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Pharmacology > Exam 3 Section (50% of Questions) > Flashcards

Exam 3 Section (50% of Questions) Flashcards

1
Q

Seizure meds do NOT

A

cure

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2
Q

Epilepsy is seizure activity that is

A

chronic and recurrent

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3
Q

Examples of single-instance seizure

A

febrile seizure; kids, hypoglycemia, alcohol and drug abuse, overdose, withdrawal

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4
Q

With single-instance seizure, we must treat the

A

underlying cause

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5
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures are

A

the most common type of generalized seizure

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6
Q

generalized seizures involve both hemispheres and involve

A

loss of consciouness, bilateral and symmetrical

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7
Q

What does the tonic in tonic-clonic seizure imply?

A

sustained contraction of skeletal muscles—patient can’t even take a deep breath—fear of hypoxia; what causes patient to fall to floor

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8
Q

What does the clonic in tonic-clonic seizure imply?

A

rapid rhythmic jerking motion

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9
Q

Absence seizure—petit mal

A

last only a minute or so—blank stare

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10
Q

Atonic seizure

A

sudden loss of muscle tone

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11
Q

Febrile seizure

A

convulsions brought on by a fever in infants or small children

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12
Q

Partial seizures involve

A

one hemisphere and don’t involve loss of consciousness

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13
Q

Complex partial seizure characteristics

A

smacking lips or pacing back and forth

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14
Q

Antiseizure medications/AEDs prototype

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

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15
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin) is the ___ drug of choice

A

first — is the oldest and most widely used

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16
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin) is used to treat

A

Tonic-Clonic seizures

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17
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin) mechanism of action is

A

Na Channel Blocker

the influx of sodium causes an action potential that causes the neurons to fire

Will raise the seizure threshold—raises the level of stimulation required to initiate a seizure

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18
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin) Contraindications (4)

A
  1. Bradycardia
  2. Heart block
  3. Allergy to med
  4. CNS depression
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19
Q

When is used Phenytoin (Dilantin) used prophylactically?

A

before surgery to reduce chances of post op seizures

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20
Q

Patients can be kept on Phenytoin (Dilantin) for what amount of time?

A

6 months to a year

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21
Q

One of main issues with anti-seizure meds is

A

non-compliance

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22
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is when

A

gums hypergrow can almost cover the teeth especially with kids—must see dentist every 6 months

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23
Q

Phenytoin (Dilantin) can be mixed only with ____, and not with ____

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin) can be mixed only with normal saline not with dextrose

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24
Q

3 Black box warnings for Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A
  1. Category D for pregnancy
  2. Must be given slowly!—if IV push, pull up a chair, have a seat, and do it slowly
  3. Higher risk of suicide
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25
Q

When patients are seizing, you can use both dilantin and benzo, but not in the

A

same syringe

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26
Q

Serious ADE for Phenytoin (Dilantin) - 2

A
  1. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

2. Hepatotoxicity

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27
Q

patients with DM might need ___ if given Dilantin

A

increased diabetes medication

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28
Q

Benzodiazepines prototype

A

Prototype: Diazepam (Valium)

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29
Q

How do benzos work? What are some examples?

A

Enhances GABA

alprazolam (Xanax)
chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
clonazepam (Klonopin)
diazepam (Valium)

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30
Q

Clonazepam (Klonopin) treats ___ seizures

A

absence

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31
Q

Lorazepam (Ativan) is used as a ___ treatment for seizures

A

long-acting

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32
Q

Epilepsy patients are not prescribed benzos for daily use, only to

A

stop seizures like status epilepticus

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33
Q

status epilepticus

A

dangerous condition in which epileptic seizures follow one another without recovery of consciousness between them

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34
Q

Long acting barbiturate prototype

A

Phenobarbital

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35
Q

Main cause of status epilepticus

A

is cold-turkey stopping meds

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36
Q

Nursing care for patients with seizures:

A
  • Ask if have ever had a seizure
  • How long
  • When was last seizure
  • Does anything precipitate it
  • Risk for injury
  • Noncompliance with meds
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37
Q

Nursing interventions for patients with seizures:

A
  • Observe and document
  • Do not restrain the patient
  • Clear other things away
  • Loosen clothing around neck
  • Only use padded tongue blade if patient says I’m seizing
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38
Q

ONLY use padded tongue blade

A

BEFORE the patient starts seizing

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39
Q

most tonic-clonic seizures are over in

A

less than 2-3 min

if they’re not, call the rapid response team (if it gets near 3 minutes)

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40
Q

Main point of patient teaching for patients on anti seizure medications is

A

DON’T STOP THE MEDICATIONS unless you have specific instructions from HCP for how/with

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41
Q

Mr. Grover is a 62-year-old police captain. He is hospitalized for thrombophlebitis of the right leg and a r/o (rule out) pulmonary emboli. He is on Heparin 10,000 units IV drip every 6 hours.

Mr. Grover develops epigastric-burning pain between his meals and his HCP orders:
Tagament 300 mg IV every 6 hours
Amphogel 30 mL PO between meals and HS (bedtime)

What specific assessment will you want to make after he takes the Amphogel?

A

Assess pain levels

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42
Q

Mr. Grover is a 62-year-old police captain. He is hospitalized for thrombophlebitis of the right leg and a r/o (rule out) pulmonary emboli. He is on Heparin 10,000 units IV drip every 6 hours.

Mr. Grover develops epigastric-burning pain between his meals and his HCP orders:
Tagament 300 mg IV every 6 hours
Amphogel 30 mL PO between meals and HS (bedtime)

With regard to the Amphogel, what adverse effect will you assess him for?

A

Constipation

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43
Q

At 1PM, after lunch, Mr. Grover vomits a small amount of bright red blood. You have notified Mr. Grover’s HCP regarding this new development and she has scheduled Mr. Grover for an upper endoscopy in the morning.

In the meanwhile, what are you going to do about his 2 pm Amphogel dose and why?

A

Hold because it’s an oral med and he just threw up

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44
Q

At 1PM, after lunch, Mr. Grover vomits a small amount of bright red blood. You have notified Mr. Grover’s HCP regarding this new development and she has scheduled Mr. Grover for an upper endoscopy in the morning.

What should be done about his 6PM Tagament dose and why?

A

Give it because it’s IV

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45
Q

At 1PM, after lunch, Mr. Grover vomits a small amount of bright red blood. You have notified Mr. Grover’s HCP regarding this new development and she has scheduled Mr. Grover for an upper endoscopy in the morning.

What should be done about his 6pm Heparin dose?

A

Hold it

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46
Q

Peptic and ulcer disease occurs in any areas that are

A

exposed to HCL acid and pepsin

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47
Q

In GERD: heartburn, reflux brings HCL and pepsin up to the

A

lower part of the esophagus

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48
Q

What are the two medications that are most commonly associated with ulcers?

A
  1. Aspirin

2. non-steroidals

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49
Q

Main causes of ulcers (5 categories)

A
  1. stress
  2. major trauma
  3. major systemic infections
  4. stroke, MI, head trauma
  5. smoking
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50
Q

2 types of medications for the GI tract

A
  1. cell destruction

2. cell protection

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51
Q

3 methods of Cell Destruction medications

A
  1. Gastric acid (HCL): Acetylcholine and Histamine II
  2. Pepsin
  3. H. Pylori
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52
Q

5 methods of Cell protection medications

A
  1. Mucus
  2. Dilution of HCL acid
  3. Tight esophageal sphincter
  4. Cytroprotective prostaglandins
  5. Alkalization
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53
Q

H Pylori is the bacteria found in about ___ % of gastric ulcers and ___ % of duodenum ulcers

A

75; 90

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54
Q

For acetylcholine, think

A
  • “wet” - released by PSNS
  • acetylcholine can be produced within GI tract by mere thought of food
  • receptors for this are in the pyramidal cells
  • also have receptors for histamine II, causing more gastric acid to be released
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55
Q

5 Types of Anti-ulcer Meds:

A
  1. Antacids
  2. Ulcer adherent
  3. Histamine II Receptor Blockers
  4. Proton Pump Inhibitors
  5. H. Pylori Agents
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56
Q

Antacids are alkaline solutions that

A

neutralize acid

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57
Q

Antacids prototype:

A

Aluminum + Magnesium: Maalox, Mylanta (Gelusel, Di-Gel)

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58
Q

Aluminum Hydroxide:

A

Amphogel

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59
Q

Amphogel is very often used by the patients that have chronic renal failure because

A

they have difficulty removing and getting rid of phosphates that are in food

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60
Q

Magnesium Hydroxide:

A

MOM – Treats constipation, upset stomach, or heartburn. This medicine is a laxative and an antacid.

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61
Q

Sodium Bicarbonate: Alka-Seltzer and Bromo-Seltzer is high in sodium, so it’s NOT for patients who have

A

HTN or heart disease

they either need another type of antacid or a low-sodium option

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62
Q

All antacid mediations are made for ___ use

A

short term (weeks) – NOT years

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63
Q

Antacids bring HCL up above pH of

A

3.5

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64
Q

When patients have ulcers they often describe the pain as

A

burning

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65
Q

Patients don’t want to take antacid along with other medications because

A

antacids will decrease the absorption of other medications

ideally they should take them 2 hours apart (meds first, then 2 hours later, antacids)

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66
Q

DO NOT GIVE digoxin and calcium channel blocker at the same time as

A

antacids

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67
Q

Directions for taking antacids

A
  1. Drink down antacid
  2. then drink a full 8 oz glass of water which will help the antacid to get down to where it needs to be and not interfere with pH at all
  3. Most patients do better taking antacids 1 hour after meals (this will help the effect last for about 3-4 hours)
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68
Q

Antacids can cause ___ because of aluminum or ___ because of magnesium

A

constipation; diarrhea

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69
Q

Ulcer Adherent prototype

A

sucralfate (carafate)

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70
Q

sucralfate (carafate) is the least popular because it has a

A

very cumbersome schedule (1 hour before eating and at bedtime for at least 4-8 weeks)

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71
Q

if given with meals or antacids, sucralfate (carafate) will

A

lose its effectiveness

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72
Q

Histamine 2 blockers will antagonize or block the histamine, which will

A

prevent the secretion of gastric acid, which decreases the acidity and amount of gastric acid

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73
Q

Histamine 2 Receptor Blocking Agents Prototype:

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)

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74
Q

Histamine 2 receptor blocking agents (prototype: Cimetidine (Tagamet)) are used to

A

prevent and treat stress ulcers

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75
Q

histamine 2 receptor blocking agents (prototype: Cimetidine (Tagamet)) are not used very often because they

A

interfere so much with so many medications

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76
Q

You would not want to give histamine 2 receptor blocking agents (prototype: Cimetidine (Tagamet)) to a patient with

A

kidney or liver disease

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77
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) prototype

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

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78
Q

Prilosec is the __ drug of choice, and there are about ___ $ in sales

A

first

100 million prescriptions written a year for these- $13.9 billion in sales

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79
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) is recommended for what length of time?

A

recommended for 8-12 week use ONLY

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80
Q

long term risks associated with Omeprazole (Prilosec)

A
  • increased risk for bone loss

- increased risk for developing C. Diff

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81
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) works by

A

preventing or stopping the “pumping” or release of gastric acid

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82
Q

When can you take Prilosec?

A

Right before meals - it’s very well absorbed

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83
Q

H. Pylori Agents are a combination of:

A

Antibiotic + PPI

antibiotic can be 2 of the 4:

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
  3. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
  4. Tetracycline

and then a Proton Pump Inhibitor or a H2 blocker

84
Q

Prevpak consists of

A

1 Lansoprazel (Prevacid),
2 Amoxicillin,
1 (Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

more expensive but better compliance since everything is in one package

85
Q

Laxative results in

A

Mild effects w/ the formation of soft stool

86
Q

Cathartic results in

A

Strong effect w/ elimination of liquid or semi-liquid stool

87
Q

Colace is often given to patients who

A

we don’t want to be bearing down to go to the bathroom, such as patients with increased ICP, recent MI

88
Q

Saline cathartic is often given

A

before a colonoscopy

89
Q

Irritant or stimulant cathartics are the most abused because of the incorrect belief that

A

you must have a bowel movement every day

90
Q

As soon as someone gets on an opiate, they should start

A

increasing fluid and fiber in their diet

91
Q

patients on anticholingerics tend to be

A

constipated

92
Q

3 main contraindications for laxatives and cathartics

A
  1. Abd pain of unknown origin
  2. Bowel perforation
  3. GI obstruction
93
Q

most of the time, diarrhea is self-limiting, which means

A

it stops in 12-48 hours

94
Q

Causes of diarrhea (7)

A
  • Excessive use of laxatives
  • Intestinal infection
  • Highly spiced foods
  • Lack of digestive enzymes
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Drug therapy
  • Intestinal cancer
95
Q

Anti-diarrheal specific therapy includes

A

antibiotics and digestive enzymes

96
Q

Anti-diarrheal Opiate derivatives (2)

A
  • Diphenoxylate HCL w atropine sulfate (Lomotil)

- Ioperamide (Imodium)

97
Q

Anti-diarrheal miscellaneous

A
  • Bismuth Subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol, Kaopectate)
98
Q

BRAT diet for anti-diarrheal

A

bananas, rice, applesauce, tea/toast

99
Q

We don’t want to stop diarrhea if it’s from

A

toxic substance (food poisoning or some such) - need fluids and just to get it out

100
Q

Always assess for bowel sounds before you give

A

anti-emetics

101
Q

Dramamine and the anticholingeric Scopolamine are commonly used for

A

motion sickness

102
Q

Zofran is a very common anti-emetic in the hospital, and is great for patients who have n/v because of

A

surgery or chemo

103
Q

Anti-emetics work best when given

A

ahead of time

104
Q

if the patient is coming in for chemo and you know it’ll cause n/v, most places will dose the patient will dose the patient with Zofran ___ hr before chemo

A

30 min-1 hour

105
Q

Benzodiazepines in and of themselves are not anti-emetics but they may be used

A

in a multi-drug regime if a patient needs

they decrease anxiety which helps the patient sleep, provides a little sedation

106
Q

Phenothiazines, particularly compazine, are known for being quite

A

painful

put a fresh needle on it, let patient know it’s going to sting, and then make sure you’re ready to duck b/c it’s so painful

107
Q

What are examples of Bulk forming laxatives?

A

Metamucil

Fibercon

108
Q

How do Bulk forming laxatives work?

A

Adds bulk to increase peristalsis

109
Q

What is the time frame that bulk forming laxatives activate within?

A

24 hr

110
Q

What is an example of Surfactant or Stool softeners?

A

Colace

111
Q

What are examples of Saline Cathartics?

A

MOM, Fleets, GoLYTELY

112
Q

How do Saline Cathartics work?

A

they increase osmotic pressure

113
Q

What are Saline cathartics most used for?

A

For rapid bowel cleaning

114
Q

What are examples of Irritant or stimulant cathartics?

A

Cascara, Senekot, Dulcolax

115
Q

How do Irritant or stimulant cathartics work?

A

Irritates the GI mucosa, which leads to increased peristalsis

116
Q

What is an example of a Lubricant laxative, and how long should it take to work

A

Mineral oil

Should work within 8 hr

117
Q

Diabetes Mellitus is a chronic systemic disease of

A

metabolic and vascular abnormalities

metabolic: changes in the way that CHOs, fats and protein are metabolized leads to increased blood sugar

Vascular: Atherosclerosis, changes in microcirculation

118
Q

Elevated levels of glucose are called

A

hyperglycemia

119
Q

Chance of diabetes Increases __ % for every 2 lbs a patient is overweight

A

4

120
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

Defect in insulin secretion

  • thinking it’s an autoimmune disorder
  • starts at an early age
  • more sudden onset
  • more difficult to control
  • more complications
  • always require the administration of insulin
121
Q

Type 2 diabetes

A

Not producing enough to meet needs, or has developed insulin resistance to own insulin

can have combination of both; often on oral meds, but may also be on insulin as well

122
Q

Signs and symptoms of DM

A

Poluria—pee often
Always thirsty
Always hungry

123
Q

Normal levels of fasting blood sugar and Hemoglobin A1C

A

FBS: 70-100 mg/dL

Hemoglobin A1C: 4% - 5.6%

124
Q

Pre-diabetic levels of fasting blood sugar and Hemoglobin A1C

A

FBS: 100-125 mg d/L

Hemoglobin A1C: 5.7% - 6.4%

125
Q

Diabetic levels of fasting blood sugar and Hemoglobin A1C

A

FBS: > 125 mg d/L

Hemoglobin A1C: > 6.5%

126
Q

Goal for insulin use (3)

A
  1. maintain BS 70-100
  2. prevent complications
  3. prevent hypoglycemia
127
Q

True or false: Exogenous and endogenous insulin have same effects on body

A

True

128
Q

Insulin is the ___ effective treatment for Type 1 diabetes

A

only

129
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia

A
  • Shakiness, Nervousness or anxiety
  • Sweating, chills and clamminess
  • Confusion, including delirium
  • Rapid/fast heartbeat
    etc.
130
Q

Which types of insulin are clear? (3)

A
  1. Humalog
  2. Regular Insulin
  3. Glargine
131
Q

Which types of insulin are cloudy? (2)

A
  1. Intermediate acting

2. long acting ultralente

132
Q

What is rapid acting insulin, what is it used for, how long is its onset and how long does it last?

A

Humalog (Lispro)

used for rapid reduction of BS

onset is between 10-15 min

lasts for 3h

133
Q

Insulin regimes (3)

A

1x/day: elderly
2x/day: conventional
3-4x/day: intensive

134
Q

70/30 Insulin is

A

70% NPH (intermediate acting), 30% Regular

135
Q

Rapid and short acting Insulin covers meals…

A

immediately AFTER the injection

136
Q

Intermediate acting Insulin is expected to cover

A

subsequent meals

137
Q

Long acting Insulin provides

A

a relatively constant level of Insulin and act as a basal Insulin

138
Q

Only ___ insulin is given IV

A

regular (all others are given sub q)

139
Q

Always want to ___ when administering insulin

A

rotate sites

140
Q

For Type 1 DM, how often should you check blood sugar?

A

2-4x/day

141
Q

For Type 2 DM, how often should you check blood sugar?

A

2-3x/week

one 2hr postprandial – this means after a meal

142
Q

“Fractionals” or Sliding scale:

A 
BS		Insulin dose
150-199	        2 units
200- 249	4 units
250-299	        6 units
300-349	        8 units
350-399	        10 units
> 400		Call MD
143
Q

Insulin pumps can remain in place for __ days, and are often

A

3; regular insulin or lispro

144
Q

Oral hypoglycemics, Sulfonylureas prototype

A

glipizide (Glucotrol)

145
Q

Oral hypoglycemics, Megitinide prototype

A

Repaglinide (Prandin)

146
Q

Oral hypoglycemics are for patients with ___, and they work by ___

A

impaired glucose production

increasing insulin production

147
Q

Sulfonylureas are not to be used during pregnancy because they can cause

A

fetal hypoglycemia and even fetal death

148
Q

Antihyperglycemics work to

A

decrease insulin resistance

149
Q

Thiazolidinediones prototype

A

Pioglitazone (Actos)

150
Q

Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated for patients with

A

active liver disease

151
Q

Thiazolidinediones work by

A

stimulating insulin receptors on fat, muscle, and liver cells

152
Q

Biguanide prototype

A

metformin (Glucophage)

153
Q

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors prototype

A

Acarbose (Precose)

[Miglitol (Glyset)]

154
Q

Biguanide is usually taken with breakfast and dinner, and helps to

A

decrease hepatic glucose production

155
Q

Black box warning for biguanide (metformin) is

A

lactic acidosis

156
Q

Black box warning for Thiazolidinediones (Pioglitazone) is

A

CHF

157
Q

Alpha-Gulcodidase (Acarbose) is easier to dose because it’s taken

A

multiple times a day with a meal

158
Q

Alpha-Gulcodidase (Acarbose) works by

A

Inhibiting alpha glucodate enzymes in GI tract to delay digestion of complex carbohydrates into glucose

159
Q

To lower risk factors for CVD for DM patients, it’s often recommended that they take what 3 combination of drugs?

A
  1. Statin
  2. ASA/day
  3. ACE Inhibitor
160
Q

the adrenal cortex produces what 3 things?

A
  1. adrenal sex hormones
  2. Mineral corticoid (Aldosterone)
  3. Glucocorticoids – “Steroids”
161
Q

Aldosterone holds on to ___ and eliminates ___

A

Na and H20; eliminates K+

162
Q

if patient has low aldosterone (Addison’s disease), their body

A

gets rid of Na and H20 and keeps K+

163
Q

if patient has high aldosterone (Addison’s disease), their body

A

keeps Na and H2O, get rid of K+

164
Q

Glucocorticoids prototype:

A

prednisone

165
Q

Steroids have an effect on carbohydrate metabolism—more glucose, also increases insulin resistance—the combination can cause

A

hyperglycemia

166
Q

Actions of Steroids (8):

A
  1. hyperglycemia
  2. anti-inflammatory
  3. immunosuppressive
  4. euphoria, mood change, aggression
  5. ulcers
  6. muscle wasting
  7. FVE: edema, Hi BP: hypokalemia
  8. breath easier
167
Q

5 ways to decrease the ADEs of steroids

A
  1. Try using topically, or in an inhaler with minimal systemic absorption
  2. Shortest course possible
  3. Taper off
  4. Alternate day therapy—every other day take a double dose
  5. Give in am because of circadian rhythm—9-10 is our highest point of steroid production—want to give therapy along with diurnal pattern
168
Q

Prednisone, Cortisone are used as

A

Immunosuppressants

169
Q

Prednisone is used to treat GI concerns such as

A

crohns, ulcerative collitis

170
Q

Cortisone is used to treat endocrine disorders such as

A

Addison’s disease

171
Q

Medrol is used to treat

A

allergic disorders (serious)

172
Q

Decadron helps with neurological issues because it decreases

A

ICP

173
Q

For patients with high BP or CHF, aldoserone causes them to

A

hold onto sodium and water

174
Q

Glucocorticoids are contraindicated in

A
  • Systemic fungal infection

- T.B.

175
Q

For Glucocorticoids, avoid use or use cautiously in

A 
Pregnancy
patients at risk for infection/ with infection
DM
Peptic ulcer disease
Renal insufficiency
Psychosis
High BP, CHF
176
Q

When giving Glucocorticoids, you should always assess

A

Sodium, potassium, calcium

Baseline blood sugar

177
Q

Give Glucocorticoids before ___ AND with ___

A

9am, with food/milk

178
Q

Patients taking Glucocorticoids should have a diet that is

A

hi in K, protein, Ca, low in Na, high in fluid

179
Q

Patients taking Glucocorticoids should report

A

sore throats, fever, visual disturbances, tarry stool

180
Q

Patients taking Glucocorticoids should avoid

A

immunizations, contagious people

181
Q

Mrs. Medrol is admitted to the hospital for a knee replacement. She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy for her asthma.

List three symptoms indicative of excessive doses of corticosteroids for which Mrs. Medrol must be assessed.

A
  1. High blood sugar, which can trigger or worsen diabetes
  2. Increased risk of infections
  3. Thinning bones (osteoporosis) and fractures
182
Q

Mrs. Medrol is admitted to the hospital for a knee replacement. She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy for her asthma. What is the most likely complication of the surgery in Mrs. Medrol’s case?

A

Infection, because the immune response has been decreased

183
Q

histamine 2 receptor blocking agents are always given

A

PO

184
Q

It can take about ___ weeks of taking histamine 2 receptor blocking agents before healing of ulcer

A

6-8 weeks

185
Q

histamine 2 receptor blocking agents are metabolized by the ____ and excreted by the ____

A

liver; kidney

186
Q

histamine 2 receptor blocking agents ___ cross the placenta and get into breast milk but ___ cross the BBB

A

DO cross the placenta and get into breast milk

DO NOT cross BBB

187
Q

Rapid acting (clear) insulin agent is

A

Humalog (Lispro)

188
Q

Short acting (clear) insulin agent is

A

Regular “R”

189
Q

Intermediate acting (cloudy) insulin agents are

A
  1. NPH (“Humulin N”)

2. Lente (“Humulin L”)

190
Q

Long acting (cloudy) insulin agent is

A

Ultralente “UL”

191
Q

Long acting (clear) insulin agent is

A

glargine (Lantus)

192
Q

Humalog (Lispro) onset time, peak time, duration

A

Onset: 10-15 min

Peak: 1 h

Duration: 3H

193
Q

Regular “R” insulin onset time, peak time, duration

A

Onset: 30min-1h

Peak: 2-3h

Duration: 4-6h

194
Q

NPH (“Humulin N”) and Lente (“Humulin L”) onset time, peak time, duration

A

Onset: 3-4b

Peak: 4-12h

Duration: 16-20h

195
Q

Ultralente “UL” onset time, peak time, duration

A

Onset: 6-8h

Peak: 12-16h

Duration: 20-30h

196
Q

glargine (Lantus) onset time, peak time, duration

A

Onset: 1h

Peak: No peak

Duration: 24 hours

197
Q

For glargine, ___ mix with other insulins

A

DO NOT

198
Q

What is ultralente used for?

A

To control fasting plasma glucose

199
Q

Short-acting Regular insulin should be given ___ min AC

A

20-30

200
Q

Type 1 diabetes always require the administration of

A

insulin

201
Q

We want to give steroids in the morning because

A

of circadian rhythm—9-10 is our highest point of steroid production—want to give therapy along with diurnal pattern

202
Q

If blood sugar is 150-199, give insulin dose of

A

2 units

203
Q

If blood sugar is 200- 249, give insulin dose of

A

4 units

204
Q

If blood sugar is 250-299, give insulin dose of

A

6 units

205
Q

If blood sugar is 300-349, give insulin dose of

A

8 units

206
Q

If blood sugar is 350-399, give insulin dose of

A

10 units

207
Q

If blood sugar is > 400, what should you do?

A

call MD

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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