402 - Rules and Procedures in West Low Sector Flashcards

Question

Distance-Based Longitudinal Separation > Same Track Operations

Answer 1

If aircraft on the same track are using DME, GNSS, or both, apply distance‑based longitudinal separation as indicated below. 20 miles > Any speed differential > No conditions 10 miles > Leading aircraft is maintaining 20 knots or more faster > Same altitude, and one of the following applies: * a/c have departed from adjacent locations and have reported over the same reporting point * both are enrout a/c that have reported in relation to a common point * enroute a/c has reported over a reporting point serving a point of departure, and is ahead of a departing a/c 5 miles > Leading a/c is maintaining 40 kts or more faster > Same conditions as 10 miles

Answer 2

If the aircraft are unidentified, specify the separation minimum being applied if less than 10 minutes longitudinal separation will exist between aircraft entering a receiving unit’s area.

Answer 3

For aircraft on crossing tracks, apply time‑based longitudinal separation, calculated from the point that the tracks cross, of either: * 15 minutes * 10 minutes, provided you obtain position reports at least every 40 minutes (Longitudinal Separation, Crossing Tracks) Position Reports You can obtain position reports using: * ADS‑C * CPDLC * VHF/UHF * Observed ATS surveillance position of an identified PPS Position reports can be made with reference to: * NAVAID fixes * VHF NAVAID radials * DME arcs * Bearings from an NDB * Waypoints from RNAV * Full degrees of longitude or latitude from GNSS‑equipped aircraft

Answer 4

If aircraft on crossing tracks are using DME, GNSS, or both, from a common point and the tracks cross at the common point, separate the aircraft by either: * 20 miles (Longitudinal Separation: Crossing Tracks Using DME or GNSS) * 10 miles, if the leading aircraft is maintaining 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft The distance is calculated from a common point over which both a/c are cleared

Answer 5

Separation between aircraft at the same altitude expressed in terms of distance or angular displacement between tracks.

Answer 6

When applying geographical separation, determine the appropriate fix-tolerance area for each aircraft as indicated in Fix-Tolerance Area for Geographical Separation. Consider aircraft geographically separated if the fix-tolerance area for one aircraft does not overlap either of the following: * The fix-tolerance area for another aircraft (Geographical Separation: No Overlap of Another Fix-Tolerance Area) * The protected airspace for another aircraft (Geographical Separation: No Overlap of Protected Airspace) Table: Fix Tolerance for Geographical Sep Source of Position Info > Fix-Tolerance Area * ATS Surveillance > ATS surveillance sep minimum * NAVAIDs > Values are depicted by Aeronautical Information Management, or as directed by unit management * RNAV in RNPC airspace > RNPC separation * RNAV in CMNPS airspace > CMNPS separation * Visual reference to the ground > Use caution to ensure that the aircraft's position is accurately defined. Lateral separation * RNAV > 25 miles for RNP-10 and RNP-4 approved aircraft

Answer 7

Protect airspace either using dimensions determined by Aeronautical Information Management or as directed by unit management. Ensure that the following protected airspaces do not overlap: * Holding areas * Airways (including additional airspace for change of direction for high-level airways) * Off-airway tracks (including additional airspace for change of direction) (Q-routes, T-routes, and L-routes are not airways; they are fixed RNAV routes) * Initial, intermediate, final, missed approach, and departure areas Note: Airway design is predicated on the assumption that a/c will follow the intended track (airway centreline) using the appropriate navigation systems. If the pilot or ATC wants the a/c to follow a different flight pah, then the a/c is no longer considered to be following the airway and an appropriate min IFR altitude - excluding the MEA or MOCA - for the airspace must be considered.

Answer 8

For converging aircraft, ensure that the protected airspaces do not overlap by doing the following: * To determine the holding point or the point to effect a restriction, add a DME/GNSS distance from Restriction to be Added to the track overlap indicated in Track Overlap. * Issue one of the following: ◦ A holding instruction (Protecting Airspaces for Converging Aircraft) ◦ A restriction to establish vertical separation (DME/GNSS Restriction for Converging Aircraft) If alternate instructions are not issued, the restriction point must include additional distance to enable the aircraft to enter a hold without an overlap of protected airspace. Restriction To Be Added: Ground to 12000 > 15 DME/miles 13000 - FL250 > 25 DME/miles FL260 and above > 35 DME/miles

Answer 9

Do not accept responsibility for separating aircraft in Class G airspace.

Answer 10

Issue clearances and instructions with the least possible delay. Unless the pilot requests otherwise, issue clearances and instructions that ensure that an aircraft remains within controlled airspace. This may require detailed instructions, such as the heading or radial to fly, especially during climb or descent.

Answer 11

You may issue clearances into or out of controlled airspace as follows: * Leave or enter controlled airspace > If required for separation, specify the lateral point and altitude at which an a/c is to leave or enter controlled airspace > "(Leave/Enter) controlled airspace [number miles direction of fix] at (altitude)" * Descend out of controlled low-level airspace > Inform the pilot of the min IFR altitude applicable to the airspace [37] > "(A/C ID) cleared to descend out of controlled airspace vicinity of (location) the minimum IFR altitude is (altitude) [report leaving altitude]" * Descend out of controlled airspace > Via an instrument approach procedure > "(A/C ID) cleared out of controlled airspace via (procedure ID) approach" * Leaving controlled high-level airspace [38] > The destination airport underlies controlled high-level airspace and no min IFR altitude is established in the area that would prohibit such a manoeuvre > "(A/C ID) cleared out of (type of airspace)" 37 If visual conditions might not be encountered at the minimum IFR altitude, the pilot is responsible for arranging for protection of an altitude in controlled airspace for up to 30 minutes. This period permits descent to the minimum IFR altitude, and then a climb, if necessary, to the protected altitude 38 If controlled low-level airspace underlies controlled high-level airspace, see the other rows in this table.

Answer 12

ATC may not clear an aircraft to operate below the MEA of an airway, nor below the minimum IFR altitude in other controlled low level airspace. The pilot, however, may operate at the MOCA, and ATC will approve flight at the MOCA at the pilot’s request. If unable to cancel IFR at the MEA, the pilot may advise that he/she intends to descend to the MOCA. By prior arrangement with ATC, the MEA will be protected in the event that the pilot does not encounter visual conditions at the MOCA. Under this arrangement, the MEA will be protected: (a) until the pilot files an arrival report; (b) for 30 min; to allow descent to the MOCA and return to the MEA when communication is restored with ATC; or (c) if ATC does not hear from the pilot under (a) or (b), until the aircraft is estimated to have arrived at the filed alternate plus 30 min.

Answer 13

Include "While in controlled airspace" (for aircraft entering or leaving controlled airspace) "Maintain (altitude) while in controlled airspace" This phraseology does not ensure that a/c will be at the specified altitude at the pointat wihich it enters controlled airspace. If required for separation, you may add a restriction to enter controlled airspace at a specific point or altitude.

Answer 14

When entering flight data – as much as possible – use the standard abbreviations and symbols found in this section and in the following: * ATS Glossary * Local manuals, directives, and accords If not standard abbreviation exists for a word, you may form an abbreviation by dropping the vowels or one of the double consonants.

Answer 15

Add the abbreviation “WICA” (while in controlled airspace) in the altitude field if an aircraft will be entering or leaving controlled airspace. Example: “60 WICA”.

Answer 16

Provide alerting service to: * Aircraft provided with control service * Aircraft enduring unlawful interference[2] * Other aircraft if a flight plan or itinerary has been filed * Any overdue aircraft known to ATC * Marine vessels in distress * Known IFR and CVFR aircraft operating within the ACC’s area of responsibility and known VFR aircraft for which the ACC is responsible

Answer 17

When the pilot of an IFR aircraft closes[1] the IFR flight plan:[2] * If VFR flight is not permitted due to airspace classification or weather conditions: ◦ Inform the pilot. ◦ If appropriate, pass the most recent weather sequence. ◦ Ask the pilot’s intentions. * Acknowledge the closure and inform the pilot that alerting service is terminated. * Inform the appropriate ACC or the agency responsible for alerting service at the destination.[3] 1 A pilot’s decision to close an IFR flight plan or itinerary is not subject to ATC approval. 2 When a pilot cancels or closes an IFR flight plan, the aircraft automatically becomes a VFR flight. 3 This may be done electronically.

Answer 18

If the pilot of an IFR or CVFR aircraft cancels IFR:[1] * If VFR flight is not permitted due to airspace classification or weather conditions: ◦ Inform the pilot. ◦ If appropriate, pass the most recent weather sequence. ◦ Ask intentions. * Acknowledge the cancellation. A pilot’s decision to cancel an IFR flight plan or itinerary, or change to a VFR flight plan or itinerary, is not subject to ATC approval (don not suggest or ask a pilot to cancel IFR) * Ask whether the pilot is closing the IFR flight plan or itinerary, and respond "Roger, are you closing your flight (plan/itinerary)" ◦ Yes > Acknowledge the closure, inform the pilot that the IFR flight plan is closed and alerting service is terminated ◦ No > If the pilot intends to land at an aerodrome with an operating ATS unit, coordinate appropriately ◦ No > If the pilot intends to land at an aerodrome without an operating ATS unit, advise that an arrival report is required after landing 1 By regulation, the phrase CANCELLING IFR does not close the flight plan or itinerary.

Answer 19

All information about an aircraft in an emergency is routed centrally to the ACC, which then disseminates the pertinent data to the appropriate JRCC. Inform the JRCC if an IFR or CVFR aircraft is in one of the emergency phases as described in the Emergency Phases for JRCC Notification. Uncertainty Phase > An IFR flight plan or itinerary has been filed and no arrival report has been received by ACC at either of the following: * If SAR time requested or specified: For flight plan: SAR time1 requested by originator For flight itinerary: SAR time specified in flight itinerary * If no SAR time requested or specified: For flight plan: within 60 minutes after latest ETA or arrival time estimated by the controller, whichever is later For flight itinerary: within 24 hours after latest ETA An IFR flight plan or itinerary is filed and no arrival report can be expected because either * The aerodrome has no communication system. * The system serving the aerodrome is inoperative. Alert Phase > * Communication search fails to reveal any information concerning the aircraft. See Aircraft in Distress or Emergency. * An aircraft cleared to land fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication cannot be re-established with the aircraft.

Answer 20

To conduct a communication search: 1. Contact all communication stations located within or adjacent to the search area that have interphone, facsimile, or radio facilities 2. 2. As appropriate, contact agencies within or adjacent to the search area that have interphone, facsimile, or radio facilities: ◦ Air carriers ◦ Non-scheduled operators ◦ Amateur radio operators ◦ Federal and provincial agencies such as TC, DND, RCMP, Forestry Services, or provincial police 3. As appropriate, contact the following agencies of each major city or town within the search area: ◦ Police ◦ Municipal office ◦ Territorial or Chief telephone operators[2] 2 In carrying out communication searches, use long-distance telephone and facsimile facilities as required.

Answer 21

The ACC initiates a communication search and informs JRCC if any of the following occurs:[1] * No communication has been received from a pilot within 30 minutes of the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier. * An IFR flight plan has been submitted to depart from a location with no operating control tower or FSS/MFAU, and a departure message or other communication is not received within 60 minutes of the proposed or revised departure time indicated in the flight plan. * An IFR or CVFR aircraft enters the uncertainty phase. At the discretion of the ACC, a preliminary search may be conducted before an overdue IFR or CVFR a/c enters the uncertainty phase.

Answer 22

A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.

Answer 23

A predetermined racetrack pattern flown as part of a holding procedure.

Answer 24

The airspace to be protected for holding aircraft in accordance with ATC holding criteria.

Answer 25

Issue a holding clearance using one of the following formats: * Standard > "Cleared to the (fix), hold (direction) on (specified) (radial/course/inbound track)" * Non-standard > "Cleared to the (fix), hold (direction) on (specified) (radial/course/inbound track), left turns" * Detailed > "Cleared to the (fix), hold on (specified) (radial/course/inbound track), between (locations) and a point (number) minutes (direction), (left/right) turns" * DME > "Cleared to the (name) (TACAN/VOR/NDB) (specified) (radial/bearing) (number) DME fix, hold between (number) and (number) DME" * Published hold > "Cleared to the (fix specified in holding pattern), hold (direction) as published" When issuing a holding clearance, issue an expect-approach-clearance time, an expect-further-clearance time, or the time to depart the fix, and revise it as necessary. * "Expect approach clearance at (time)" * "Expect further clearance at (time)" * "(Depart/leave) (fix) at (time)"

Answer 26

The size of the protected airspace for a holding pattern is based on aircraft speed. Unless otherwise noted on the charts or when a shuttle procedure is specified (see RAC 10.9), holding patterns must be entered and flown at or below the airspeeds listed in Table 10.1 below: * At or below 6000' ASL > Max 200 KIAS * Above 6000' up to and including 14000' ASL > Max 230 KIAS * Above 14000' ASL > 265 KIAS Pilots are to advise ATC immediately if airspeeds in excess of those specified above become necessary for any reason, including turbulence, or if they are unable to accomplish any part of the holding procedure. After departing a holding fix, pilots should resume normal speed subject to other requirements, such as speed limitations in the vicinity of controlled airports, specific ATC requests, etc. NOTE: In areas where turbulence is known to exist, holding patterns may be designed for speeds of 280 KIAS.

Answer 27

The pilot is expected to enter a holding pattern according to the aircraft’s heading in relation to the three sectors shown in Figure 10.2, recognizing a zone of flexibility of five degrees on either side of the sector boundaries. (…) Sector 1 procedures (parallel entry) are: a) Upon reaching the fix, turn onto the outbound heading of the holding pattern for the appropriate period of time. b) Turn left to intercept the inbound track or to return directly to the fix. c) On the second arrival over the fix, turn right and follow the holding pattern. Sector 2 procedures (offset entry) are: (a) Upon reaching the fix, turn to a heading that results in a track having an angle of 30˚ or less from the inbound track reciprocal on the holding side. (b) continue for the appropriate period of time, then turn right to intercept the inbound track and follow the holding pattern. Sector 3 procedure (direct entry) is: (a) Upon reaching the fix, turn right and follow the holding pattern. When crossing the fix to enter a holding pattern, the appropriate ATC unit should be advised. ATC may also request that the pilot report “established in the hold.” The pilot is to report “established” when crossing the fix after having completed the entry procedure.

Answer 28

If you are holding an aircraft at a fix that has no established holding area and is not depicted on enroute or IFR terminal charts, as appropriate, you should:[1] * Assign a standard holding pattern, unless a non-standard holding pattern is required. * Hold aircraft on the side of the fix that will be used for the instrument approach procedure. * Hold military jet aircraft, other than a transport aircraft, on the side of the fix opposite to that used for the penetration procedure. 1 Some holding patterns are depicted on enroute and terminal charts. A pilot who reaches a clearance limit for which a holding pattern is depicted is expected to hold as depicted until further clearance is received.

Answer 29

Unless the pilot requests otherwise, issue clearances and instructions that ensure that an aircraft remains within controlled airspace. This may require detailed instructions, such as the heading or radial to fly, especially during climb or descent.[1]

Answer 30

Issue clearance items, as appropriate, in the following order: 1. Prefix/aircraft ID 2. Clearance limit 3. SID 4. Route 5. Altitude 6. Speed 7. Departure, enroute, approach, or holding instructions 8. Special instructions or information, may include an SSR code 9. Traffic information[9]

Answer 31

The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.

Answer 32

The time at which it is expected that an aircraft will be cleared to commence approach for a landing.

Answer 33

The time at which it is expected that further clearance will be issued to an aircraft.

Answer 34

5 minutes or more before an aircraft reaches its clearance limit, issue one of the following:[13][14] * Further clearance * Approach clearance * Holding clearance 13 If a clearance is not received, the aircraft is expected to hold in a published holding pattern or if none exists, a standard pattern on the inbound track to the clearance limit and to request further clearance or an approach clearance. If communication cannot be established with ATC, the aircraft is then to proceed in accordance with communication failure rules and procedures described in the Canada Air Pilot and Section F8 in the Canada Flight Supplement. 14 An arriving aircraft that has filed a STAR is expected to fly this route, as cleared, to the terminal area entry fix (bedpost) or fix associated with the STAR. If no further clearance has been received on reaching that point, the pilot is expected to fly the lateral route of the STAR for the instrument approach serving the runway in use, as specified on the ATIS, maintaining the last assigned altitude. If communication fails in IMC, the pilot is expected to squawk 7600, fly the STAR as published, including the vertical and speed requirements as provided in the procedure, intercept the final approach, fly inbound, and land as soon as the circumstances permit.

Answer 35

If requested by a pilot, or if a pilot indicates that they are unfamiliar with the approach procedure, specify the information in Approach Information, as applicable. * Initial approach altitude * Outbound track * Procedure turn, direction and altitude * Distance within which procedure turn is to be completed * Final approach course * Authorized minimum altitude (either DH or MDA, as applicable) * Missed approach procedure, including turns and heading, as necessary

Answer 36

If adherence to a particular approach procedure is required, and except as indicated in Non-Specific Approach, specify the approach clearance as indicated in the following table: If visual reference to the ground is established before a specified approach procedure is completed, the pilot is expected to continue with the entire procedure, unless they cancel IFR, they obtain clearance for a visual or contact approach, or control is transferred to the tower. * " ...[Via (routing)] cleared "> If adherence to a particular procedure is required [10], include the route to be flown. The routing may include the published name of an arrival procedure. If a route is not issued, the pilot may proceed via either of the following: ◦ The previously cleared route and transition to a fix ◦ Any position along the route of flight directly to a fix, which will permit the a/c to start an IAP * "[[to the] (name) airport]" > In an ATS surveillance environment, you may omit the name of the airport from an approach clearance, provided: ◦ The a/c is identified and monitored until established on final approach ◦ There is no likelihood of misunderstanding [11] * "(procedure ID) approach" > State the procedure identification found at the top left of the CAP, RCAP or GPH 200 approach chart. Use the prefix “RNAV” in radio communications about RNAV (GNSS) or RNAV (RNP) approaches. * "[other information]" > Possible options include: approach with circling, unfamiliar approach, approach restrictions 10 If the pilot is required to adhere to a specific transition or any previously issued procedure, that transition or procedure must be restated in the approach clearance unless it is already specified in the published procedure. 11 Misunderstanding could occur if another aircraft, on your frequency and anticipating approach clearance to a different airport, accepts the approach clearance by mistake.

Answer 37

In Canada, RNAV (GNSS) approach charts may depict up to five sets of minima: (a) LPV; (b) LP; (c) LNAV/VNAV; (d) LNAV; and (e) CIRCLING.

Answer 38

The LP and LNAV minima indicate an NPA, while the LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima refer to APV approaches (RNAV approaches with vertical guidance). However, the actual terms “NPA” and “APV” do not appear on the charts because they are approach categories not related to specific procedure design criteria. In Canada, the depiction of the five sets of minima is similar to the way that an ILS approach may show landing minima for ILS, LOC and CIRCLING.

Answer 39

A manoeuvre initiated by the pilot to align the aircraft with a runway for landing when a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is not possible or is not desirable.

Answer 40

An instrument approach procedure in which only electronic azimuth information is provided. No electronic glide path information is provided and obstacle assessment in the final segment is based on minimum descent altitude.

Answer 41

The altitude above sea level specified in the Canada Air Pilot or the route and approach inventory for a non-precision approach, below which descent must not be made until the required visual reference to continue the approach to land has been established

Answer 42

An instrument approach procedure using azimuth and glide path information provided by an instrument landing system, a microwave landing system, or a precision approach radar, one of three types: * Precision approach CAT I * Precision approach CAT II * Precision approach CAT III

Answer 43

A specified height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach to land has not been established See also: decision altitude Decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation and decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level (MSL).

Answer 44

IAWP – initial approach waypoint IWP – intermediate approach waypoint FAWP - final approach waypoint MAWP - missed approach waypoint MAHWP - missed approach holding waypoint

Answer 45

In practice, pilots can use GNSS for guidance most of the time. If an integrity alert occurs while en route, the pilot can then continue by using conventional aids, diverting if necessary from the direct routing, notifying ATS of any changes to the flight and obtaining a new clearance, as required.

Answer 46

No person shall conduct a take-off in a power-driven aircraft for the purpose of IFR flight unless it is equipped with: (j) sufficient radio navigation equipment to permit the pilot, in the event of the failure at any stage of the flight of any item of that equipment, including any associated flight instrument display, (i) to proceed to the destination aerodrome or proceed to another aerodrome that is suitable for landing, and (ii) where the aircraft is operated in IMC, to complete an instrument approach and, if necessary, conduct a missed approach procedure.

Answer 47

GNSS-based RNAV approaches are designed to take full advantage of GNSS capabilities. A series of waypoints in a “T” or “Y” pattern eliminates the need for a procedure turn. The accuracy of GNSS may result in lower minima and increased capacity at the airport. Because GNSS is not dependent on the location of a ground-based aid, straight-in approaches are possible for most runway ends at an airport.

Answer 48

When the release time is influenced by a specific time or event: * If an aircraft must depart before a specified time or event, do either of the following: ◦ Issue a clearance-cancelled time. ◦ State that the clearance will be cancelled by a specified event. "Clearance cancelled if not airborne before (time/event)" * If an aircraft must depart after a specified time or event, use the phraseology provided in Phraseology for an Aircraft to Depart Subject to a Specified Time or Event.

Answer 49

* Specify a clearance-valid time, or if a clearance-valid time is deemed inappropriate, specify that a clearance validation is required [11] "Clearance valid at (time)" * Specify the event that must occur [12] "Clearance valid when (event)" 11 The term CLEARANCE VALIDATION REQUIRED is not part of the clearance. This internal ATC phraseology permits the airport controller to deliver the clearance before obtaining release approval from the ACC controller. 12 An enabling event may be an aircraft arrival, departure, or other traffic situation that may be observed by or reported to the airport controller.

Answer 50

* In the clearance, state that the a/c is not to depart until a specified time, and, if required, the reason "(IFR clearance) do not depart until (time) [reason]" * In the clearance, state that the a/c is not to depart until after a specified event and, if required the reason. [13] If the time or event cannot be specified, do not issue a clearance until the clearance is valid "(IFR clearance) do not depart until (event) [reason]" 13 The pilot must be able to positively determine that the enabling event has occurred. Consider the following possibilities: – The proposed departure may not be on the same frequency as the conflicting aircraft. – The proposed departure may not be able to positively distinguish the conflicting aircraft from other similar aircraft. – A third party may not be aware of the need to relay information to a proposed departure, unless that need is stated by the controller.

Answer 51

The communication agency, such as the FSS, FIC, CARS, dispatcher (in emergencies), or others to which a clearance is issued is responsible for transmitting the clearance to the aircraft immediately upon receipt, unless an attempt-delivery time has been specified. If a communication agency informs you that a clearance has not been delivered, instruct the agency to do one of the following depending on your situation: * Continue attempting to deliver, and report if undelivered by a specified time. * Attempt to deliver at a specified time. * Cancel the clearance. You will be notified if the clearance is not delivered within 3 minutes after receipt, or the specified attempt‑delivery time.

Answer 52

For flight data entry, you may use the abbreviations and symbols indicated below.[1][2] **A** approach (unspecified) 1 Abbreviations found in the Glossary may also be used in strip marking. 2 Some units have developed local symbols and abbreviations.

Answer 53

For instrument approach procedure identification, you may use the abbreviations below. **CI** converging ILS **D** DME **I** ILS **I2** ILS CAT II **K **contact **LDA** localizer type directional aid **LOC** localizer **N** NDB **O** VOR **P** PAR **R** RNAV(GNSS) **S** straight in **T** TACAN **V** visual Combine abbreviations as necessary.

Answer 54

No person shall operate an aircraft in VFR flight within controlled airspace unless (a) the aircraft is operated with visual reference to the surface; (b) flight visibility is not less than three miles; (c) the distance of the aircraft from cloud is not less than 500 feet vertically and one mile horizontally; and (…) (d) where the aircraft is operated within a control zone, (i) when reported, ground visibility is not less than three miles, and (ii) except when taking off or landing, the distance of the aircraft from the surface is not less than 500 feet.

Answer 55

Refer to table

Answer 56

A visual flight authorized by an ATC unit to operate within a control zone under meteorological conditions that are below visual meteorological conditions

Answer 57

The minimum visibility for VFR and SVFR aircraft in a control zone is indicated in VFR and SVFR Minima for Flight in a Control Zone Fixed wing > VFR min 3 miles > SVFR min 1 mile Helicopter > VFR min 3 miles > SVFR min 1/2 mile Where ground visibility is reported, tower-observed visibility is considered advisory only. When no other visibility report is available and the control tower is not in operation, SVFR operations may be allowed based on a flight visibility report. Reported or tower-observed visibility is applicable to the control zone, whereas flight visibility is applicable only to the aircraft providing it.

Answer 58

(1)Despite paragraph 602.114(b), an aircraft may be operated in special VFR flight within a control zone if (a) weather conditions preclude compliance with paragraph 602.114(b); (b) flight visibility is not less than (i) one mile, where the aircraft is not a helicopter, or (ii) one-half mile, where the aircraft is a helicopter; (c) the aircraft is operated clear of cloud and with visual reference to the surface at all times; and (d) authorization to do so has been requested and obtained from the appropriate air traffic control unit. (2) Where aerodrome traffic permits, an air traffic control unit shall authorize a pilot-in-command to operate an aircraft in special VFR flight within a control zone if (a) the pilot-in-command requests authorization to operate the aircraft in special VFR flight; (b) when reported, ground visibility within the control zone is not less than (i) one mile, where the aircraft is not a helicopter, or (ii) one-half mile, where the aircraft is a helicopter; (c) the aircraft is equipped with radiocommunication equipment capable of maintaining communication with the appropriate air traffic control unit; and (d) the aircraft is not a helicopter and is operated during the night, and the authorization is for the purpose of allowing the aircraft to land at the destination aerodrome.

Answer 59

Authorize SVFR within the control zone, provided: * The pilot requests SVFR. * The ground visibility is at or above the minimum for SVFR. You may use the tower observation of prevailing visibility where ground visibility is either not reported or the visibility reported by the AWOS is non-representative of the prevailing visibility at the airport.[1][2] * You obtain approval from the appropriate ACC. * You make an adequate arrangement for recall. * You keep SVFR aircraft clear of the flight paths of IFR aircraft. * You authorize only the number of aircraft that you can control safely and efficiently. If all aircraft remain in sight of the tower at all times, you may authorize more than one SVFR aircraft in a circuit. * If the pilot intends to depart or transit the zone at night, the SVFR aircraft is a helicopter.

Answer 60

Approve or refuse an airport controller’s request for SVFR on the basis of current or anticipated IFR traffic only. Specify the period during which SVFR flight is approved.

Answer 61

Authorize a pilot’s request for SVFR provided all of the following conditions are met: * The reported ground visibility meets or exceeds SVFR minima. * Current or anticipated IFR traffic permits the operation. * At night, unless the aircraft is a helicopter, the pilot intends to land in the control zone. In a control zone with no airport controller on duty, do one of the following: * Authorize one or more pilots for SVFR. * Authorize SVFR for a specified period. * Refuse authorization and inform the FIC, FSS, MFAU, or the pilot of the reason.

Answer 62

Do not vector or assign an altitude to a SVFR aircraft