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Ocular Pathology & Pharmacology 1 > OPT2222 Exam 2 > Flashcards

OPT2222 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many species of bacteria on hands?

A

150 unique species

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2
Q

Do males or females have more diversity in species on hands?

A

Females

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3
Q

What are you most likely to be infected by?

A

Own flora

hands

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4
Q

What are the 4 groups of pathogenic microbes?

A

bacteria
viruses
fungi
protozoa

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5
Q

What are bacteria?

A 
Prokaryotic (no nucleus)
unicellular
microscropic organisms that reproduce by binary fission (grow too big and then divide into 2 cells)
Oldest organisms on earth
Smaller than eukaryotes
Complex
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6
Q

What are viruses?

A

Acellular infectious particles
Not living - piece of genetic code only
Oldest things on earth - older than bacteria
Most common infections are caused by viruses

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7
Q

What are fungi?

A

Eukaryotic
Yeast and Molds
Difficult to kill since cells share same characteristics as our cells (toxic)

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8
Q

What are protozoans?

A 
Eukaryotic
Unicellular
Microscopic
No cell wall
Helminths
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9
Q

What are the differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

DNA, RNA and protein synthesis (both cells have but differences: chromosomes 1 vs. 46)
Cell wall (only prokaryotes)
Metabolism (all cells have)
Nucleus (only eukaryotes have)

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10
Q

Do all bacteria have cell walls containing peptidoglycan?

A

No, mycoplasma do not

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11
Q

What do antibiotics target?

A

bacterial cell walls

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12
Q

Who invented antibiotics?

A

prokaryotes create them

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13
Q

What bacteria are round spheres? What are two round spheres? What are a chain of round spheres?

A

Cocci
Diplococci
Streptococci

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14
Q

What is the most common organism causing infection?

A

Staphylococcus

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15
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

Bacteria produce a capsular glycocalyx biofilm of layers which attach to host cells
Interacts and adapts to environment
Are difficult to treat with antibiotics
Resists hosts immune system

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16
Q

What coccus grows in clusters?

A

Staphylococci

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17
Q

Which bacteria is gram positive, grows in irregular clusters of spherical cells, contains 31 species?

A

Staphylococci

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18
Q

What bacteria grow at 37 degrees Celsius, are facultative anaerobes, are the most common skin flora, produce virulence factors and the most common ocular infection?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

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19
Q

What are staph virulence factors?

A

Produce coagulase (coagulate plasma and blood)
hyaluronidase (digest ground substance of connective tissue)
DNAse (hydrolyze DNA)
Lipases (break down oils in skin)
Penicillinase (inactivates penicillin)
Staph toxins

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20
Q

What are the staph toxins?

A

Hemolysins - lyse RBCs

Leukocidin - lyse neutrophils and macrophages

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21
Q

What does Staph infiltrate?

A

Meibomian glands

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22
Q

What is folliculitis?

A

Staph disease - Inflammation of hair follicle

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23
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

Staph disease - a boil - progresses into abscess or pustule

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24
Q

What is a carbuncle?

A

Staph disease - a larger, deeper lesion

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25
Q

What is impetigo?

A

Staph disease - Bubble-like swellings that break and peel away from skin

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26
Q

What is eyelid margin disease?

A

Staph disease
Blepharitis
epidemiology 20-60% carriage rate for healthy adults

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27
Q

What is MRSA?

A

methicillin resistant staph aureus
most dangerous staphylococcus
resistant to beta lactams, penicillin, ampicillin, oxacillins, and even vancomycin

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28
Q

How to prevent staph infection?

A

Wash hands!

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29
Q

What are gram positive spherical cocci that grow in long chains?

A

streptococci

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30
Q

What bacteria are gram positive, with slime layers and capsules, facultative anaerobes, but not a common ocular pathogen?

A

streptococci

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31
Q

What is the most common and serious strep pathogen?

A

strep pyogenes

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32
Q

What is impetigo (pyoderma)?

A

Superficial lesions that form hightly contagious crust

Epidemic in school children

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33
Q

What is Erysipelas?

A

Enters through a break in the skin, spreads to dermis and subcutaneous tissues

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34
Q

What is Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

A

strep throat

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35
Q

What are Group D Enterococci?

A

Found in large intestine

Causes opportunistic UTI, wound and skin infections

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36
Q

What bacteria are gram negative bean-shaped diplococci, grow in mucous membrane, have pili

A

Neisseriaceae

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37
Q

What is neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

STD gonorrhea
2nd most common reportable disease
causes ophthalmia neonatorum

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38
Q

What prevents blindness in infants immediately after birth from ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Crede prophylaxis

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39
Q

What bacteria are rod shaped?

A

Bacilli

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40
Q

What bacteria is rod shaped, gram positive, found in soil, frequent cause of soft tissue infection, causes gas gangrene, releases exotoxins

A

Clostridium Perfringens

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41
Q

What is a clostridium tentai

A

Tetanus infection

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42
Q

What is a gram positive rod, common resident in pilosebaceous glands, causes acne and best treated with benzoyl peroxide?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

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43
Q

What is the spore forming anaerobe that inhabits soil and water, is the most powerful neurotoxin ever discovered?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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44
Q

What is the likely contaminate in poorly preserved food?

A

botulism

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45
Q

What leads to flaccid paralysis of muscle by blocking the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

A

Botulism

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46
Q

What bacteria are aerobic, gram negative, have lipopolysaccharide endotoxin outer membrane cell wall

A

Gram negative bacilli

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47
Q

What bacteria are small gram negative rods, live in soil and water, about 10% of people have as normal inhabitant of colon, are resistant to disinfectants, drugs, and drying, are opportunistic pathogens and contaminates ventilators, IV equipment, anesthesia equipment or soap containers?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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48
Q

What bacteria has a grape-like odor, greenish-blue pigment, is multidrug resistant and opportunistic?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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49
Q

What bacteria has a bright red pigment, is opportunistic, can infect burn victims, wounds, meningitis?

A

Serratia marcescens

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50
Q

What is gram negative rods, can lead to periorbital cellulitis and is the leading cause of acute bacterial meningitis in children?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae B

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51
Q

What is caused by haemophilus aegyptius?

A

conjunctivitis

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52
Q

What are the gram negative corkscrews that are free living saprobes, commensal, and have endoflagella?

A

Spirochete

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53
Q

What bacteria are thin, regular, coiled cells that live in oral cavity, intestinal tract and perigenital regions?

A

Treponema

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54
Q

What spirochete is fastidious, sensitive, cannot survive long outside of host so transmitted sexually or transplacental

A

Treponema Pallidum

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55
Q

What pathogenic spirochete binds to epithelium, multiplies and penetrates capillaries, moves into circulation and multiplies, causes a chancre and is called the great pox?

A

Syphilis

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56
Q

What bacteria causes lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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57
Q

What bacteria are obligate intracellular parasites, have a gram negative cell wall, are transmitted host to host, and grows within host cell vacuoles?

A

Chlamydiaceae

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58
Q

What attacks mucous membranes of the eye, causes severe inflammation and scarring, and is the leading cause of blindness worldwide?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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59
Q

What is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease?

A

Chlamydia

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60
Q

What are eukaryotic organisms that produce spores and are natural decomposers?

A

fungi

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61
Q

What live in warm, dark, moist environments and eat dead matter?

A

Fungi

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62
Q

What fungi is endemic in northeast, lives in soil, and if inhaled, the conidia produce primary pulmonary infection

A

Histoplasmosis

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63
Q

What is found in sand in desert, alters cellular immunity, infects skin and mucosa, and can cause pneumonia, septicemia, or endocarditis

A

Candidiasis

64
Q

How are fungal infections treated?

A

Amphotericin B (IV)
Flucytosine
Azoles
Nystatin (topical)

65
Q

What parasites are heterotrophic, without cell walls or chloroplasts, solitary, unicellular, live in water and feed on other microbes and organic matter?

A

Protozoa

66
Q

What pathogenic protozoa is an infective amoeba, causes amebic dysentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

67
Q

What pathogenic protozoa inhabits standing water, infiltrates sinuses through nasal contact, causes primary acute meningoencephalitis

A

Acanthameoba Keratitis

68
Q

What pathogenic protozoa is transmitted by kissing bug feces and can cause Chagas Disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

69
Q

What intracellular apicomplexan parasite lives in GI tract of cats and transmitted to humans by ingesting raw meat or contamination of cat feces by not washing hands after cleaning litter box?

A

Toxoplasmosis

causes huge retinal scars

70
Q

What causes 20% of all infectious disease?

A

parasites

71
Q

What are insects that feed on blood of host, are ectoparasites and transmit infectious microbes called?

A

Arthropod vector

72
Q

What insect parasites can infect eyelids because they can cling to eyelashes and cause blepharitis?

A

Pubic lice

73
Q

How do you acquire helminthes?

A

Through ingestion of larvae or eggs in food, soil or water (fecal-oral route)

74
Q

Ability to kill helminthes is limited. Why?

A

Eukaryotic

Eosinophilia

75
Q

What is an infection from ingestion of larvae of dog or cat roundworm?

A

Toxocara canis or
Toxocara catis
Causes scarring in retinal tissue similar to toxoplasmosis

76
Q

Helminthes like what kind of tissue?

A

Neural tissue

therefore it likes the eye

77
Q

What helminth is transmitted by biting female black flies? What is the disease it can cause?

A 
Onchocerca volvulus
River blindness (Onchocerciasis)
78
Q

Which nematodes are elongated, spread by biting arthropods, complete life cycle in blood, lymph or skin?

A

Filarial Worms

79
Q

What filarial worm is spread by mosquitoes, blocks lymphatic circulation, migrates to eye and causes elephantiasis?

A

Bancroftian Filariasis

80
Q

What is the African eye worm?

A

Loa loa

81
Q

What filarial worms are temperature sensitive, spread by bite of deer fly, and like conjunctiva?

A

Loa loa

82
Q

What are the most abundant microbes on earth?

A

viruses

83
Q

Are viruses living?

A

No

84
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious disease?

A

Viruses

85
Q

What viruses are the largest?

A

DNA viruses

86
Q

What are viruses?

A

Obligate intracellular parasites

87
Q

Can you ever eradicate a virus?

A

No

88
Q

What is course of virus?

A

Infects particular cell or can be born with it
Infects Tissues
Reproduces
Evokes immune response
Lytic cycle - multiplies slowly and causes little or no disease for long period
Lifetime infection
Virus enters dormant phase
then reactivates in recurrent infections (comorbidity of viruses)

89
Q

Which viruses cause cancer?

A

Oncogenic ones:

HPV (Cervical Cancer)

90
Q

What are the enveloped DNA viruses?

A

Poxvirus (chicken pox, smallpox)
Herpes
HepaDNA (hepatitis)
“Envelope” constantly mutates from person to person

91
Q

What illness is caused by highly contagious, flat papules, transmitted by direct contact, spreads easily if not treated and infects skin (common around eye)? Treatment is by freezing, electrocautery, chemical agents (but not on eyelids)

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

92
Q

What viruses are very common, people are infected soon after birth from mother, shows up typically around mouth because mother kisses baby, reoccurs in immunocompromised hosts, have for life

A

Herpes Simplex
Cold sore (can be activated by UV light, stress, mechanical injury)
Varicella Zoster - chicken pox

93
Q

What is a latent virus that resides in the fifth cranial nerve trigeminal ganglion, vesicles appear on scalp, face, eyebrows, lids, nose, mouth and chin, antibody levels keep in check until immune status drops then returns

A

Herpes Simplex I

94
Q

What virus is caused by herpes simplex, is a neurotropic virus, has a dendritic pattern, if travels to cornea and is often misdiagnosed

A

Herpetic Keratitis

Herpes of the cornea

95
Q

What causes inflammation of the liver and the accumulation of bile and leads to jaundice

A

Viral hepatitis

96
Q

Primary infection of varicella zoster, infects dorsal root ganglia, get vesicles all over body, DNA virus that enters neurons and remains for life, tranmitted by respiratory droplets

A

Chicken pox

97
Q

Reactivation of varicella zoster from ganglion cell bodies, common in older adults or immunosuppressed, usu. occur along path of one nerve root, extremely painful!

A

Shingles

98
Q

What are the herpes viruses?

A

Herpes Simplex I - above waist
Herpes Simplex II - below waist
transmitted mucus membrane to mucus membrane
Varicella Zoster (DNA virus) - chicken pox
ubiquitous

99
Q

What is worst thing to do for someone with a herpes infection?

A

Suppress the immune system (via steriods, UV light)

100
Q

What is the DNA virus that causes inflammation of the liver, accumulation of bile that leads to jaundice or icterus

A

Hepatitis B (viral)

101
Q

What is yellowing of the conjunctiva/sclera?

A

Icterus

102
Q

What virus causes common respiratory illness spread by autoinfecting (mucus membranes), mutates rapidly, and is transmitted easily

A

Adnovirus

103
Q

What is the most common cause of pink eye?

A

Epidemic Keratoconjunctivitis (EKC)

104
Q

What virus is caused by Adnovirus 8 and 19?

A

EKC

105
Q

Where is the lymphatic drainage for the eye?

A

Preauricular node (in front of ear)

106
Q

What non-enveloped virus causes bumps?

A

Papilloma viruses

107
Q

What is bad about papilloma viruses?

A

They are chronic viral infections, oncogenic

108
Q

What are eyelid warts?

A

Verruca vulgaris

Papilloma virus

109
Q

What viruses attach and multiply in respiratory tract cells and takes a piece of cell membrane as it’s envelope

A

RNA viruses

110
Q

What is an orthomyxovirus?

A

Highly contagious respiratory illness
Influenza
3 types: A, B, C
Type A is most common (seasonal flu)

111
Q

How many people are affected by influenza each year?

A

5-20% of population is affected annually
40,000 people or more die
Top 10 cause of death in the US

112
Q

What contagious RNA morbillivirus invades the respiratory tract and causes sore throat, dry cough, headache, conjunctivitis, lymphadenitis, fever, and koplik spots in throat?

A

Measles - Rubeola

113
Q

What virus permanently integrates itself into host DNA, makes DNA from RNA, enters through mucous membrane, and infects T4 helper cells shutting down lymphocytes

A

HIV - retrovirus

114
Q

What virus causes the common cold, is spread through respiratory droplets and direct contact?

A

Rhinovirus

115
Q

Goal is to use natural or synthetic drugs developed to destroy infective agents with harming the host’s cells

A

Antibiotic and Antimicrobial Therapy

116
Q

What are the metabolic products of aerobic bacteria and fungi that are fighting for nutrients and space with other microbes?

A

Antimicrobial drugs;

examples are pencillium, streptomyces, bacillus, cephalosporium

117
Q

How do antibiotic and antimicrobial drugs work? What is the action of the drug?

A 
Inhibit cell wall
Break cell membrane
Inhibit Nucleic Acid Synthesis, structure or function
Inhibit protein synthesis
Block key metabolic pathways
118
Q

Different antibiotics can kill different classes of bacteria

A

Drug spectrum

119
Q

Effective on very small range of microbes; targets specific cell component found only in certain microbes

A

Narrow spectrum

120
Q

Effective on greatest range of microbes; targets cell components common to most pathogens (ribosomes)

A

Broad spectrum

121
Q

What is most effective way to kill bacteria?

A

Disrupt bacterial cell wall

122
Q

What drugs are used to target phospholipids in Gram negative bacteria?

A

Polymyxins (polysporin, neosporin)

123
Q

What drugs disrupt nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Antiparasitic (chloroquine, anti-malarial drugs)

124
Q

What drugs inhibit DNA helicases?

A

Quinolones

125
Q

Ribosomes in prokaryotes differs from eukaryotes. How?

A

ribosomes are different

126
Q

What drugs block protein synthesis on 30S subunit and cause misreading of mRNA?

A

aminoglycosides (streptomycin,gentamicin)

127
Q

Drugs acting on prokaryotic ribosomes, can do what?

A

Damage eukaryotic mitochondria

128
Q

What drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in gram negative rods (found in soil) ?

A

Aminoglydosides (tobramycin)

129
Q

What drugs block attachment of tRNA on acceptor site to stop synthesis?

A

Tetracyclines

130
Q

What is problem with tetracycline?

A

Affects developing teeth and bones

Don’t give to children

131
Q

What is it called when a drug competes with normal substrates for enzyme active sites?

A

Competitive Inhibition

132
Q

What occurs when the effects of antibiotic combinations are greater than either alone?

A

Synergistic Effect

Ex: trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Septra)

133
Q

What drugs interfere with cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-lactam antimicrobials

ex: penicillins

134
Q

What is someone that had untreated strep susceptible of getting?

A

rheumatic fever (affects heart valves)

135
Q

Who discovered penicillin?

A

Alexander Fleming in 1929

136
Q

What route was natural penicillin given by?

A

Injection

Mold was killed by stomach acid if taken orally

137
Q

What were developed to make oral versions of penicillin or to make a side group less capable of being destroyed by penicillinase?

A

Semisynthetic penicillins

138
Q

What are the natural penicillins?

A

G and V (oral)

139
Q

What was penicillin given for?

A

gram positive: strep, staph and some gram negative: syphilis and meningococci

140
Q

Some strains of bacteria are penicillin resistant and produce enzyme that deactivates it. What are some examples of penicillinase-resistant penicillins?

A

Methicillin
Nafcillin
Cloxacillin
Floxacillin

141
Q

What is cephalosporin?

A

Another mold found in a sewer
Kills bacteria cell wall (bactericidal)
Ex: Cephalothin, Cefazolin

142
Q

2nd generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefaclor

Cefonacid

143
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins?

A

Cephalexin

Ceftriaxone

144
Q

4th generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefepime

Must be used sparingly

145
Q

What drugs are cell wall inhibitors that are used in the eye? They are toxic (kill all gut bacteria), but when used topically on eye, are safe

A

Vancomycin

146
Q

What drugs inhibit cell walls but are not taken orally because very toxic?

A

Bacitracin
Neomycin
Polymixin
Together are Neosporin

147
Q

What drug inhibits DNA or RNA?

A

Isoniazid (INH) for TB

148
Q

What drug binds to DNA gyrase to inactivate topoisomerase IV?

A

Fluoroquinolones
Ex: Nalidixic Acid
take with cranberry juice

149
Q

What are the 5 ophthalmic fluoroquinolones?

A 
Ofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Gatifloxacin (Zymar)
Moxifloxacin (Vigamox)
150
Q

What drugs block synthesis of folic acid?

A

Sulfoamides

151
Q

What drugs are good bacterial static drugs for burns?

A

silver sulfadiazine

152
Q

What drugs are the most prescribed ocular antibiotics?

A

Fluoroquinolones

153
Q

What drug blocks peptide bond formation and protein synthesis?

A

Chloramphenicol

Not used anymore because it suppresses stem cells from producing RBCs (aplastic anemia)!

154
Q

What drugs work against aerobic gram negative bacilli?

A

Aminoglycosides

155
Q

What drugs block ribosomes and are used in combination with antiinflammatory agents, have been replaced by fluoroquinolones?

A

Aminoglycosides

156
Q

What drugs attach to ribosomal 50s subunit, are broad-spectrum and low in toxicity?

A

Macrolides: Erythromycin

157
Q

What drugs are effective against gram positive bacteria because interfere with assembly of cell wall, are broad-spectrum and toxic

A

Glycopeptides: Vancomycin (only taken by IV or injection)

Ocular Pathology & Pharmacology 1 (3 decks)

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