatment of a MULTINODULAR GOITER ASSOCIATED with HYPERthyroidism?

A

ABLATION with either RADIOACTIVE Iodine (I-131) or with SURGERY

299
Q

HOARSENESS (recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement), DYSPNEA or ENGORGEMENT of the NECK VEINS in the setting of THYROTOXICOSIS associated with HYPERthyroidism implies the presence of what and need for SURGERY?

A

GOITER causing compression/obstruction

300
Q

What is meant by a “HOT” thyroid NODULE such as what is seen with TOXIC ADENOMA or multiple hot nodules in toxic multinodular goiter on a RAIU-scan?

A

An ACTIVE, hormone-secreting (free T4, free T3) nodule

301
Q

What would a RAIU-scan look like in a patient with TOXIC ADENOMA (thyroid)?

A

It would show a SINGLE “HOT” (active, functional) nodule because it would take up the RADIOACTIVE Iodine (I-131) whereas the REST of the gland which is NORMAL, would be suppressed by the effects of the VERY HIGH TSH that the pituitary gland is secreting trying to inhibit the overactive thyroid which has an autonomous nodule secreting thyroid hormone

302
Q

What is meant by a “COLD” thyroid NODULE such as when noted on a RAIU-scan done for a patient with GRAVES disease or TOXIC MULTINODOLAR GOITER or TOXIC ADENOMA?

A

A NODULE that is noted in areas of the RAIU-scan with DECREASED uptake that signifies a NON-FUNCTIONAL thyroid nodule that is NOT secreting hormones and is a distinct MASS lesion

303
Q

What should be done for ALL “COLD” nodules of the thyroid PRIOR to ANY treatment?

A

CONFIRMATION that is is a NODULE by US, followed by a BIOPSY (US-guided FNA) BEFORE starting and TREATMENT (“COLD” nodules have a much higher risk of being CANCER than “HOT” nodules

304
Q

Once “COLD” nodules have been EXCLUDED, what is the TREATMENT of CHOICE for a patient with DIAGNOSED TOXIC ADENOMA or TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER?

A

Ablation with RADIOACTIVE Iodine (I-131) or if not responsive sufficiently to this therapy, SURGERY

305
Q

Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis, Silent thyroiditis and Postpartum thyroiditis are the THREE (3) types of what kind of thyroid disease?

A

DESTRUCTIVE thyroiditis (destruction of thyroid tissue that results in follicle disruption with release of pre-formed thyroid hormone - free T4 and free T3 into the circulation)

306
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of SUBACUTE thyroiditis (a destructive thyroiditis) that occurs with symptoms of SEVERE thyroid and neck PAIN, fever, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, myalgia with elevated ESR, CRP, free T4 and free T3 with LOW TSH, has a course of 6 WEEKS of THYROTOXICOSIS followed by a few WEEKS of EUTHYROID and then by 4-6 WEEKS of HYPOthyroidism (hypothyroidism can be mild, prolonged or permanent)?

A

VIRAL INFECTION

307
Q

Which is the ONLY cause of DESTRUCTIVE thyroiditis that presents with THYROID/NECK pain?

A

SUBACUTE Thyroiditis (caused by a viral infection)

308
Q

Which of the THREE (3) types of DESTRUCTIVE thyroiditis has the HIGHEST RISK for PERMANENT HYPOthyroidism upon resolution?

A

POSTPARTUM Thyroiditis (will require levothyroxine)

309
Q

How is the PROLONGED/PERMANENT HYPOthyroidism treated after resolution of POSTPARTUM Thyroiditis?

A

With levothyroxine for 6 months, then with SLOW TAPER to check if function had been restored and ONGOING monitoring for RECURRENCE

310
Q

What is the treatment of the THREE (3) DESTRUCTIVE thyroiditis diseases [Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis, Silent thyroiditis and Postpartum thyroiditis]?

A
  • In SILENT and POSTPARTUM Thyroiditis, β-blocker (ATENOLOL) is used for the THYROTOXIC phase and LEVOTHYROXINE for the HYPOthyroid phase if needed (prolonged/permanent phase)
  • In SUBACUTE (de Quervain) Thyroiditis, the PAIN is treated with NSAID’s and STEROIDS
311
Q

What thyroid diseases (3) have a THREE( 3) - PHASE course beginning with THYROTOXICOSIS (HYPERthyroidism) followed by EUTHYROID and lastly by HYPOthyroidism?

A

The DESTRUCTIVE thyroiditis diseases [SUBACUTE (de Quervain) thyroiditis, SILENT thyroiditis and POSTPARTUM thyroiditis]

312
Q

What DRUG is the most COMMON cause of MEDICATION-related THYROTOXICOSIS (HYPERthyroidism due to excess free T4 and free T3 secretion)?

A

AMIODARONE (others are INF-α, IL-2 and lithium)

313
Q

What patients are susceptible to THYROTOXICOSIS (HYPERthyroidism due to excess free T4 and free T3 secretion) from HIGH-IODINE containing medications such as AMIODARONE, Contrast agents (CT-scan contrast dye, Angiography)?

A

Those with TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER (palpable nodules or overall enlargement) and TOXIC ADENOMA most commonly caused by the activation of the expression of a MUTATION in the TSH-RECEPTOR gene that can lead to AUTONOMY of FUNCTION of the THYROID gland with secretion of EXCESS free T4 and free T3 from the affected thyroid NODULES

314
Q

What DRUG is the most COMMON cause of MEDICATION-related HYPOthyroidism?

A

LITHIUM

315
Q

How is AMIODARONE-induced THYROTOXICOSIS treated when it caused the PROBLEM DIRECTLY (type 1) or INDIRECTLY such as when there was a predisposition to IODINE such as in those with TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER or TOXIC ADENOMA?

A
  • DIRECT cause - anti-thyroid drugs (methimazole or propylthiouracil)
  • INDIRECT cause - STEROIDS
  • BOTH can be used as well (methimazole + steroids) when unsure and if unresponsive, SURGERY
316
Q

What is the condition called when TSH is found to be LOW but the free T4 and free T3 are within normal reference range?

A

Subclinical HYPERthyroidism

317
Q

When patients with Subclinical HYPERthyroidism (TSH is found to be LOW but the free T4 and free T3 are within normal reference range) EITHER have a TSH

A

-They should be TREATED (methimazole or radioactive iodine - I-131) BECAUSE they are at HIGH-RISK for CARDIAC (including a-fib), CNS and BONE disease

318
Q

What are the TWO (2) most COMMON causes of HYPOthyroidism?

A

HASHIMOTO thyroiditis and IATROGENIC (amiodarone, lithium, INF-α, IL-2 - the same meds that can cause hyperthyroidism, surgery, radiation, etc.)

319
Q

What autoimmune disease makes it more difficult to control certain medication-controlled diseases especially HYPOthyroidism due to its malabsorption characteristics?

A

CELIAC disease (often occurs with autoimmune thyroid disease such as HASHIMOTO thyroiditis)

320
Q

What should be checked for in a patient with HYPOthyroidism with LOW T4 and HIGH TSH?

A

Anti-TPO Ab’s as these would suggest likely HASHIMOTO thyroiditis

321
Q

What should be done to test a patient with HYPOthyroidism if a goiter with a palpable NODULE is found as RAIU-scan is not useful?

A

Thyroid US and if NODULE is found, MUST BIOPSY (US-guided FNA)

322
Q

How is HYPOthyroidism treated?

A

LEVOTHYROXINE (taken 1 HOUR BEFORE meals or 2-3 HOURS AFTER meals, Ca or Iron - containing supplements

323
Q

At what TSH level is the RISK for a-fib HIGH?

A

TSH

324
Q
  1. What is the TSH goal for a patient being treated with LEVOTHYROXINE? 2. What if they are >80 yo?
A
  1. TSH 0.5-4.3 µU/mL (normal is 0.5-5.0 µU/mL)

2. If >80 yo the TSH range is 1.0-7.0 µU/mL)

325
Q

What is the condition called when TSH is found to be HIGH but the free T4 and free T3 are within normal reference range and with MILD or NO symptoms?

A

Subclinical HYPOthyroidism (can have HYPERlipidemia and elevated CRP)

326
Q

When patients with Subclinical HYPERthyroidism (TSH is found to be LOW but the free T4 and free T3 are within normal reference range) AND their TSH ≥10 µU/dL what should be done?

A

They should be TREATED with LEVOTHYROXINE
TREAT ALL women who DESIRE PREGNANCY to achieve a TSH level between 0.5-0.25 µU/mL (the normal, physiologic TSH range in pregnancy)

327
Q

What is the PHYSIOLOGIC TSH RANGE in PREGNANCY?

A

PREGNANCY TSH Range is between 0.1-2.5 µU/mL

328
Q

A THYROID NODULE found in a YOUNGER than 20 or OLDER than 60, MALE, H/O PRIOR HEAD/NECK RADIATION therapy, FAMILY H/O Thyroid Cancer, RAPID NODULE GROWTH, HOARSENESS, HARD PALPABLE NODULE, CERVICAL LYMPHADENOPATHY, IMMOBILE or p/w VOCAL CORD PARALYSIS is highly suspicious for what?

A

THYROID CANCER

329
Q

Once a Thyroid US has been done and a Thyroid NODULE was biopsied, what should be done if the results are BENIGN?

A

Serial Follow-Up

330
Q

Once a Thyroid US has been done and a Thyroid NODULE was biopsied, what should be done if the results are INSUFFICIENT or UNDETERMINED?

A

REPEAT BIOPSY (US-guided FNA)

331
Q

Once a Thyroid US has been done and a Thyroid NODULE was biopsied, what should be done if the results are FOLLICULAR (or Hürthle Cell)/PAPILLARY/ANAPLASTIC/MALIGNANT or SUSPICIOUS neoplasm?

A

SURGERY

332
Q

What THREE (3) cancers are METASTATIC to the THYROID gland?

A

BREAST, MELANOMA, KIDNEY

333
Q

What THYROID MALIGNANCY is associated with HASHIMOTO thyroiditis?

A

Thyroid LYMPHOMA

334
Q

What is the FIRST test that MUST be done for ANY patient presenting with a THYROID NODULE whether symptomatic or not?

A

Serum TSH

335
Q

Which THYROID NODULES are most likely to be MALIGNANT?

A

Those that are found in the setting of HYPOthyroidism (

336
Q

In a patient found to have a THYROID NODUE and serum TSH is LOW, what’s the NEXT step?

A

Check serum free T4 and free T3

337
Q

In a patient found to have a THYROID NODUE and serum TSH is LOW while free T4 and free T3 are NORMAL/HIGH, what’s the next step?

A

RAIU-scan to assess etiology of HYPERthyroidism and look for possible “COLD” nodules (which must then be confirmed by US and BIOPSIED - US-guided FNA)

338
Q

In a patient found to have a THYROID NODUE and serum TSH is NORMAL or HIGH, whats the NEXT step?

A

Thyroid US and US-guided FNA BIOPSY as well as LABS looking for thyroid Ab’s

339
Q

When do you want to measure a patient’s serum CALCITONIN levels if they are found to have a THYROID NODULE?

A

If they currently HAVE or HAD MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER treatment/resection and you are following them for disease PROGRESSION or RECURRENCE OR if they have a FAMILY H/O MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER or MEN-2

340
Q

When do you want to measure a patient’s serum THYROGLOBULIN (Tg) levels if they are found to have a THYROID NODULE?

A

If they currently HAVE or HAD WELL-DIFFERENTIATED (follicular/papillary) THYROID CANCER treatment/resection and you are following them for disease PROGRESSION or RECURRENCE

341
Q

On a THYROID US, a NODULE that is >3cm, HYPOechoic, has IRREGULAR margins, is TALLER than it is WIDE, INTRA-NODULAR CALCIFICATIONS or VASCULAR FLOW is suspicious for what?

A

MALIGNANT NODULE

342
Q

On a THYROID US, a NODULE that is HYPERechoic, CYSTIC with a surrounding HYPOlucency (HALO), has PERIPHERAL (not intranodular) VASCULAR FLOW or looks like a COMET TAIL is suspicious for what?

A

BENIGN NODULE

343
Q

What should be done to further characterize a THYROID NODULE if it is a SUBSTERNAL GOITER, accompanied by LYMPHADENOPATHY or is COMPRESSING THE TRACHEA?

A

NON-CONTRAST CT or MRI (CT-scans with dye should be avoided as they can trigger thyrotoxicosis in a patient with a toxic adenoma or toxic multinodular goiter)

344
Q

What MUST the TSH be in order for a RAIU thyroid scan to make sense?

A

SUPPRESSED or LOW in the setting of HIGH free T4 and/or free T3 (suggests toxic adenoma or toxic multinodular goiter)

345
Q

What SIZE must a THYROID NODULE be on thyroid US for it to merit a US-guided FNA BIOPSY?

A

≥1 cm (or ≥0.5 cm if worrisome US features or in patients with RISK factors)

346
Q

What should be done for a THYROID NODULE found on on thyroid US to be ≥4 cm in size and EITHER associated with WORRISOME US features or in a patient with RISK factors?

A

THYROIDECTOMY

347
Q

What should be done for a THYROID NODULE found on US-guided FNA BIOPSY to be EITHER “SUSPICIOUS for malignancy, “FOLLICULAR” neoplasm or “FOLLICULAR” lesion of undetermined significance?

A

THYROIDECTOMY

348
Q

What should be done for a THYROID NODULE EITHER 1cm found on US-guided FNA BIOPSY to be BENIGN?

A

MONITOR every 6-12 MONTHS with follow-up evaluations AND REPEAT FNA BIOPSY if SIGNIFICANTLY CHANGED in SIZE or APPEARANCE, BUT if STABLE >18 MONTHS, re-evaluate every 3-5 YEARS

349
Q

In what thyroid disease are GOITERS most COMMONLY found in?

A

HASHIMOTO thyroiditis

350
Q

In a patient with a GOITER that has no COMPRESSION symptoms and NO MALIGNANCY, what would be the ONLY reason to perform a SURGICAL RESECTION?

A

COSMETIC INTERVENTION desired by the patient

351
Q

What is a GOITER called when it is found to have NO NODULES and is either homogeneous or heterogeneous in appearance, ASYMPTOMATIC and stable?

A

SIMPLE GOITER (monitor clinically only, no US needed as there are no nodules)

352
Q

In an ELDERLY patient with HASIMOTO thyroiditis that P/W a RAPIDLY-GROWING, SYMPTOMATIC (febrile) and FIRM GOITER what should be done and why?

A

US-guided FNA BIOPSY, because of HIGH-RISK for LYMPHOMA in this setting

353
Q

What type of THYROID CANCER is associated with MEN-2 in the setting of HYPERparathyroidism with HYPERcalcemia or HTN due to a PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA (adrenal)?

A

MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER (expresses CALCITONIN) - “plasmacytoid, spindle, round or polygonal cells on biopsy”

354
Q

What THYROID CANCER is associated with the RET proto-oncogene?

A

Medullary Thyroid Cancer (expresses CALCITONIN)

355
Q

In a patient with well-differentiated (follicular/papillary) thyroid cancer that is

A

≥45 Stage I - ≤2 cm, no invasion, no LN
≥45 Stage II - >2 cm ≤4 cm, no invasion, no LN
Stage III - >4 cm, local invasion, any LN
Stage IV - mets or mediastinal LN’s

356
Q

How are WELL-DIFFERENTIATED (follicular/papillary) THYROID CANCERS treated?

A

THYROIDECTOMY + RADIOACTIVE Iodine (I-131) + LEVOTHYROXINE (enough to suppress TSH to 0.1-0.5)

357
Q

When should a LOBECTOMY be performed instead of a total THYROIDECTOMY for a well-differentiated thyroid cancer?

A

When the TUMOR is SOLITARY and

358
Q

What NON-THYROIDAL ILLNESSES can ALTER the RESULTS of THYROID FUNCTION TESTS (variable TSH, LOW/LOW-NORMAL free T4, LOW free T3, HIGH reverse free T3 “rT3”) in the setting of a NORMAL THYROID gland “EUTHYROID SICK SYNDROME”?

A

CRITICALLY-ILL patients (also have LOW free T4 - POOR PROGNOSIS)

359
Q

In a critically-ill patient, you see a VARIABLE serum TSH (low/high/normal), LOW (poor prognosis) or LOW-NORMAL free T4, LOW free T3, HIGH reverse free T3 “rT3”?

A

EUTHYROID SICK SYNDROME (DO NOT TREAT THYROID)

360
Q

When patients with CRITICAL ILLNESS and EUTHYROID SICK SYNDROME (VARIABLE serum TSH (low/high/normal), LOW (poor prognosis) or LOW-NORMAL free T4, LOW free T3, HIGH reverse free T3 “rT3”) RECOVER from their illness, how long does it typically take for their THYROID FUNCTION TESTS to return to previous baseline?

A

APPROXIMATELY 8 WEEKS

361
Q

When a WOMAN with HYPOthyroidism who takes LEVOTHYROXINE gets PREGNANT, what needs to be done with her medication?

A

INCREASE her LEVOTHYROXINE by 50% (because there will be less free T4 and free T3 available as ESTROGEN increases thyroxine-binding-globulin “TBG” which binds (stores) more of the free T4 and free T3 and MAINTAIN her TSH level between 01-2.5 µU/mL

362
Q

Why during the FIRST TRIMESTER can you see LOW-NORMAL or LOW TSH LEVELS which then return to normal by 16 weeks gestation?

A

Because the maternal Human Chorionic Gonadetropin (HCG) cross-reacts (due to a commonly-shared α-subunit) with the TSH-receptors stimulating thyroid hormone production (does NOT cause HYPERthyroidism)

363
Q

If a pregnant woman is found to have a GOITER or OPHTHALMOPATHY, what should be suspected?

A

GRAVES disease (HYPERthyroidism) - REFER TO ENDOCRINOLOGIST and HIGH-RISK OBSTETRICIAN

364
Q

What are THYROID STORM and MYXEDEMA COMA?

A

THYROID EMERGENCIES

365
Q

SEVERE THYROTOXICOSIS (excess of thyroid hormone, mainly free T4 and some free T3 due to ANY cause) occurring with SYMPTOMS of FEVER, TACHYCARDIA with HF, DIARRHEA, n/v, JAUNDICE and AMS, PSYCHOSIS, COMA in a YOUNG WOMAN with GRAVES disease (can also be seen with TOXIC ADENOMA and TOXIC MULTINODULAR GOITER either CAUSED by LONG-STANDING, UNTREATED HYPERthyroidism or precipitated by SURGERY, INFECTION, TRAUMA, CHILDBIRTH, IODINE EXPOSURE (radioactive iodine therapy I-131) or with INGESTION OF SALYCILATES and PSEUDOEPHEDRINE (sudafed) is called what?

A

THYROID STORM - an EMERGENCY!!!

366
Q

How is THYROID STORM (an EMERGENCY) treated?

A

Antithyroid drugs (METHIMAZOLE or PROPYLTHIOURACIL) + IODINE + IV STEROIDS + β-blockers (atenolol) ± lithium

367
Q

SEVERE HYPOthyroidism (HIGH TSH, LOW free T4) seen in OLDER WOMEN who have a H/O HYPOthyroidism (or h/o thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy) with SYMPTOMS of AMS (lethargy, stupor, coma, psychosis) + HYPOthermia (

A

MYXEDEMA COMA - an EMERGENCY!!!

368
Q

How is MYXEDEMA COMA (an EMERGENCY) treated?

A

FIRST, check a RANDOM CORTISOL level (to ensure no concomitant adrenal insufficiency), THEN, give IV BOLUS OF LEVOTHYROXINE + IV STEROIDS (in case of adrenal insuficiency) and then daily IV LEVOTHYROXINE until can be changed to ORAL

369
Q

The THREE (3) ADRENAL CORTICOSTEROIDS are produced by the adrenal cortes and are: CORTISOL (glucoCORTICOID), DHEA/DHEAS (androgens) - (dehydroepiandosterone/dehydroepiandosterone sulfate) BOTH TIGHTLY REGULATED by pituitary secretion of ACTH which is controlled by HYPOTHALAMIC secretion of CRH with secreted CORTISOL providing NEGATIVE (inhibitory) FEEDBACK on BOTH pituitary synthesis of ACTH as well as HYPOTHALAMIC synthesis of CRH. How is the THIRD adrenal corticosteroid ALDOSTERONE controlled?

A

Adrenal ALDOSTERONE (mineraloCORTICOID) is controlled by the RENIN (kidney) - ANGIOTENSIN (LUNG-angiotensin-I/LIVER angiotensin-II) SYSTEM (NOT by the pituitary or hypothalamus)

370
Q

Autoimmune disease causing PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY causes IMPAIRMENT of the secretion of ALL corticosteroids (aldosterone, cortisol and DHEA/DHEAS). What is SECONDARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY caused by?

A

PITUITARY or HYPOTHALAMIC disease/injury, MEDICATIONS, EXOGENOUS STEROIDS, CRANIAL RADIATION, HEAD TRAUMA

371
Q

What is the MOST COMMON cause of ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY?

A

EXOGENOUS use of STEROIDS (PREDNISONE, etc.) which suppress CRH and ACTH secretion resulting in ADRENAL CORTICAL ATROPHY causing the adrenal to be unable to secrete adequate CORTISOL especially in STRESS conditions

372
Q

What type of CLINICAL scenario occurs in ACUTE ADRENAL HEMORRHAGE (Waterhouse- Friedrichsen Syndrome)?

A

ACUTE ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

373
Q

What effect do these medications have on the ADRENAL glands: Etomidate, Ketoconazole, Metyrapone?

A

They suppress the adrenal glands resulting in ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

374
Q

A patient that presents with SALT CRAVING, Postural Dizziness, HYPOtension, Dehydration, HYPOnatremia and HYPERkalemia likely has what?

A

PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY with decreased ALDOSTERONE levels and HIGH RENIN LEVELS

375
Q

A WOMAN that presents with a DECREASED LIBIDO, DECREASED PUBIC/AXILLARY HAIR most likely has what?

A

PRIMARY or CENTRAL ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY with DECREASED ADREAL ANDROGENS (DHEA/DHEAS)

376
Q

A patient that presents with FATIGUE, MALAISE, POOR SENSE of WELL BEING, abdominal pain, HYPERPIGMENTATION (PRIMARY disease ONLY), with HYPOnatremia but NORMAL K⁺ level and HYPOglycemia and ANEMIA/LEUKOPENIA most likely has what?

A

PRIMARY or CENTRAL ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY with DECREASED ADRENAL CORTISOL

377
Q

A PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY which when CHRONIC, presents with HYPERpigmentation and affects ALL adrenal corticosteroids (aldosterone, cortisol and DHEA/DHEAS) thus presenting with HYPERkalemia and HYPOnatremia. When there is an PRORESSION of this disease (unrecognized and untreated) it presents with SIGNIFICANT HYPOtension and VASCULAR COLLAPSE with COMA?

A

ADDISON disease and ADDISONIAN CRISIS

378
Q

What can trigger an ADDISONIAN crisis in a patient with ADDISON disease (primary adrenal insufficiency with HYPERpigmentation, HYPERkalemia, HYPOnatremia)?

A

STRESS (illness, surgery) due to the nature of ADDISON disease which affects the ENTIRE adrenal gland with the loss of BOTH glucocorticoids (CORTISOL) and mineralocorticoids (ALDOSTERONE) - NOT usually seen in SECONDARY adrenal insufficiency due to the preservation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

379
Q

When a LOW serum CORTISOL level does NOT increase after STIMULATION with the ACTH-ANALOGUE COSYNTROPIN what is suggested?

A

Adrenal Insufficiency

380
Q

What is considered a NORMAL CORTISOL LEVEL?

A

NORMAL AM: 7-28 µg/dL
NORMAL PM: 2-18 µg/dL
Stimulated (LOW DOSE): ≥18 µg/dL
Suppressed (overnight, given at 11pm, checked at 8am):

381
Q

What is the expected result of an AM serum CORTISOL level AFTER STIMULATION with COSYNTROPIN (ACTH analogue) in the setting of PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY?

A

Minimal to NO increase (because in PRIMARY adrenal insufficiency, the entire adrenal gland is affected and does not respond to ACTH or its analogues) - BOTH CORTISOL and ALDOSTERONE are LOW, ACTH is HIGH

382
Q

What is the expected result of an AM serum CORTISOL level AFTER STIMULATION with COSYNTROPIN (ACTH analogue) in the setting of CENTRAL (secondary) ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY?

A

Serum CORTISOL will INCREASE in this setting as the NORMAL adrenal gland responds to the ACTH analogue. ALDOSTERONE will be NORMAL and unaffected as there is NO central control of aldosterone.

383
Q

What are the levels of DHEA/DHEAS in EITHER PRIMARY or CENTRAL adrenal insufficiency?

A

LOW in BOTH (but not typically replaced as not essential for survival)

384
Q

What should be done if a CENTRAL cause of ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY is diagnosed?

A

MRI

385
Q

What is the PREFERRED agent to supplement CORTISOL DEFICIENCY in a patient with EITHER PRIMARY or SECONDARY adrenal insufficiency?

A

HYDROCORTISONE (more physiological than prednisone) - however prednisone and dexamethasone are used as they are longer-acting and more convenient for patients

386
Q

If GLUCOCORTICOIDS (hydrocortisone, prednisone, dexamethasone) are UNDERDOSED or OVERDOSED in patients with EITHER PRIMARY or SECONDARY adrenal insufficiency, what can occur?

A

UNDERDOSING: ADDISONIAN CRISIS
OVERDOSING: CUSHING Syndrome

387
Q

What is the PREFERRED agent to supplement the mineralocorticoid ALDOSTERONE in a patient with EITHER PRIMARY adrenal insufficiency?

A

FLODROCORTISONE

388
Q

When should GLUCOCORTICOIDS (hydrocortisone, prednisone, dexamethasone) be INCREASED in patients with EITHER PRIMARY or SECONDARY adrenal insufficiency?

A

During times of STRESS (illness, surgery)

389
Q

FLUDROCORTISONE?

A

Mineralocorticoid used to replace ALDOSTERONE in a patient with PRIMARY ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

390
Q

PROXIMAL muscle WEAKNESS (can’t get up out of chair), ECCHYMOSES, BUFFALO HUMP (supraclavicular fat pads), violaceous STRIAE (stretch marks on chest/abdomen), HYPOkalemia, OSTEOPOROSIS, new-onset HTN and DM are seen in what situation?

A

Cushing SYNDROME - SIGNS and SYMPTOMS caused by EXCESS steroid exposure due to ANY cause [PRIMARY (adrenal adenoma), SECONDARY (exogenous meds OR increased ACTH from pituitary adenoma OR ECTOPIC ACTH-secreting tumor - carcinoid), TERTIARY (excess CRH produced by hypothalamic adenoma)

391
Q
  1. What is Cushing SYNDROME? 2. What is Cushing DISEASE? 3. What is ectopic Cushing SYNDROME 4. What is PRIMARY Cushing SYNDROME?
A
  1. Cushing SYNDROME - SIGNS and SYMPTOMS caused by EXCESS steroid exposure due to ANY cause [PRIMARY (adrenal adenoma), SECONDARY (exogenous meds OR increased ACTH from pituitary adenoma OR ECTOPIC ACTH-secreting tumor - carcinoid), TERTIARY (excess CRH produced by hypothalamic adenoma)
  2. Cushing DISEASE - when Cushing syndrome is caused by a SECONDARY (exogenous meds OR increased ACTH from pituitary adenoma OR ECTOPIC ACTH-secreting tumor - carcinoid) OR TERTIARY (excess CRH produced by hypothalamic adenoma) cause
  3. ectopic Cushing SYNDROME is Cushing syndrome caused by an ectopic focus of ACTH secretion such as by an ectopic (not adrenal, pituitary or hypothalamic) TUMOR such as a CARCINOID tumor or part of a PARANEOPLASTIC syndrome
  4. PRIMARY Cushing SYNDROME is Cushing syndrome that is caused by an ADRENAL adenoma
392
Q

24-HOUR Urine free-CORTISOL (because 90% of cortisol in the serum is BOUND to proteins - corticosteroid binding globulin and albumin) which like free T4 and free T3, is the BIOLOGICALLY active compound (where the BOUND compound acts as STORAGE) or persistently NORMAL/HIGH ACTH levels with DEXAMETHASONE SUPPRESSION testing or LOSS of the NORMAL DIURNAL VARIATION in CORTISOL SECRETION with LATE-NIGHT SALIVARY CORTISOL measurement (HIGH in AM, LOW in PM) are diagnostic tests for what?

A

CUSHING SYNDROME

393
Q

What is the GOLD standard test for DIAGNOSING CUSHING SYNDROME?

A

24-HOUR Urine free-CORTISOL (3x - 4x normal is diagnostic)
IF the increase is NOT this HIGH, one of the other two tests is required for confirmation (dexamethasone suppression test or late-night salivary test)

394
Q

Estrogen therapy, Pregnancy, Meds (Phenytoin, Phenobarbital - and other CYT P-450 inducers, will more rapidly metabolize dexamethasone used in tests) can affect SERUM cortisol tests (total cortisol - bound + free) how?

A

These conditions INCREASE corticosteroid-binding globulin levels (cortisol-binding proteins) in the serum, binding MORE of the available and bioactive “FREE cortisol” levels thus in a NORMAL patient (normal adrenal/pituitary/hypothalamic axis), revving UP production of cortisol so that more of the available FREE cortisol exists in the serum, thus creating the FALSE impression that the total serum cortisol level measured (measures total + free cortisol) is HIGH where that is NOT the case as the AMOUNT of free CORTISOL, the BIOLOGICALLY ACTIVE HORMONE is in FACT LOWER (since more of it became bound to increased binding proteins)

395
Q

Critical Illness and HYPOproteinemia states can affect SERUM cortisol tests (total cortisol - bound + free) how?

A

These conditions DECREASE the corticosteroid-binding globulin levels (cortisol-binding proteins) in the serum, binding LESS of the available and bioactive “FREE cortisol” levels thus in a NORMAL patient (normal adrenal/pituitary/hypothalamic axis), slowing DOWN production of cortisol because more of the FREE cortisol now exists in the serum (due to less proteins available to bind it), thus creating the FALSE impression that the total serum cortisol level measured (measures total + free cortisol) is LOW where that is NOT the case as the AMOUNT of free CORTISOL, the BIOLOGICALLY ACTIVE HORMONE is in FACT HIGHER (since more of it became UN-bound due to the decreased circulating binding proteins )

396
Q

Besides measuring the CORTISOL level in diagnosing the cause of Cushing SYNDROME, what else should be SIMULTANEOUSLY measured as it will provide guidance in pursuing the etiology?

A

Serum ACTH level (will differentiate between primary - adrenal adenoma/carcinoma, secondary - pituitary adenoma, tertiary - hypothalamic and ectopic - ACTH-producing tumor like CARCINOID or a paraneoplastic syndrome)

397
Q

If ACTH is found to be HIGH in a patient with Cushing SYNDROME, what are the possibilities and what should be done NEXT?

A

POSSIBILE causes: pituitary/hypothalamic/ectopic source
NEXT: MRI head (look for PITUITARY/hypothalamic cause), if negative could be a SMALL tumor - CT chest/abdomen, OCTREOTIDE scan (carcinoid) first and if this is negative too, consider B/L inferior petrosal sinus (venous) sampling for small pituitary/hypothalamic tumors not showing up on MRI

398
Q

If ACTH is found to be LOW (suppressed) in a patient with Cushing SYNDROME, what are the possibilities and what should be done NEXT?

A

POSSIBLE: adrenal ADENOMA (small, homogeneous, fatty tumor) vs. adrenal CARCINOMA (larger, irregular, vascular)
NEXT: CT-scan of the ADRENALS - SURGICAL RESECTION of BOTH followed by STEROID replacement

399
Q

What happens after SURGERY for a PITUITARY adenoma that had been the cause of Cushing SYNDROME?

A

Up to a YEAR after surgery, there will be ACTH deficiency which requires STEROID replacement, endogenous ACTH production usually resumes.
If RESIDUAL disease exists, can treat with RADIATION therapy together wit MEDS that inhibit CORTISOL synthesis by the adrenal glands (KETOCONAZOLE, METYRAPONE or MITOTANE)

400
Q

Why do patients with Cushing SYNDROME have symptoms of HTN, HYPOkalemia and HYPERkaluria?

A

Because in the setting of ADRENAL SECRETION (not exogenous) of LARGE QUANTITIES of CORTISOL, the mineralocorticoid (ALDOSTERONE) also INCREASES with expected retention of Na and therefore Water with resulting HYPERvolemia (HTN), K⁺ wasting (HYPOkalemia) and thus HYPERkaluria as well as H¯ wasting with METABOLIC Alkalosis

401
Q

How does the DEXAMETHASONE (steroid) suppression test work to assess ADRENAL gland FUNCTION in diagnosing Cushing SYNDROME?

A

LOW DOSE - suppresses CORTISOL in a NORMAL patient with no pathology in ENDOGENOUS cortisol production (normal adrenals, pituitary, hypothalamus and NO ectopic ACTH source) - suggesting EXOGENOUS etiology
HIGH DOSE - NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION of PITUITARY and HYPOTHALAMUS ACTH production but has NO effect on ECTOPIC ACTH or ADRENAL TUMORS

402
Q

What should be done for ANY incidental adrenal tumor found on imaging “ADRENAL INCIDENTALOMA”?

A

THOROUGH assessment for signs of CANCER and HORMONE HYPERsecretion (catecholamines, cortisol, aldosterone) even without overt symptoms
If 70 yo and >6 cm

403
Q

What is the likely cause of B/L incidentally-discovered adrenal tumors found on IMAGING?

A

B/L ADRENAL HYPERplasia vs METASTATIC CANCER

404
Q

Of all the INCIDENTALLY-found ADRENAL TUMORS on IMAGING studies, which is the ONE tumor, after properly diagnosed, that does NOT REQUIRE SURGICAL RESECTION as it responds favorably to MEDICAL THERAPY?

A

Adrenal ALDOSTERONE-secreting ADENOMA (not cancer) - treated with aldosterone-receptor blocking agents SPIRONOLACTONE (can cause GYNECOMASTIA, decreased LIBIDO, IMPOTENCE, MENSTRUAL irregularities) or EPLERENONE - BOTH are CONTRAINDICATED in PREGNANCY

405
Q

How should INCIDENTALLY-found ADRENAL TUMORS on IMAGING studies be MANAGED if demonstrated to be NON-FUNCTIONAL, NOT MALIGNANT and

A

Monitoring with a SINGLE FOLLOW-UP CT-scan ONCE 6-12 MONTHS after initial finding. If there are ANY changes on imaging or clinical symptoms, evaluate biochemically AGAIN

406
Q

A patient that presents with CYCLIC or drug-resistant HTN (norepi) - episodic or sustained - at a young age (

A

PHEOCHROMYCYTOMA (MEN-2, neurofibromatosis, Von-Hippel-Lindau)

407
Q

HOW should you NEVER treat a PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA?

A

NEVER treat with β-blockers ALONE as this WORSEN the HTN, always START with α-blockers, and THEN add the β-blockers (same treatment pre-surgery) - can use LABETALOL (combination α & β blocker) and nitroprusside if HTN occurs DURING SURGERY

408
Q

An ELEVATION of METANEPHRINES of >2x normal in the PLASMA or in a 24-HOUR Urine EXCRETION (after all potentially-interfering medications have been STOPPED for 2 weeks) is DIAGNOSTIC of what?

A

PHEOCHROMYCYTOMA (MEN-2, neurofibromatosis, Von-Hippel-Lindau)

409
Q

If suspicion is HIGH for a PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA but CT/MRI imaging is non-revealing, what else can be done DIAGNOSTICALLY?

A

A radio-labeled medication, METAIODOBENZYLGUANIDINE (MIBG) is used for SCINTIGRAPHIC localization of the primary tumor and its potential metastases

410
Q

Autonomous ALDOSTERONE production by the ADRENAL gland independent of the RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN system with expected symptoms due to the retention of Na and therefore Water with resulting HYPERvolemia (HTN), K⁺ wasting (HYPOkalemia) and thus HYPERkaluria as well as H¯ wasting with METABOLIC Alkalosis is called what?

A

PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism - ADDISON disease (hyperpigmentation) - caused by ADRENAL ADENOMA or ADRENAL HYPERplasia (unilateral or B/L)

411
Q

Adrenal neoplasm on imaging + medically-resistant HTN WITHOUR HYPOkalemia?

A

Likely PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA (MEN-2, neurofibromatosis, Von-Hippel-Lindau)

412
Q

Adrenal neoplasm on imaging + medically-resistant HTN WITH HYPOkalemia?

A

Likely PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism

413
Q

What is the TYPICALLY-INCREASED mid-morning PLASMA ALDOSTERONE level of a patient with PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism in the setting of VERY LOW/UNDETECTABLE PLASMA RENIN?

A

> 15 ng/dL (or pALDOSTERONE:pRENIN >20) are diagnostic
Using the RATIO test is BEST especially in patients taking ACE-I’s/ARB’s or direct renin inhibitors
NEITHER test can be done in a patient taking aldosterone-receptor antagonists (SPIRONOLACTONE or EPLERENONE)

414
Q

What happens to the serum ALDOSTERONE when you give a patient with PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism a Na-challenge (high sodium load)?

A

It REMAINS elevated (>10 ng/dL) and is NOT SUPPRESSED because of the autonomous ALDOSTERONE production by the ADRENAL gland independent of the RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN system (in a normal person, the plasma aldosterone would decrease to

415
Q

What MUST be done BEFORE testing, if the decision to test a patient with suspected PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism with a SODIUM-CHALLENGE (after 2 positive pALDOSTERONE:pRENIN ratios in the presence of an elevated pALDOSTERONE level)?

A

K⁺-supplementation, because giving a SODIUM load will EXACERBATE the HYPOkalemia

416
Q

What is the PREFERRED treatment of PRIMARY HYPERaldosteronism when the etiology is B/L ADRENAL HYPERplasia and not a single, distinct ADENOMA or NODULE?

A

Treatment with aldosterone-receptor blocking agents SPIRONOLACTONE (can cause GYNECOMASTIA, decreased LIBIDO, IMPOTENCE, MENSTRUAL irregularities) or EPLERENONE
BOTH are CONTRAINDICATED in PREGNANCY

417
Q

In describing a NEOPLASM with CT features of HIGH ATTENUATION (high HOUNDSFELD units - intensity) and DELAY in CONTRAST MEDIUM WASHOUT are suggestive of what?

A

MALIGNANCY

418
Q

What CYTOTOXIC drug is PREFERENTIALLY used as ADJUVANT therapy AFTER SURGICAL resection of a ADRENAL MALIGNANCY?

A

MITOTANE (like metyrapone and ketoconazole, this med acts to suppress adrenal function)

419
Q

What TESTICULAR cells produce TESTOSTERONE in response to LH secretion by the PITUITARY gland after it has been stimulated by GnRH secreted by the HYPOTHALAMUS?

A

LEYDIG cells (“ladies!”) - located in the interstitial space, OUTSIDE the seminiferous tubules

420
Q

What TESTICULAR cells produce SPERM in response to FSH secretion by the PITUITARY gland AND availability of produced TESTOSTERONE by the LEYDIG cells (stimulated by LH do do so) after it has been stimulated by GnRH secreted by the HYPOTHALAMUS?

A

SERTOLI cells (“Sir!”) - located WITHIN the seminiferous tubules where the sperm are made

421
Q

In what time of day is TESTOSTERONE level the highest in MEN?

A

MORNING (metabolized to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate and estrogen in fat)
AM Testosterone >350 ng/dL is NORMAL
AM Testosterone

422
Q

How much TESTOSTERONE is in the serum?

A
  • free-Testosterone is 2%
  • BOUND-Testosterone is 98% (44% bound TIGHTLY to Sex Hormone-Binding Globulin - SHBG and 54% bound LOOSELY to Albumin - freely dissociates from albumin)
  • THEREFORE, BIOAVAILABLE Testosterone is free-Testosterone + Albumin Bound-Testosterone
  • SHBG INCREASES with age (less available, bioactive testosterone) and DECREASES with OBESITY (more available, bioactive testosterone)
  • THEREFORE, in OLDER or FAT MEN, serum FREE-Testosterone is a BETTER measure of Testostrone
423
Q

A MAN presents with a LOW serum Testosterone level and INCREASED serum LH and FSH, what is suspected?

A

PRIMARY HYPOgonadism (due to testicular failure)

424
Q

What is the MOST COMMON cause of CONGENITAL PRIMARY HYPOgonadism in MEN?

A

KLEINFELTER Syndrome (XXY) - Y is for male sex, X is for female sex (followed by Cryptorchidism and Varicocele)

425
Q

Chemotherapy, Pelvic Radiation, Mumps Orchitis, Testicular Trauma and Testicular Torsion with a LOW serum Testosterone level and INCREASED serum LH and FSH are suggestive of what condition?

A

ACQUIRED PRIMARY HYPOgonadism in MEN

426
Q

A MAN presents with a LOW serum Testosterone level and NORMAL or LOW serum LH and FSH, what is suspected?

A

SECONDARY HYPOgonadism (due to PITUITARY - LH/FSH/HYPOTHALAMIC - GnRH failure)

427
Q

What GONADAL FAILURE in MEN does the CONGENITAL syndrome KALLMANN SYNDROME (±ANOSMIA) cause?

A

CONGENITAL SECONDARY HYPOgonadism (due to PITUITARY - LH/FSH/HYPOTHALAMIC - GnRH failure)

428
Q

A MAN presents with HYPERprolactinemia, NON-FUNCTIONING pituitary adenomas causing HYPOpituitarism, CHRONIC OPIOID use, CORTICOSTEROIDS and INFILTRATIVE diseases [HEMOCHROMATOSIS, LANGERHAN’s Cell Histiocytosis (a lymphoproliferative disease where abnormal “Langerhan cells” proliferate from bone marrow and also affect SKIN with face/chest/abd rash and LYMPH NODES), TB, SARCOIDOSIS] with a LOW serum Testosterone level and NORMAL or LOW serum LH and FSH. What is the cause?

A

ACQUIRED SECONDARY HYPOgonadism (due to PITUITARY - LH/FSH/HYPOTHALAMIC - GnRH failure)

429
Q

What FOUR (4) SEX HORMONES act to provide NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION of the PITUITARY-secreted LH & FHS as well as the HYPOTHALAMIC-secreted GnRH in MEN?

A

TESTOSTERONE, ESTRADIOL (estrogen) - converted by fat in men, DIHYDROTESTOSTERONE - converted by the prostate AND INHIBIN-B (produced by testicular sertoli cells)

430
Q

GYNECOMASTIA, DECREASED TESTICULAR SIZE, ABSENCE of MORNING ERECTIONS, low libido, erectile dysfunction, fatigue, decreased strength are suggestive of what condition in MEN?

A

HYPOgonadism

431
Q

What should be done NEXT, after a MAN had their SERUM AM TESTOSTERONE level checked on TWO (2) occasions, BOTH of which the level was

A
  • Check the SERUM free-Testosterone level and if ALSO LOW, patient is DIAGNOSED with HYPOgonadism
  • NOW serum LH & FSH should be measured (to determine primary or secondary HYPOgonadism) - IF HIGH (primary - w/o h/o testicular injury, check for Kleinfelter karyotype XXY) an IF LOW or NORMAL (secondary - check for prolactinemia, hemochromatosis - high transferrin/ferritin - and ANY other pituitary deficiencies AND do an MRI, especially if testosterone
432
Q

Increased Hct >54%, Worsened OSA, BPH >1.4 in one year or >0.4 in 6 months, Dyslipidemia, Increased Risk of Prostate Cancer and Cardiovascular events are all possible adverse effects of what SUPPLEMENTATION in MEN?

A

Testosterone Replacement Therapy for HYPOgonadism

433
Q

What is the most preferred TESTOSTERONE replacement PREPARATION for MEN diagnosed with HYPOgonadism?

A

GEL (hydroalcoholic) - all testosterone replacement types require follow-up with testosterone level testing and evaluation for potential development of adverse effects (increased Hct >54%, worsened OSA, BPH >1.4 in one year or >0.4 in 6 months, dyslipidemia, increased RISK of prostate cancer and cardiovascular events)

434
Q

Excessive MUSCLE BULK, ACNE, GYNECOMASTIA, and DECREASED TESTICULAR VOLUME with LOW SPERM counts, HYPOgonadism, INFERTILITY, LOW HDL, HIGH LFT’s and PSYCHOSIS are seen with what?

A

ANDROGEN ABUSE (injectable/oral testosterone, HCG, DHEA, aromatase inhibitors and androstenedione supplements)

435
Q

What is the SINGLE, BEST test for INFERTILITY in MEN?

A

SEMEN analysis (for sperm count) after abstaining from sex for 48-72 HOURS - if abnormal, repeat once more

436
Q

Spironolactone, Cimetidine, Liver/Kidney disease, Male HYPOgonadism, Testicular Cancer, HYPERthyroidism, Adrenal Tumors, HCG-secreting Tumors and Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome can all result in this manifestation in MEN?

A

GYNECOMASTIA (physiologic during neonatal and adolescent periods only)

437
Q

What differentiates MALE GYNECOMASTIA on physical exam from conditions such as LIPOMASTIA (accumulation of FAT in the breast)?

A

Detection of SUB-AREOLAR GLANDULAR tissue

438
Q

What should be done when work-up for the evaluation of GYNECOMASTIA reveals an elevated serum HCG in a MAN?

A

Testicular US FIRST (if estradiol was also elevated), if NEG for mass - CHEST/ABD CT to detect possible malignancy, if NEG, do adrenal CT/MRI for possible adrenal malignancy and if NEG - likely peripheral aromatase activity if obese. IF after all of this is done and STILL NEG, if BOTH LH and Testosterone are elevated - androgen insensitivity syndrome

439
Q

What happens PHYSIOLOGICALLY to the FHS level in the EARLY FOLLICULAR PHASE of the MENSTRUAL CYCLE (MENSTRUAL BLEEDING DAY 1)?

A

FSH INCREASES slightly (causing recruitment of ovarian follicles - the saccular structures within the ovary that contain the EGG) and an INCREASE of ESTRADIOL (stimulating endometrial proliferation), inducing LH-receptors in the OVARIES, which in turn causes an INCREASE of LH (surge) causing OVULATION and the LUTEAL PHASE due to the POSITIVE FEEDBACK ACTIVATION by ESTRADIOL of the PITUITARY gland. LH also stimulates ANDROGEN production (by the THECA cells that line the FOLLICLES) which is aromatized to ESTROGEN (inside the inner GRANULOSA cells of the FOLLICLE by FSH). After the LH surge (and thus OVULATION - the expulsion of the EGG from the now mature FOLLICLE) the empty FOLLICLE which now becomes the CORPUS LUTEUM, secretes BOTH ESTRADIOL and PROGESTERONE. If NO CONCEPTION (fusion of a sperm with the EGG) occurs, as the CORPUS LUTEUM begins to INVOLUTE (atrophy and disappear), the DECLINING PROGESTERONE LEVELS lead to MENSTRUAL BLEEDING and the cycle begins again. If pregnancy DOES occur, the HCG produced by the CONCEPTUS (fusion of the SPERM and EGG) ARRESTS the INVOLUTION of the CORPUS LUTEUM which continues to secrete PROGESTERONE as does the developing PLACENTA and thus NO BLEEDING OCCURS

440
Q

What is suggested by menstrual cycles that are either 35 DAYS?

A

They are ANOVULATORY (no ovulation took place)

441
Q

A lack of MENSES by age 16 is called what?

A

PRIMARY AMENORRHEA (NORMAL body hair and BREAST development)

442
Q

What MUST be RULED OUT in ALL patients presenting with PRIMARY or SECONDARY AMENORRHEA?

A

PREGNANCY (if this is NEG, 50% will have a CHROMOSOMAL abnormality - gonadal dysgenesis “defective development of the gonads” and 15% will have an anatomic abnormality - uterus, vagina or cervix)

443
Q

What is one of the most COMMON causes of PRIMARY AMENORRHEA?

A

TURNER SYNDROME (45,X) - (PRIMARY OVARIAN INSUFFICIENCY) - short stature, webbed neck, low set ears and low hairline on back of neck, no breasts

444
Q

What is the MOST COMMON cause of SECONDARY AMENORRHEA?

A

PREGNANCY

445
Q

In a PREVIOUSLY MENSTRUATING WOMAN, the ABSENCE of a MENSTRUAL CYCLE for THREE (3) CYCLES or for 6 MONTHS is known as what?

A

SECONDARY AMENORRHEA

446
Q

UTERINE or OUTFLOW TRACT disorders (Asherman - endometrial scarring usually due to REPEATED D&C’s) are examples of what kind of AMENORRHEA?

A

SECONDARY AMENORRHEA

447
Q

SECONDARY AMENORRHEA with the PRESENCE of ovulatory or premenstrual SYMPTOMS is commonly due to what disorders?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Hypothalamic disorders, HYPERprolactinemia (direct GnRH inhibition by prolactin), HYPERthyroidism (due to weight loss), HYPOthyroidism (due to INCREASED hypothalamic TRH secretion which also stimulates prolactin secretion which inhibits GnRH) and Primary Ovarian Insufficiency

448
Q

LOW body WEIGHT/FAT, RAPID and SIGNIFICANT WEIGHT LOSS, Eating Disorders, Excessive Exercise, Severe Emotional Stress and Malnutrition with INAPPROPRIATELY LOW or NORMAL LH & FSH with LOW ESTROGEN, but FSH > LH are causes of what AMENORRHEA?

A

SECONDARY AMENORRHEA due to FUNCTIONAL HYPOTHALAMIC AMENORRHEA

449
Q

When AMENORRHEA occurs BEFORE age 40 in the SETTING of TWO (2) ELEVATED FSH levels, what is the disorder called?

A

Primary OVARIAN Insufficiency

450
Q

What are causes of SECONDARY OVARIAN INSUFFICIENCY?

A

Turner Syndrome (45,X), Fragile X Carrier, Autoimmune Disease and CHEMO/RADIATION therapy

451
Q

What TEST should be done for ALL women with PRIMARY AMENORRHEA?

A

PELVIC US

452
Q

What TEST should be done for ALL women with SECONDARY AMENORRHEA when primary ovarian insufficiency is EXCLUDED?

A

Pituitary MRI

453
Q

In a patient with AMENORRHEA when LAB results for thyroid disease, prolactin, LH, FSH and imaging are NORMAL what should be evaluated next?

A

Assess for ESTROGEN DEFICIENCY (Progesterone challenge test - if bleeding occurs within a WEEK of taking progesterone, she is making enough estrogen and perhaps has PCOS, if NO BLEEDING occurs, she is NOT making enough estrogen likely due to HYPOTHALAMIC causes - do a pituitary MRI)

454
Q

Hirsutism in women is generally due to what?

A

The presence of EITHER an OVARIAN or ADRENAL tumor causing “virilization”

455
Q

What should be TESTED for when a woman presents with symptoms of virilization (hirsutism, deepening voice, clitoromegaly, decrease in breast size)?

A

DHEAS, TSH, Prolactin, Total Testosterone and 17-hydroxyprogesterone

456
Q

What should be measured if a woman with symptoms of VIRILIZATION is suspected to have Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?

A

HIGH levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (due to deficiency of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme)

457
Q
  1. What should be done if serum total testosterone levels in a WOMAN with symptoms of VIRILIZATION are found to be >200 ng/dL? 2. What if the DHEAS >700 ng/dL?
A
  1. Pelvic US and Adrenal CT to exclude tumors

2. Adrenal CT to exclude a medullary tumor (one that secretes androgens OR cortisol)

458
Q

Oligovulation or Anovulation, Clinical/Biochemical evidence of HYPERandrogenism and Polycystic Ovarian morphology on US when other endocrine disorders are excluded?

A

Criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (2 of the 3 are needed)

459
Q

Menstrual irregularity (oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea) and Ovulatory dysfunction with resulting infertility, insulin resistance, metabolic syndrome, obesity, impaired glucose tolerance, DM-2 and HYPERandrogenism are symptoms seen with this condition?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

460
Q

What are symptoms of anovulation?

A

Irregularities with the menstrual cycle (oligomenorrhea, light bleeding, irregular bleeding, prolonged or shortened cycles)

461
Q

What feature of PCOS plays a very important role in androgen levels and ovulatory rates that responds well to treatment with METFORMIN?

A

INSULIN RESISTANCE

462
Q

How is PCOS treated?

A

Weight Loss & Exercise, COMBINED Oral Contraceptive Pills (to treat Menstrual Irregularities and HYPERandrogenism) + Spironolactone (if persistent hirsutism and acne after 6 months) and METFORMIN for INSULIN RESISTANCE (with acanthosis nigricans) and if INFERILITY is present, CLOMIPHENE is added (estrogen agonist)

463
Q

If a woman is 35 yo) is considered what?

A

INFERTILITY (can be caused by even MILD thyroid or prolactin irregularities) - check male sperm count and ovulatory function by checking the progesterone level mid-luteal phase (highest level)

464
Q

What should you do if a woman presents with INFERTILITY and her prolactin level as well as thyroid functions are normal?

A

REFERRAL to REPRODUCTIVE ENDOCRINOLOGIST

465
Q

What is the normal RANGE of serum CALCIUM and how much of it is protein-bound?

A

Normal serum Ca 9.0-10.5 mg/dL

60% is BOUND to plasma proteins or complexed with ANIONS, the rest is FREE and controls physiologic actions

466
Q

Where is Ca absorbed, Eliminated and Stored? [all processes that are REGULATED by parathyroid hormone (PTH) released by the parathyroid glands which monitor the free (ionized) plasma levels of Ca, AND by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (made when skin exposed to UV triggers conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to Vitamin D3 - “cholecalciferol” or ingested in the diet in this form or as ergocalciferol “Vitamin D2”; in the liver, Vitamins D2 & D3 are hydroxylated to 25-hydroxyvitamin D - the storage form of vitamin D, and in the kidney, due to the PTH-DEPENDENT availability of the 1α-hydroxylase enzyme, this is hydroxylated to its ACTIVE form, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D)]

A

Absorbed: intestine (by
Eliminated: kidney
Stored: bone

467
Q

How do the parathyroid glands control Ca levels?

A

The PARATHYROID glands have a cell membrane Calcium-Sensing Receptor (CSR) that monitors the PLASMA free (IONIZED) Ca levels. As circulating levels of plasma free (IONIZED) Cal levels INCREASE, the Calcium-Sensing Receptor (CSR) causes PTH secretion to DECREASE and when plasma free (IONIZED) levels are LOW, the Calcium-Sensing Receptor (CSR) causes PTH secretion to INCREASE

468
Q

What are the actions of the Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)?

A

PTH acts on:

  1. Activating BONE RESORPTION (breakdown of bone by osteoclasts, essentially mining the stored Ca)
  2. Induces DISTAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE reabsorption of Ca
  3. Stimulates KIDNEY production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, the ACTIVE form of vitamin D which acts on the SMALL INTESTINE enterocytes to INCREASE ABSORBTION of Ca
469
Q

FATIGUE, AMS, CONSTIPATION, POLYURIA, POLYDIPSIA, depression, anorexia, nausea, abdominal pain, muscle weakness and dehydration are seen with this electrolyte abnormality?

A

HYPERcalcemia (>12 mg/dL) - when serum Ca >14 mg/dL symptoms of LETHARGY, DISORIENTATION and COMA can occur

470
Q

In what FAMILIAL setting is PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (low serum phos) seen?

A

MEN-1 and MEN-2

471
Q

What are the COMMON causes of HYPERcalcemia?

A

-MALIGNANCY DIRECT: (Multiple Myeloma, Breast Cancer, Lymphoma)
-MALIGNANCY INDIRECT: PTH-related protein (squamous cell carcinoma, breast/ovary adenocarcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, transitional cell carcinoma, T-cell lymphoma)
-Granulomatous Disease: SARCOIDOSIS, TB
OTHER: HYPERthyroidism, Adrenal Insufficiency, Thiazides

472
Q

When a patient presents with HIGH serum Ca, what must FIRST be EXCLUDED?

A

FACTITIOUS HYPERcalcemia - INCREASED levels of the PLASMA proteins that BIND Ca (HIV, chronic HEPATITIS, Multiple Myeloma) - as the free (IONIZED) Ca⁺² remains normal

473
Q

Once INCREASED levels of Ca-BINDING plasma proteins (sen in HIV, chronic Hepatitis and Multiple Myeloma) are EXCLUDED and HYPERcalcemia is CONFIRMED, what must be tested NEXT?

A

Serum PTH levels and EITHER serum free (IONIZED) Ca⁺² levels or if no increased plasma proteins, the serum total Ca

474
Q

What is the diagnosis of a patient who was found on labs to have a HIGH serum Ca and a HIGH or NORMAL serum PTH?

A

PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (PTH-mediated HYPERcalcemia with a LOW serum PHOS)

475
Q

WHEN is the SERUM PHOSPHORUS level LOW (HYPOphosphatemia) in the setting of HYPERcalcemia?

A

When the cause is PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (PTH-mediated HYPERcalcemia)

476
Q

WHEN is the SERUM PHOSPHORUS level HIGH (HYPERphosphatemia) in the setting of HYPERcalcemia?

A

When the cause is Vitamin D INTOXICATION (hypervitaminosis D)

477
Q

What DRUG can ALTER the Calcium-Sensing Receptor (CSR) of the PARATHYROID glands leading to a MILD HYPERcalcemia and MILDLY ELEVATED PTH levels that MIMIC PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS) BUT REQUIRES NO INTERVENTION?

A

LITHIUM

478
Q

What is the MOST COMMON cause of HYPERcalcemia?

A

PRIMARY HYPERcalcemia (PTH-mediated HYPERcalcemia) usually due to a PARATHYROID ADENOMA (the other causes are parathyroid hyperplasia and parathyroid cancer)

479
Q

What is the PRESENTATION of SYMPTOMS in HYPERcalcemia dependent on?

A

The SEVERITY (how HIGH is the serum Ca level) and the CHRONICITY (how QUICKLY did the levels rise from normal

480
Q

Nephrolithiasis, Nephrocalcinosis, Fragility Fractures and Bone Pain are what types of symptoms of HYPERcalcemia?

A

Chronic HYPERcalcemia symptoms

481
Q

What is the ONLY effective treatment for PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS)?

A

Surgery

482
Q

What are dietary and supplemental recommendations regarding Ca and Vitamin D in patients with PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS)?

A

DO NOT RESTRICT dietary Ca nor Vit D supplementation as doing so will WORSEN bone loss and further elevate serum PTH

483
Q

How is BONE loss treated in patients with PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS)?

A

BISPHOSPHONATES

484
Q

How is HYPERcalcemia treated in patients with PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS) who CANNOT have surgery or in whom the adenoma cannot be localized?

A

CINACALCET - a calcimimetic

485
Q

An ASYMPTOMATIC patient with a FAMILY H/O HYPERcalcemia p/w CHRONIC, MILDLY elevated serum Ca levels and NORMAL or HIGH serum PTH levels with LOW Urine Ca. What is the condition and RECOMMENDATION?

A

FAMILIAL HYPOcalciuric HYPERcalcemia (CASR gene mutation), NO TREATMENT NEEDED

486
Q

Why is it IMPORTANT to determine whether a patient with PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS) has a FAMILIAL form of the disease vs an isolated entity?

A

BECAUSE in FAMILIAL forms (MEN-1 and MEN-2), where there is a FAMILY H/O (Pituitary adenoma, PARATHYROID hyperplasia, Pancreatic tumors - 1); or (Medullary thyroid cancer, Pheochromocytoma, PARATHYROID hyperplasia -2a) ALL FOUR (4) parathyroid glands may be affected by the hyperplasia REQUIRING evaluation of ALL FOUR (4) glands during surgery

487
Q

When a patient with PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (with a LOW serum PHOS) presents for evaluation and surgery and has a FAMILY H/O MEN-2, what MUST be done BEFORE and DURING surgery?

A

BEFORE: evaluate for a possible PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
DURING: evaluate ALL FOUR (4) parathyroid glands for HYPERplasia and CHECK for a possible MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER

488
Q
  1. A patient presents with HYPERcalcemia with an appropriately LOW or SUPPRESSED PTH level, what is the most COMMON cause of the HYPERcalcemia in this presentation? 2. What are others?
A
  1. CANCER (Multiple Myeloma, Breast Cancer, Lymphoma)

2. If NO cancer is found, CHECK for Vitamin D INTOXICATION or 1,25-duhydroxyvitamin D production by SARCOIDOSIS or TB

489
Q

What is the recommendation for a patient 1 mg/dL over norma, (ie 11.5 mg/dL) a Cr-Clearace

A

SURGERY for parathyroidectomy

490
Q

MODERATE/SEVERE HYPERcalcemia with LOW serum PTH (suppressed) with evidence of SIGNIFICANT dehydration and generalized debility is likely due to?

A

CANCER (Multiple Myeloma, Breast Cancer, Lymphoma)

491
Q

What CANCER interferes with production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D resulting in HYPERcalcemia?

A

B-cell LYMPHOMA

492
Q

What MECHANISM do SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMAS as well as breast and renal cell carcinomas have in COMMON that cause HYPERcalcemia?

A

PTH-related PROTEIN “PTHrP” which acts in the SAME way as PTH causing HYPERcalcemia by BONE resorption and DECREASING Ca EXCRETION by the kidneys with INCREASED EXCRETION of PHOSPHATE resulting in serum HYPERcalcemia, HYPOphospatemia with a LOW serum PTH (suppressed) but when measured, a HIGH PTHrP

493
Q

How is ACUTE, SEVERE HYPERcalcemia treated?

A
  1. Aggressive IVF’s (NS) HYDRATION + DIURETICS
  2. IV Bisphosphonates (ZOLENDRONATE/Pamidronate) to stop osteoclast activity on bone resorption (causes osteoclast apoptosis)
  3. SQ CALCITONIN injection
  4. Hemodialysis
  5. If caused by Vitamin D intoxication, give STEROIDS
494
Q

How do you treat HYPERcalcemia due to Vitamin D INTOXICATION or due to granulomatous disease (SARCOIDOSIS and TB)?

A

STOP INTESTINAL ABSORPTION with STEROIDS (prednisone)

495
Q

When HYPOcalcemia is noted, what should ALSO be measured because the LOW level of this compound can give a FALSE impression of HYPOcalcemia?

A
Serum ALBUMIN (binds free Ca in the serum)
For EACH 1 g/dL the serum Alb is
496
Q

At what level of HYPOcalcemia in the setting of NORMAL serum ALBUMIN does a patient experience SYMPTOMS such as TETANY (muscle spasms), SEIZURES, BRADYCARDIA with QT-prolongation and ARRHYTHMIAS, TREMORS, CRAMPS and PARESTHESIAS demonstrated by CONTRACTION of IPSILATERAL FACIAL MUSCLES when the FACIAL NERVE is tapped or FOOT SPASM induced by blood pressure cuff

A

Serum Ca

497
Q

Previous HEAD/NECK surgery and IRRADIATION are the most COMMON causes of ACQUIRED?

A

HYPOparathyroidism with resulting HYPOcalcemia

Other causes of HYPOcalcemia without HYPOparathyroidism are pancreatitis, rhabdomyolysis and tumor lysis syndrome

498
Q

HYPOcalcemia in the setting of NORMAL or LOW serum PTH is indicative of what?

A

HYPOparathyroidism

499
Q

What is the most COMMON cause of HYPOcalcemia with HYPOparathyroidism (LOW serum PTH) after thyroid surgery?

A

Iatrogenic INJURY or REMOVAL of the PARATHYROID glands

500
Q

A patient with SEVERE PRIMARY HYPERparathyroidism (HYPERcalcemia and NORMAL or HIGH serum PTH) undergoes SURGERY (parathyroidectomy) and develops MUSCLE SPASMS, SEIZURES, FRACTURES and ARRHYTHMIAS 2-4 days post-op with labs showing HYPOcalcemia, HYPOphosphatemia with DEPOSITION of LARGE quantities of Ca into the unmineralized bone matrix?

A

HUNGRY-BONE SYNDROME

501
Q

What CONGENITAL SYNDROME presents with ABSENCE of the PARATHYROID glands?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome (“Did George have parathyroids?”)

502
Q

What ELECTROLYTE is CRUCIAL to the action of PTH, a deficiency of which will result in BOTH the FAILURE of PTH release and TISSUE RESISTANCE to PTH therefore causing FUNCTIONAL HYPOparathyroidism with HYPOcalcemia. This condition is ESPECIALLY prevalent in ALCOHOLICS (also chronic diarrhea and malabsorption) due to POOR NUTRITION?

A

MAGNESIUM (HYPOmagnesemia) - PTH can be LOW, NORMAL or HIGH

503
Q

When a patient presents with HYPOcalcemia and HYPERphosphatemia and MARKED elevation of PTH and has an INHERITED RESISTANCE to the action of PTH making the situation CHRONIC rather than acute?

A

pseudoHYPERparathyroidism

504
Q

What is another name for Vitamin D deficiency?

A

RICKETS (Type I - vit D dependent AND Type II - vit D resistant)

505
Q

LOW serum Vitamin D, BOWING of the LEGS, HYPOcalcemia, HYPOphosphatemia and HYPERparathyroidism (HIGH serum PTH) is seen in what disease?

A

RICKETS Type I (vitamin D dependent)

506
Q

HIGH or NORMAL serum Vitamin D, BOWING of the LEGS, HYPOcalcemia, HYPOphosphatemia and HYPERparathyroidism (HIGH serum PTH) is seen in what disease?

A

RICKETS Type II (vitamin D resistance - a receptor defect)

507
Q

What should be CHECKED FIRST when evaluating and treating a patient with MARKED HYPOcalcemia?

A

Check MAGNESIUM and Vitamin D

508
Q

How should you TREAT a patient with MARKED HYPOcalcemia?

A

SLOW replacement with IV Ca-GLUCONATE until SYMPTOMS are relieved, then switch to PO (making sure than any existing Mg and Vit D deficiencies are ALSO treated)

509
Q

If a patient has ASYMPTOMATIC HYPOcalcemia (such as in elderly taking PPI’s), how do you treat?

A

Oral Ca + Vitamin D (replenishing their stores first)

510
Q

How long do patients with CHRONIC HYPOparathyroidism (surgical, congenital, medication related, PTH-resistance related, etc.) require Vitamin D supplementation SPECIFICALLY with 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D?

A

Indefinite - because the absence of PTH causes the absence of 1α-hydroxylase in the kidney thus no hydroxylation of the stored vitamin D into the active form. Serum Ca must be maintained in the LOW-normal range to prevent HYPERcalciuria and formation of kidney STONES

511
Q

What are the recommended AMOUNTS of BOTH Ca and Vitamin D3 people should ingest on a DAILY basis?

A

Ca - between 1,000-2,500 mg (1,200-2,000 if >50 yo)

Vitamin D3 - between 600-4,000 units (800-4000 if >50 yo)

512
Q

LOW bone mass with thinning of cortical bone leading do DECREASED bone strength and INCREASED fractures?

A

OSTEOPOROSIS (tested by Bone Mineral Density - reflects bone Ca-content)

513
Q

A T-score of ≥2.5 (means 2.5 Standard Deviations BELOW (-) the “young-adult mean” - 30 yo) in patients >50 yo OR the presence of a VERTEBRAL or HIP FRACTURE sustained with LOW TRAUMA is DIAGNOSTIC for what?

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

514
Q

A T-score of ≥1.1-2.4 (means 2.5 Standard Deviations BELOW (-) the “young-adult mean” - 30 yo) in patients >50 yo is DIAGNOSTIC for what?

A

OSTEOPENIA

515
Q

What BONES are used for measuring the Bone Mineral Density) when diagnosing OSTEOPOROSIS (≥2.5 SD below mean) and OSTEOPENIA (≥1.1-2.4 SD below mean)?

A

PROXIMAL FEMUR and LUMBAR SPINE

516
Q

What TYPE of FRACTURE carries the HIGHEST MORBIDITY and MORTALITY rate of ALL fractures?

A

HIP fracture (from associated complications such as PE and PNA)

517
Q

How is BONE REMODELED, a process that occurs CONTINUOUSLY?

A

Bone-absorbing OSTEOCLASTS (destroyers) STIMULATED by PTH, create “RESORPTION PITS” in the BONE liberating the mined Ca into the BLOOD, a portion of which becomes BOUND to Albumin and the rest exists as the BIOACTIVE free Ca (sensed by the sensor cells of the parathyroid glands which regulate Mg-dependent PTH secretion). The OSTEOBLASTS then FILL-IN these “RESORPTION PITS” with new, RAW bone MATRIX which is then MINERALIZED with HYDROXYAPATITE to become mineralized BONE
With ADVANCING AGE, less and less new BONE is MADE compared to how much is RESORBED resulting in DECLINING BONE MASS and INCREASED RISK of fractures

518
Q

What does the hormone CALCITONIN (produced by the PARAFOLLICULAR cells (C-cells) of the THYROID gland) do?

A

It COUNTERACTS the actions of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and INHIBITS HYPERcalcemia (it reduces blood Ca) by INHIBITION of Ca absorption by the INTESTINE, INHIBITS OSTEOCLASTS and STIMULATES OSTEOBLASTS and INHIBITS KIDNEY REABSORPTION of Ca INCREASING its EXCRETION

519
Q

When does a WOMAN’s GREATEST BONE LOSS occur?

A

In the PERI-MENOPAUSAL and EARLY-MENOPAUSAL periods due to ESTROGEN DEFICIENCY

520
Q

What is the BEST and most accurate test for measuring Bone Mineral Density?

A

Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) which yields T-scores and Z-scores

521
Q

The NUMBER of standard deviations (SD) a patient’s Bone Mineral Density is HIGHER or LOWER than the MEAN reference value of a young, healthy sex-matched 30 yo, is called what on the DEXA test?

A

T-score

522
Q

The NUMBER of standard deviations (SD) a patient’s Bone Mineral Density is HIGHER or LOWER than the MEAN reference value for a person of the SAME AGE and SEX as the PATIENT is called what on the DEXA test?

A

Z-score

523
Q

What score of the DEXA test is used to DIAGNOSE OSTEOPOROSIS and PREDICT a patient’s FRACTURE risk?

A

The T-score (the NUMBER of standard deviations (SD) a patient’s Bone Mineral Density is HIGHER or LOWER than the MEAN reference value of a young, healthy sex-matched 30 yo)

524
Q

What test can be used for patients with conditions that affect their BONE MASS (HYPERparathyroidism) or for MONITORING those receiving OSTEOPOROSIS therapy?

A

DEXA test (t-score/z-score) for osteoporosis and osteopenia

525
Q

Why is therapy for OSTEOPOROSIS so important which is why they should be monitored EVERY 1-2 YEARS for changes in their Bone Mineral Density rather their T-scores?

A

Because although T-scores may improve SLIGHTLY, the patient’s FRACTURE RISK improves by 30-50%

526
Q

Why is it important to measure THYROID function in a patient with SECONDARY HYPERparathyroidism presenting with HYPOcalcemia and HYPERparathyroidism (HIGH PTH)?

A

Because HYPERthyroidism and MEDULLARY THYROID CANCER can cause EXCESS CALCITONIN release with resulting HYPOcalcemia and HYPERparathyroidism

527
Q

A deficiency of what in MEN can cause OSTEOPOROSIS and bone loss?

A

TESTOSTERONE deficiency

528
Q

Carbamazepine, Steroids, Leuprolide, Phenytoin and PPI’s can all INCREASE the risk for this process, especially in PERI-MENOPAUSAL women and patients >50 yo?

A

BONE LOSS and FRACTURES

529
Q

What does it mean when on a DEXA test, a patient’s Z-score is LOW?

A

It means that for other people of the same sex and age, the patient is BELOW the expected rate of bone loss INDICATING that OTHER factors besides AGE are contributing to their BONE LOSS

530
Q

When should SCREENING for OSTEOPOROSIS start in HEALTHY people WITHOUT RISKS?

A

Women ≥65

ALL others with RISK FACTORS

531
Q

A tool used in the DECISION-MAKING for TREATMENT with anti-osteoporotic medications for a patient with OSTEOPENIA (T-score of ≥1.1-2.4) that uses the FEMORAL NECK T-score AND the patient’s MAJOR RISK FACTORS are CALCULATED by the FRAX test to determine what?

A

A patient’s ABSOLUTE FRACTURE RISK over the next 10 YEARS

FRAX - Fracture Risk Assessment

532
Q

BISPHOSPHONATES (alendronate, IV zolendronate, risedronate, ibandronate), ESTROGEN (prevention ONLY)/RALOXIFENE and CALCITONIN are all therapies for what?

A

OSTEOPOROSIS (reduction of fractures of 30-60% over 2-3 years)

533
Q

What OSTEOPOROSIS medications are CONTRAINDICATED in patients CONSIDERING PREGNANCY or those with IMPAIRED KIDNEY FUNCTION, ESOPHAGEAL DISEASE/DYSPHAGIA and in those undergoing DENTAL EXTRACTIONS/JAW SURGERY?

A

BISPHOSPHONATES

534
Q

In patients with SEVERE OSTEOPOROSIS (T-score ≥3.5) with RECURRENT FRACTURES while being treated with OTHER MEDICATIONS, OR for patients on BISPHOSPHONATE therapy for OSTEOPOROSIS that have been treated ≥5 YEARS and are recommended a 2 YEAR “Drug Holliday” what MEDICATION is recommended for treatment and for that Drug Holliday?

A

TERIPARATIDE (PTH analogue) - although CHRONIC elevation in serum PTH results in BONE LOSS, the use of this medication which provides TRANSIENT PTH SPIKES rather than CHRONIC exposure creates a desired ANABOLIC effect - the ONLY ANABOLIC agent AVAILABLE

535
Q

A WOMAN with PRIMARY OSTEOPOROSIS of the SPINE who cannot take ORAL BISPHOSPHONATES and WITHOUT HIP-fracture RISK should be RECOMMENDED what?

A

RALOXIFENE (bone-selective estrogen receptor modulator) - NOT for men

536
Q

A safe and well-tolerated injection and NASAL spray used to prevent VERTEBRAL FRACTURES and treat ESTABLISHED osteoporosis or in patients with KIDNEY dysfunction is?

A

CALCITONIN

537
Q

This medication is ONLY used to treat OSTEOPOROSIS in WOMEN who happen to have this diagnosis and using the medication to treat HOT FLUSHES and Vaginal Dryness?

A

ESTROGEN

538
Q

Why do patients taking TERIPARATIDE (PTH analogue) to treat SEVERE OSTEOPOROSIS (T-score ≥3.5) with RECURRENT FRACTURES that did not respond to other medications ONLY have a 2 YEAR LIMIT for its use and CANNOT use it if they have HYPERparathyroidism, PAGET disease, UNEXPLAINED Alk. Phos elevations, BONE MALIGNANCY or if they had RADIATION therapy?

A

Because of its HIGH RISK for OSTEOSARCOMAS

539
Q

What is RECOMMENDED for ALL MEN >50 and ALL POST-MENOPAUSAL WOMEN with OSTEOPOROSIS or PRIOR VERTEBRAL/HIP FRACTURES or OSTEOPENIA w/PRIOR FRAGILITY FRACTURES or ANY AGE MEN/WOMEN with OSTEOPENIA with a 3% risk for HIP or 20% risk for OTHER FRACTURES?

A

PHARMACOLOGIC TREATMENT (bisphosphonates, etc.)

540
Q

What should be done if a patient receiving THERAPY of OSTEOPOROSIS/OSTEOPENIA is experiencing BONE LOSS?

A

Assess for MEDICATION ADHERENCE or an UNRECOGNIZED CAUSE (CANCER)

541
Q

When the BONE MATRIX is sufficient in QUANTITY (as opposed to osteoporosis) but not in QUALITY (poorly-mineralized), the condition is called what?

A

OSTEOMALACIA (can be confirmed by bone biopsy if needed)

542
Q

When OSTEOMALACIA (poorly mineralized bone matrix - filled with soft material) affects GROWING BONES and creates BONE DEFORMITIES (BOWED LEGS), the condition is called what?

A

RICKETS (Types I &II)
Type I - vitamin D dependent
Type II - vitamin D resistance - a receptor defect

543
Q

Defects in the PROPER MINERALIZATION of BONE due to ANY cause (Ca/Phos/Vit D deficiencies) with resulting PROXIMAL MUSCLE WEAKNESS with DIFFUSE or FOCAL SKELETAL PAIN and PSEUDO-FRACTURES risk with OSTEOPENIA is called?

A

OSTEOMALACIA (can be confirmed by bone biopsy if needed)

544
Q

A patient with HYPOcalcemia, HYPOphosphatemia, LOW Vitamin D (25-hydroxyvitamin D or 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D) with SYMPTOMS of PROXIMAL MUSCLE WEAKNESS with DIFFUSE or FOCAL SKELETAL PAIN and X-rays show OSTEOPENIA with PSEUDO-FRACTURES likely has what?

A

OSTEOMALACIA (can be confirmed by bone biopsy if needed)

545
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED treatment for a patient diagnosed with OSTEOMLACIA due to Malnutrition/Malabsorption once these UNDERLYING conditions have been addressed?

A

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3) + CALCIUM

546
Q

What MUST be measured in order to PROPERLY diagnose Vitamin D DEFICIENCY?

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D (the STORAGE form of Vitamin D)

547
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED treatment for a patient found to be Vitamin D deficient (serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D

A

50,000 Units/WEEK of ERGOCALCIFEROL (Vitamin D2) x 8 WEEKS followed by a confirmation of NORMAL serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D

548
Q

What is considered Vitamin D DEFICIENCY?

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D

549
Q

A FAMILIAL disorder seen in some OLDER patients due to a DYSFUNCTION of OSTEOCLASTS that leads to ACCELERATED and DISORDERED bone remodeling resulting in highly DISORGANIZED and BRITTLE BONES with DEFORMITY, increased BONE VASCULARITY, NERVE IMPINGEMENT syndromes and increased FRACTURE RISK?

A

PAGET disease of bone

550
Q

An ASYMPTOMATIC, OLDER patient with FAMILY H/O bone disease is noted to have an ELEVATED Alk. Phos. as well as X-rays showing an ENLARGED SKULL, BOWING of the LONG BONES of the LEGS, SENSORINEURAL HEARING LOSS with HIGH-OUTPUT HF from multiple vascular shunts in BONE, should be evaluated for what in this undiagnosed disease?

A

Evaluate for OSTEOSARCOMA as he has PAGET disease of bone

551
Q

How are the INVOLVED BONY areas in PAGET disease of bone (ACCELERATED and DISORDERED bone remodeling) located?

A

NUCLEAR BONE SCAN (X-rays should ALSO be done, to exclude metastatic disease)

552
Q

How are SYMPTOMATIC (bone pain, sensorineural hearing loss, spinal nerve root impingement, high-output HF) patients OR those with involvement of the SKULL, WEIGHT-BEARING BONES/JOINTS with PAGET disease of bone treated?

A

2 MONTH course of RISEDRONATE or an INJECTABLE bisphosphonate (ZOLENDRONATE, Pamidronate)

553
Q

What is used to treat a patient with OSTEOPOROSIS or OSTEOPENIA or PAGET disease of bone IF THEY HAVE KIDNEY DYSFUNCTION?

A

CALCITONIN (SQ injection and Intranasal)

554
Q

How is DISEASE ACTIVITY and response to MEDICATIONS assessed in PAGET disease of bone?

A

By serial measurements of serum Alk. Phos., check every 3-6 months and RETREAT as necessary as well as AUDIOMETRY testing when skull is involved