Test2week2material

Question 1

During development, founder stem cells are formed and reach a specific lineage that they maintain (so I guess you could say they are Mutlipotent). If a liver is destroyed and needs new hepatocyte cells, a liver derived founder cell will divide and become a committed ___ ?

Answer 1

transit amplifying cell (Programmed to divide for a limited number of times)

Question 2

Self renewing stem cells __ (do or don’t) maintain their original DNA?

Answer 2

Do (during mitosis, when the chromosomes line up, stem cells are able to position the chromosomes in a specific manner that always causes the original stem cell chromatids to be split into the same cell. This is not possible in non stem cells for mitosis since they line up randomly)

Question 3

If a transformation event occurs very early in development, and a modified embryonic stem cell gets stuck in one area but then later gets jumpstarted again, it can form a ___

Answer 3

Teratoma (contains many different tissues since it comes from an embryonic stem cell).

Question 4

Embryonic stem cells are taken from what?

Answer 4

Inner cell mass

Question 5

What steroid hormone is used to differentiate embryonic stem cells to a more specific lineage of neuron cells?

Answer 5

Retinoic acid (If a question asks about some other cell that isn’t a neuron, then know that fibroblast growth factors would be used instead to differentiate it)

Question 6

What are 4 ways to use stem cells?

Answer 6

Embryonic stem cells, induced pluripotent stem cells, reprogramming of adult stem cells, somatic cell nuclear transfer

Question 7

The ___ is the least differentiated layer for basal stem cells. They divide to maintain the basal cell layer and supply cells that move to further layers

Answer 7

basal lamina

Question 8

___ stem cells is when you take a differentiated adult stem cell and reprogram it to make it go back to almost an embryonic state, and then it can differentiate into many different cell types

Answer 8

Induced pluripotent

Question 9

If you were to take an unfertilized egg and fuse it with the nucleus of your own skin cell, then harvest the inner cell mast to create pluripotent stem cells (similar to embryonic stem cells), what would you call this?

Answer 9

Somatic Cell nuclear transfer (Now that a somatic cell (skin cell in this case) has its nucleus infused with the unfertilized egg, it’s your genome inside the egg so you won’t have rejection problems)

Question 10

What technique could be used to create a clone?

Answer 10

Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)

Question 11

Name the type of homeodomain transcription factor associated with its description

1) Regulation of big patterns of anatomical development (general morphogenesis) Aka head to tail directions
2) Important in early formation of organ and tissues, development of the eyes, CNS, and pancreas
3) Involved in big pattern development and a mutation could result in a headless embryo
4) Role in patterning of outgrowth of arms and legs and development of face and jaws
5) Prenatally they inhibit cell differentiation and postnatally they maintain proliferative capacity of tissue

Answer 11

1) Hox genes
2) Pax gene
3) Lim proteins
4) DLX
5) MSX

Question 12

In hox genes, the __ ‘ end codes for more anterior anatomical development and ___ codes for more posterior structures

Answer 12

3’, 5’

Question 13

The primary regulator of Hox genes is what?

Which part of the body is affected first if there is a surplus of retinoic acid?

Answer 13

Retinoic acid (Vitamin A)
Posterior

Question 14

Aniridia, an eye disorder characterized by a complete or partial absence of the colored part of the eye (iris) is from a mutation of what?

Answer 14

Pax gene (a homeodomain)

Question 15

What codes specifically for upper limb development and lower limb development (only one answer)

Answer 15

T-box (TBx) gene (also called brachyury)

Question 16

What transcription factor regulates myogenesis (formation of muscle tissue)?

Answer 16

Helix-loop-helix

Question 17

What transcription factor is important in coordinating morphogenesis?
More importantly, this gene is associated with speech and language development disorders.

Answer 17

Forkhead gene (Fox-box)

Question 18

What transcription factor is involved in the development of bone, cartilage, and teeth?

Answer 18

Zinc Finger proteins

Question 19

A patient has osteoporosis and shows some signs of skeletal growth retardation? Why is this occuring?

Answer 19

There is a zinc deficiency, so the zinc finger proteins are not functioning properly

Question 20

What subfamily of zinc finger proteins cause problems with gender expression (such as not displaying any male body parts, etc.).

What subfamily of zinc fingers functions as a suppresser gene?

Answer 20

Sox genes

WT1

Question 21

When the notochord sends out signals and they go up into the ectoderm layer, what is shut off? For the part of the ectoderm that is not shut off, what happens to the ectoderm?

Answer 21

BMP4 - inhibits neural formation (now that it’s knocked out, that piece of ectoderm can become neural plate and role up in a tube and become CNS)

For the sections not shut off, the ectoderm becoemes the epidermis

Question 22

If one were to have a vitamin A deficiency? What would be the first body part to be affected?

Answer 22

Vitamin A deficiency leads to a Hox gene dysfunction, and these result in defects starting posteriorly and moving anteriorly

Question 23

Name what kind of potency each stem cell has? Then name the lineage from stem cells that can differentiate into any cell, to stem cells that can differentiate only to certain lineages

1) Adult stem cell
2) Embryonic stem cells
3) Zygotes
4) Blood stem cells
5) Morula
6) Inner and outer cell mass

Answer 23

1) Mutlipotent
2) Pluripotent
3) Totipotent
4) Multipotent
5) Totipotent
6) Pluripotent

Toti -> Pluri -> Multi

Question 24

Prostaglandins and thromboxane are members of what larger family?

Answer 24

Eicosanoids (A family of lipid mediators derived from oxidative transformation of a 20 carbon poly unsaturated fatty acid

Question 25

___ are factors that act like local hormones, have a brief duration, and act near the site of synthesis. These regulating molecules are metabolized locally, the compounds they produce are localized, and they act locally

Answer 25

Autacoid mediators

Question 26

An important autacoid mediator in the stomach is called ___ and if its function is impaired, it increases the risk for ___

Answer 26

Prostaglandin E2, ulcers (since prostaglandin acts as a protective agent in the stomach while digesting food, if it is absent then the stomach will eat itself and this results in an ulcer)

Question 27

Lung 15 OH PGDH does what?

Answer 27

It inactivates the PGE2s (prostaglandin E2s) that leak out of the stomach during digestion. This prevents the autocoids systemic circulation in the body

Question 28

What is the dominant poly unsaturated fatty acid found in most cells?

Answer 28

Arachidonic acid (AA)

Question 29

The process of forming auticoid mediators is complicated. Fill in the blanks

A stimulus hits the phospholipid bilayer, and this activates the enzyme ___ to cut out and release __ from the lipids. Then in the presence of oxygen, AA is taken up by the enzyme ___, which helps form a labile intermediate called ___. This intermediate is met by the enyzme ___ which cleaves it into the autoacoids ___ and ___, or ___ and ___. These two sets of autoacoids can be inhibited by ___ or ___

Answer 29

Phospholipase A2, Arachidonic Acid (AA), Cyclooxygenase (COX), Prostaglandin endoperoxide (PG)H2, Tissue isomerase, PGE2 and PGF2a or PGI2 (prostacyclin) and TxA2 (thromboxane), 15-OH PG dehydrogenase (the lung stuff) - inactivates PGE and PGF or Hydrolysis from water - inactivates PGI TXA

Question 30

Eicosinoid receptors are GPCR. Cognate Eicosinoid receptors EP and IP receptors act through the stimulation of G__ alpha subunits and FP and TP receptors act through G___alpha subunits

(Either Q or S)

Answer 30

S (so they use adenylyl cyclase), Q (so they use PLC)

Question 31

PGI2 (prostacyclin) is a vaso___ and TxA2 (thromboxane), its antagonist, is a vaso___

Answer 31

Dilator (relaxes smooth muscle), Constrictor (constricts smooth muscle)

Question 32

In neonatal development, Cox-1 and __ maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in the fetus. This allows maternal blood to by-pass the immature fetal lungs. However, when the neonatal lung becomes mature, it withdraws this eicosinoid and allows this duct to close and arterial and venous circulation restores

Answer 32

PGE2: (EP4 receptors

Question 33

When is Cox-2 present?

Answer 33

In the kidney and inflammation

Question 34

Platelets make the eicosanoid __ and endothelium makes the eicosanoid ___.

Can Cox-2 be newly synthesized in Platelets or endothelial cells?

Answer 34

Thromboxane A2, PGI2

Only endothelial cells, not platelets (This helps prevent thrombosis)

Question 35

Anti-inflammatory inhibitors act on Cox-1 and Cox-2, how can this affect blood vessels?

Answer 35

With no Cox present, PGI2 can not be made (since endothelial cells need Cox to make PGI2) and with no PGI2, platelets can begin to aggregate and form a clot (vessel occlusion, which leads to a heart attack)

Question 36

What becomes the primary site of hematopoeisis? (Where red, white, and other blood cells are made)

Answer 36

Bone marrow

Question 37

___ secreted by the cells in the vascular niche can regulate HSCs

___ cells form a barrier that prevents immature hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) from leaving the marrow and adult HSCs to enter the blood

Answer 37

Cytokines

Endothelial (Also site of long term storage for HSCs)

Question 38

HSCs differentiate into what two common precursor cells?

Also, what kind of potency does these two cells have?

Answer 38

Myeloid stem cells (make a lot of different kind of cells) and Lymphoid stem cells (make T and B cells)
Multipotency

Question 39

Each committed precursor has their own CFU (colony forming unit) except for __ and ___ (Which are combined)

Answer 39

Granulocyte and macrophage

Question 40

1) What is erythropoiesis and what regulates it?
2) What is leukopoiesis
3) What is thrombopoises and what regulates it?

Answer 40

1) The formation of RBCs and erythropoietin (decreases level of cell cycle inhibitors and increase cyclins)
2) White blood cell production
3) The development of platelets (Megakaryocytes -> Platelets) and thrombopoietin

Question 41

Name the white blood cells we covered that are made from leukopoises

Answer 41

Neutrophils, Macrophages (derived from monocytes) - Both derived from the granulocyte-macrophage precursor

Eosinophils, Basophils (Make Mast cells) - both derived from myeloid stem cells

Question 42

What kind of cell attacks parasites?

Answer 42

Eosinophils

Question 43

Someone were to go through chemotherapy treatment, they could have low levels of neutrophils (neutropenia). In order to return these levels to normal, you could administer ___, which targets granulocytes specifically. This is less potent than the drug ___, which targets the Granulocyte-macrophages

Answer 43

G-CSF (Colony stimulating factors), GM-CSF

Don’t confused CSFs with SCFs (Stem cell factors that increase the responsiveness of HSCs to cytokines)

Question 44

What increases the responsiveness of HSCs to other cytokines?

Answer 44

SCF (Stem cell factor)

Question 45

Know that chart in the Ecosinoid lecture on page 37

***

Answer 45

KNOW IT

Question 46

To protect against heart attacks from platelet aggregation, a diet high in omega-3 fatty acids causes some of the arachidonic acid in the lipid bilayer to be replaced by eicosapentaenoic acid. This new type of acid still produces prostaglandins and thromboxane, however the vasodilatation form PGI3

Answer 46

The same as PGI2, a weaker vasoconstrictor (Which means weak platelet aggregation which is why your chance of a heart attack decreases)

Question 47

When restriction endonuclease cleave DNA, what is needed to join the fragments back together?

Answer 47

DNA ligase and ATP

Question 48

Gel electrophoresis separates what?

What does SDS page separate?

Answer 48

DNA and RNA
Proteins
Both based on size*

Question 49

One of the major differences is that a ___ library is derived from mRNA (the coding region of RNA) and therefore the library contains the coding region of expressed genes only, with not introns or regulator regions. This is why transcription must occur in these libraries (so the RNA can be spliced and turned into coding mRNA

Answer 49

cDNA (think about it, you need to go through transcription and splicing to get rid of the DNA that isn’t used for any coding)

Question 50

Short Tandem Repeats occur where in the genome for individuals? What useful technique can be used from STRs?
Would you want to extract the cDNA of gDNA library in these cases?

Answer 50

non coding regions (This is why it’s ok for the DNA to be different for each person since it’s not coding for anything important)

PCR is used to amplify the chromosomes with STR and then it can be used in forensic type cases

gDNA (genomic library) because its the noncoding region so it can’t be the cDNA since cDNA don’t even contain any noncoding regions

Question 51

In what type of testing can you take a drop of blood, put it on a chip, and determine all the genes up and down regulated in your body compared to a healthy individual and then make a treatment plan based on your chip pattern (In other words, they are great for studying gene expression levels)

Answer 51

Microarays (More intense signal -> Higher degree of binding -> Higher level of expression)

Question 52

qPCR (quantitative PCR) is the analysis of PCR in real time. A __ cycle number (Ct) = less rounds of PCR to get the same amount of signal, therefore the original starting product of the mRNA (aka the target DNA copy) must have been in greater concentrations.

Answer 52

Smaller

This is how I am understanding it. If you start off with a cancer cell sample and normal cell sample, they aren’t going to be equal in number (maybe there are more cancer cells, or maybe there are more normal cells in the sample). To figure out which one is larger, you run qPCR. In this case, since the cancer cell sample hit the threshold earlier (exponential growth) that means it must have started out with a larger number of cancer cells in the sample when compared to normal cells in the sample. In this case, 28-20 = 8. So 2^8 = 256, which means there was 256 more target copies of the cancer cell sample than the normal cell sample to start off with.

Question 53

Where is the antigen binding site located in an antibody?

Also, where does this antigen binding region actually bind on the antigen

Answer 53

The Fab region

The epitope

Question 54

What test can be used to detect HIV by using an antigen, and looking to see if a patients serum contains antibodies that bind to the antigen. If present, goat antibodies will bind to the human antibodies and an enzyme reaction will change the color of the well. A color change means that patient ___ have the disease.

One can also detect myocardial infractions using this method. Troponin T is produced when a MI occurs, and is a ___ (antibody or antigen?) that will bind to the ___ (antibody or antigen?) placed in the microtiter plate. After MI, the serum will show blue do to the fact that troponin is now present in the serum and attached to the antibodies.

Answer 54

ELISA, does

Antigen

Question 55

In indirect ELISA, the amount of __ is measured (more color change = more of it) can be used for HIV detection
In sandwich ELISA, the amount of ___ is measured and can be used for myocardial infraction detection, or hormone detection (such as in pregnancies)

Answer 55

Antibodies

Antigen

Question 56

TGF (Transforming growth factor), FGF (Fibroblast growth factor), Sonic Hedgehog (SHH), Wnt are all ___

Answer 56

growth factors (Have a RTK receptor)

Question 57

Sonic hedgehog protein (SHH) binds to ___, which binds to and inhibits ___

Answer 57

Patched (PTCH), Smoothened (SMO) (So if mutation in PTCH, then SMO is active and goes on to induce cell proliferation which can lead to cancer).

Question 58

When you separate blood with anticoagulants, what do you get?
When you separate blood without anticoagulants, what do you get?

Answer 58

Plasma, WBC/platelets, and RBCs

Serum (Plasma without fibrinogen) and RBCs with the fibrinogen (in a clot)

Question 59

___ is found inside the membrane and acts to keep the bioconcave and flexible shape of the RBCs

Answer 59

Spectrin (Defects of the cytoskeleton lead to hemolytic anemia aka sickle cell or thalassemia

Question 60

Name the Leukocyte’s associated function

1) Release chemicals that mediate inflammation and allergic responses
2) Ingest and destroy invaders
3) Destroy parasites
4) Ingest and destroy invaders and antigen presentation
5) Antibody secreting plasma cells or cell mediated immunity

Answer 60

1) Basophils -> Mast cells (Both)
2) Neutrophils
3) Eosinophils
4) Monocytes -> Macrophages (both)
5) Lymphocytes (B and T cells)

Question 61

What is the precursor to platelets?
Thrombocytopenia means what?
Thrombocytosis means what?

Answer 61

Megakaryocytes and they form platelets under the control of thrombopoietin

• To little platelets
• To many platelets

Question 62

What are the three major groups of hematopoietic growth factors (HGFs)?

What do each of these HGFs have a role in?

Answer 62

Colony stimulating factors, Ertythropoietin and thrombopoietin, and cytokines (interlukins)

1) CSF - stimulate committed precursor cells to grow in vitro into cell clusters or colonies
2) Erythro and thrombopoietin regulate RBC formation and megakaryocyte -> platelet formation respectively.
3) Regulate lymphocytes (B and T cell production)

Question 63

1) Process by which RNA is probed with a DNA molecule
2) Proteins probed with antibodies
3) DNA is probed with DNA
4) DNA is probed with complementary DNA

Answer 63

1) Norther blot
2) Western blot
3) Southern blot
4) DNA miccoarray