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411 prep Flashcards

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1
Q

What drives the need for change in organizations?

A

Technological development, Changes in societal expectations, Economic uncertainty, Evolution of customer preferences

All of the above factors contribute to the necessity for organizational change.

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2
Q

Which step of the Organization Development (OD) process involves identifying potential changes to help an organization reach its goals?

A

Step 3: Selecting Solutions

This initial step is crucial for recognizing areas where change is needed.

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3
Q

What is the focus of Step 2, ‘Dig & diagnose’ in the OD process?

A

Collecting and analyzing data to understand the causes of the organization’s current situation

This step is essential for a thorough understanding of existing issues.

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4
Q

According to the Association of Change Management Professionals (ACMP), what is Change Management (CM)?

A

An approach to transition from a current state to a future state

This definition emphasizes the goal-oriented nature of change management.

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5
Q

How are Change Management (CM) and Project Management (PM) connected in the implementation of organizational change?

A

PM focuses on the technical side, while CM deals with the human side

This distinction highlights the complementary roles of CM and PM.

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6
Q

What does Prosci research suggest about the relationship between Change Management (CM) quality and meeting change objectives?

A

Excellent CM increases the likelihood of meeting change objectives by 6x compared to poor CM

This statistic underscores the importance of effective change management.

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7
Q

What is a project?

A

A temporary endeavor to create a new product, service or result

Projects are characterized by their temporary nature and specific objectives.

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8
Q

What percentage of all projects fail to meet their objectives, according to TeamStage?

A

70%

This high failure rate highlights the challenges organizations face in project management.

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9
Q

The art of getting others to want to do something that you believe should be done is a definition of:

A

Leadership

This definition emphasizes the motivational aspect of leadership.

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10
Q

In the formula C = f(x) (P, T, S), what does the S stand for?

A

Scope

Understanding project constraints is critical for successful project management.

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of the project management process?

A

Workforce Evaluation

This option does not fit into the standard project management phases.

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12
Q

What does the sponsor of a change project typically have authority over?

A

The outcomes that the project aims to change

Sponsors play a key role in guiding project objectives.

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13
Q

When might change be considered as a result of an ‘opportunity gap’?

A

When performance is strong, but higher performance is desired

This indicates a proactive approach to enhancing organizational performance.

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14
Q

When is a performance gap referred to as a ‘problem gap’?

A

When the current state of performance is less than desired

Identifying problem gaps is crucial for initiating change.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of gap analysis in the OD process?

A

Evaluating the difference between current and desired performance

Gap analysis is vital for understanding performance shortfalls.

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16
Q

What does step 1 of gap analysis involve?

A

Measuring current performance

Establishing a baseline is essential for effective gap analysis.

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17
Q

In gap analysis, outcomes should be thought of as:

A

Financial or operational results

Outcomes provide measurable indicators of success.

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18
Q

What is a ‘problem’ in project management?

A

A gap between the way things are and the desired state

This definition encapsulates the essence of project management challenges.

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19
Q

Which element in project management provides a clear picture of the desired future state?

A

Vision

A clear vision is crucial for guiding project efforts.

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20
Q

In project management, what is the role of a ‘mission’?

A

Providing a high-level direction

The mission outlines the overarching goals of a project.

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21
Q

What distinguishes a ‘vision’ from an ‘objective’ in project management?

A

Vision provides the overall direction, while objectives are specific desired results

Understanding this distinction helps in effective project planning.

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22
Q

In the acronym SMART, what does the ‘R’ stand for?

A

Realistic

SMART objectives are essential for effective goal setting.

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23
Q

What is the ultimate goal of the diagnosis stage in the OD process?

A

To identify root causes of performance gaps

This stage is critical for effective intervention planning.

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24
Q

Which data collection method involves facilitated discussions with a small group of employees?

A

Focus groups

Focus groups are valuable for gathering qualitative insights.

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25
What is the primary purpose of qualitative data analysis in OD diagnosis?
To find recurring themes and patterns ## Footnote Identifying themes helps in understanding complex issues.
26
Which data analysis method involves using advanced algorithms to uncover patterns?
Machine learning ## Footnote This method is increasingly used for data-driven decision-making.
27
Which data collection method involves systematically watching and documenting behaviors?
Observation ## Footnote Observation provides direct insights into organizational processes.
28
What is the central idea behind the 5-why’s technique in cause analysis?
E. To uncover multiple root causes ## Footnote This technique is designed to drill down to root causes.
29
How many root causes should you find when using the 5-why’s technique?
It will vary depending on the characteristics of the performance gap ## Footnote Flexibility in identifying root causes is key to effective analysis.
30
Which component of the congruence model includes organizational structure?
Formal organization ## Footnote The formal organization is critical for understanding organizational dynamics.
31
What does the 'work' component in the congruence model encompass?
Tasks, activities, and responsibilities ## Footnote This component is essential for operational effectiveness.
32
How does the congruence model suggest organizations can be effective?
By aligning key organizational components ## Footnote Alignment is crucial for overall effectiveness.
33
What is the primary source of ideas for effective interventions to address a performance gap?
Solutions to root causes ## Footnote Identifying root causes is fundamental for developing effective interventions.
34
What is another useful approach to identifying possible change interventions?
Internal and external benchmarking ## Footnote Benchmarking helps organizations learn from best practices.
35
In the People Component of the Congruence Model, what is suggested as a potential solution for interpersonal conflict?
Team-building activities ## Footnote Team-building can enhance collaboration and reduce conflict.
36
In the Informal Organization component of the Congruence Model, what is suggested as a potential solution for culture drift?
Adjust selection process ## Footnote Adjusting how employees are selected can help realign organizational culture.
37
Which method of choosing between different intervention options assesses implementation difficulty and effect?
Ease-Impact Analysis ## Footnote This method helps prioritize interventions based on feasibility and impact.
38
What is one potential downside of ease-impact analysis?
C. Combining different factors together ## Footnote This may lead to neglecting important implementation challenges.
39
In the Weighted Criteria Matrices method, what is the purpose of assigning weights to each criterion?
To represent the importance of each criterion ## Footnote Weights help prioritize decision-making factors.
40
What is the next step after assigning weights to criteria in the weighted criteria matrix method?
Scoring interventions on each criterion ## Footnote This step is essential for evaluating options systematically.
41
What is the purpose of identifying a list of several possible solutions before selecting one?
To provide options for consideration ## Footnote This approach encourages thorough evaluation and stakeholder involvement.
42
Which intervention selection method allows for a comprehensive evaluation considering multiple factors?
Weighted Criteria Matrices ## Footnote This method is effective for systematic decision-making.
43
Which of the following is a 'stakeholder' in a project?
Anyone with an interest in the project ## Footnote Stakeholders can influence or be influenced by project outcomes.
44
Which of the following is one of the three questions that helps identify stakeholders?
B. Who contributes to the project? ## Footnote Identifying resource control helps understand stakeholder influence.
45
The 'stakeholder grid' categorizes stakeholders based on which two characteristics?
Attitude and influence ## Footnote This tool aids in strategic stakeholder engagement.
46
Who contributes to the project?
C
47
Who acts like a mature adult?
D
48
Who has access to the best information?
E
49
Who is most likely to resist the project?
F
50
Who is easy to work with?
1/1 points
51
What tool categorizes stakeholders based on attitude and influence?
A. The stakeholder grid
52
Why is managing stakeholders important in project management?
E. Because they are key to a project’s success
53
Which stakeholder management tool categorizes stakeholders into ‘unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, and leading’?
F. The stakeholders engagement assessment matrix
54
Which group of stakeholders does Karen Feely suggest have 'no real project knowledge'?
Everyone Else
55
Which of the following is one of the 4 categories stakeholders can be categorized into according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?
E. Change recipients
56
What do 'interested onlookers' want from the change according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?
B. It reduces requirement to intervene
57
What is a 'stakeholder assessment' according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?
D. A table that captures all stakeholders and their interest in a change
58
Which approaches are useful for identifying all stakeholders for a change?
E. All of the above
59
What is the most common reason that change projects fail?
D. The unique value to each stakeholder wasn’t correctly identified
60
What is true about what different stakeholder groups value in a change?
C. There is tension between what change initiators and change recipients usually value
61
What question does the 'outcome onion' tool repeatedly ask about stakeholder value?
C. So what about that?
62
What is described as the 'field of dreams syndrome'?
D. Assuming that if change initiators build a change, change recipients will automatically support it
63
What is one of the common ways the 'value proposition' for a change gets confused?
A. The project describes the value as outputs and not outcomes
64
What does 'WIIFM' stand for?
F. What’s in it for me
65
What is a 'project cat food'?
D. A project that doesn’t deliver anything desirable for anyone
66
What is a 'gap statement' in a WIIFM analysis?
F. The difference between how things are now for a stakeholder and how things will be after the change
67
How can you validate your understanding of WIIFMs for different stakeholder groups?
B. Hold a workshop or a series of workshops
68
What is a good rule of thumb for assessing the scale of the impact of a change?
A. A change that requires more than 5 hours of learning by the stakeholder is “high” impact
69
What is the primary objective of risk management in project management?
F. Identifying, assessing, and controlling risks
70
What is step 1 of the project risk management process?
F. List all risks to the project you can think of
71
On what two characteristics should you evaluate each of the risks identified for a project?
B. Probability of occurrence and negative impact
72
What is step 4 of the project risk management process?
D. Prevent or mitigate the risk
73
What is a useful risk analysis tool?
A. The Risk Matrix
74
What is a 'contingency' in project risk management?
E. The specific actions that will be taken if the risk occurs
75
What are 'contingency reserves'?
C. Time and/or budget set aside to deal with the known risks to the project
76
What are 'management reserves'?
B. Time and/or budget set aside to deal with risks that cannot be predicted
77
What is the most common challenge encountered in managing projects?
D. Communication, or lack thereof
78
What is the goal of a 'communication plan' in project management?
E. To plan how to communicate with stakeholders as a project matures
79
What is one of the two 'barriers to good planning' listed in chapter 3?
B. People find planning to be painful
80
Project planning is particularly important under which condition?
E. Project deadlines are tight
81
Which of the following is one of a project 'plan ingredients'?
A. Project work requirements
82
Which statement is most true of changing project plans?
C. Project plans should be changed, when needed, in an orderly way
83
What is a good rule of thumb for effective project planning?
F. The people who do the work should participate in developing the plan
84
What project planning activity involves dividing complicated tasks into smaller tasks?
C. Work breakdown structure
85
What is the responsibility of the project manager?
The project manager is responsible for the plan ## Footnote This highlights the importance of leadership in project management.
86
What improves the effectiveness of any project plan?
Creating a formal 'project charter' ## Footnote A project charter outlines objectives, scope, and stakeholders.
87
What is the recommended time ratio for project planning to project execution?
1/10 of the time needed for the project itself ## Footnote This suggests that adequate planning can lead to project success.
88
Who should hold ultimate authority over the project plan?
The project planner ## Footnote This emphasizes the importance of clear leadership in project management.
89
What principle is summarized by 'Waste not, want not'?
Efficiency and resource management in projects ## Footnote This principle encourages careful use of resources to avoid future shortages.
90
Who should participate in developing the project plan?
The people who do the work ## Footnote Involvement of team members ensures practical insights are incorporated.
91
What project planning activity involves dividing complicated tasks into smaller tasks?
Work breakdown structure ## Footnote A WBS is crucial for simplifying project management.
92
How does a WBS contribute to project cost estimation?
By breaking down the project into smaller components for easier cost assignment ## Footnote This allows for more accurate budgeting.
93
What does a completed WBS capture?
It captures all of the tasks to be completed but not their order ## Footnote It provides a comprehensive overview of project tasks.
94
When should a task within a WBS no longer be subdivided?
When the task can be completed within the smallest time unit you plan to schedule ## Footnote This indicates the task is manageable and actionable.
95
Which statement is true about the levels in a WBS?
In WBS, different tasks may be subdivided to different levels ## Footnote This allows for flexibility in task management.
96
What is the best source of information on time/cost estimates?
Historical data ## Footnote Historical data provides insights based on past projects.
97
What are the three types of estimates used in the three-point estimating technique?
Best-case, Worst-case, Most likely ## Footnote This technique helps project managers account for uncertainty.

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