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ABBEY MSII Unit 2 > GOLJY SKIN. > Flashcards

GOLJY SKIN. Flashcards

1
Q

stratum basalis

A

actively dividing stem cells along BM; mitoses limited to this area

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2
Q

stratum spinosum

A

contains desmosome attachments

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3
Q

stratum granulosum

A

granular layer with keratohyaline granules

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4
Q

stratum corneum

A

anucleate cells with keratin –> site for superficial dermatophyte infections

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5
Q

embryonic origin of melanocytes

A

neural crest

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6
Q

melanin is synthesized from (1) in (2)

A

(1) tyrosine (2) melanosomes

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7
Q

differences in skin color of whites vs. blacks

A

whites - melanin is degraded faster and melanomsomes concentrated to basal layer. blacks = melanosomes present in all layers; melanocytes are larger with more dendritic processes = NUMBER of melanocytes is essentially the same in ALL races

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8
Q

macule

A

pigmented or erythematous FLAT lesion on epidermis ex. tinea versicolor

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9
Q

papule

A

peaked or dome-shaped surface elevation

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10
Q

nodule

A

elevated, dome-shaped lesion > 5 mm in diameter ex. basal cell carcinoma

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11
Q

plaque

A

flattened, elevated area on epidermis > 5 mm in diameter ex. psoriasis

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12
Q

vesicle

A

fluid-filled blister

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13
Q

bulla

A

fluid-filled blister > 5 mm in diameter ex. bullous pemphigoid

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14
Q

pustule

A

fluid-filed blister with inflammatory cells ex. impetigo

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15
Q

wheal (hive)

A

edematous, transient papule or plaque caused by infiltration of dermis by fluid ex. urticaria

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16
Q

scales

A

excessive number of dead keratinocytes produced by abnormal keratinization ex. seborrheic dermatitis

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17
Q

hyperkeratosis

A

increased thickness of stratum corneum produces scaly appearance of skin ex. psoriasis

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18
Q

parakeratosis

A

persistence of nuclei in stratum corneum layer ex. psoriasis

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19
Q

papillomatosis

A

spire-like projections from surface of skin or downward into papillary dermis

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20
Q

acantholysis

A

loss of cohesion between keratinocytes ex. pemphigus vulgaris

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21
Q

common wart is caused by..

A

human papillomavirus (HPV: DNA virus)

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22
Q

treatment of common warts

A

(1) cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen (2) salicylic acid, trichloroacetic acid
(3) imiquimod (induces cytokines)

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23
Q

molluscum contagiosum is caused by..

A

poxvirus - DNA virus

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24
Q

molluscum contagiosum

A

bowl shaped lesions with central keratin filled depression containing viral particles (molluscum bodies)

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25
Q

transmission of molluscum contagiosum

A

sexually transmitted in adults (esp. AIDs patients): self-inoculation by scratchin

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26
Q

treatment of molluscum contagiosum

A

if immunocompetent = 6-9 months, spontaneous remission; cryotherapy

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27
Q

what causes rubeola?

A

RNA paramyxovirus causes “regular” measles

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28
Q

clinical features of rubeola measles

A

(1) prodrome = fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis (2) Koplik spots on buccal mucosa
(3) maculopapular rash after spots disappear

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29
Q

pattern of rash in rubeola measles

A

starts on head then moves to trunk and extremities - confluent on trunk but discrete on extremities

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30
Q

complications of rubeola measles

A

(1) giant cell pneumonia - Warthin-Finkeldey multinucleated giant cells (2) acute appendicitis
(3) otitis media
(4) encephalitis

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31
Q

what causes rubella?

A

german “3 day” measles –> RNA toga virus

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32
Q

clinical features of rubella

A

(1) Forchheimer’s spots (2) maculopapular rash lasts 3 days
(3) painful post-auricular lymphadenopathy
(4) polyarthritis -common in adults
(5) congenital anomalies

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33
Q

Forchheimer’s spots

A

dusky red spots that develop on posterior soft/hard palate that develop at the beginning of the rash in rubella measles

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34
Q

pattern of rash in rubella (german measles)

A

begins first at hairline and rapidly spread cephalocaudally; macules/papules are discrete (not confluent) and it fades in 3 days

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35
Q

which one is teratogenic? rubeola or rubella?

A

RUBELLA

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36
Q

erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) is caused by..

A

parvovirus B19 - DNA virus

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37
Q

clinical features of erythema infectiosum

A

(1) most often in school-aged children (2) net-like erythema type of rash that begins on cheeks (slapped face) and extends to trunk and proximal extremities
(3) adults - polyarthritis

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38
Q

which two viruses cause polyarthritis in adults?

A

rubella; parvovirus

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39
Q

roseola infantum is caused by..

A

human herpesvirus 6 (DNA virus)

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40
Q

MC viral exanthem in children

A

roseola infantum

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41
Q

clinical features of roseola infantum

A

(1) erythematous macules on soft palata 48 hours before rash (2) maculopapular rash occurs abruptly after 3-7 days of high fever –> common cause of febrile convulsions

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42
Q

where does varicella-zoster virus remain latent?

A

in cranial and thoracic sensory ganglia

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43
Q

when is patient infectious with varicella (chickenpox)?

A

one week before rash starts and one week after rash until vesicles becomes crusted

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44
Q

characteristics of varicella (chickenpox) rash

A

(1) pruritic - progresses from macules to vesicles to pustules (2) all stages are present simultaneously
(3) lesions are most prominent on trunk

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45
Q

complications of varicella (chickenpox) in children

A

(1) associated with Reye syndrome (2) self-limited cerebellitis

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46
Q

complications of varicella (chickenpox) in adults

A

(1) pneumonia (2) encephalitis

(3) hepatitis

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47
Q

clinical feature of herpes zoster (shingles)

A

prodrome of radicular pain and itching before rash occurs’; painful vesicles/pustules follow sensory dermatomes

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48
Q

treatment for herpes zoster (shingles)

A

prevention with immunization; analgesics for pain; acyclovir/valacyclovir/famiciclovir - immunocompromised pts

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49
Q

toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST from staph aureus –> produces fever, hypotension along with desquamating, sunburn like rash

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50
Q

hidradenitis suppurativa

A

chronic conditions caused by staph aureus with swollen, painful, inflamed apocrine glands (axillae, groin) with the presence of sinus tracts

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51
Q

common staph aureus skin infections

A

abscess; post-surgical wound infections; hidradenitis; impetigo

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52
Q

2nd MCC of impetigo

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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53
Q

impetigo

A

rash usually begins on face with vesicles/pustules that rupture to form honey-colored, crusted lesions

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54
Q

scarlet fever

A

pt is febrile with sore throat –> erythematous, sand-papery rash beginning on face and neck and spreads; after 6 days it desquamates

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55
Q

strawberry tongue

A

in scarlet fever, the tongue is covered by white exudate studded with prominent red papillae; when white disappears, tongue is beefy red

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56
Q

treatment of scarlet fever

A

penicillin V

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57
Q

erysipelas

A

cellulitis with raised borders and surface appears like orange peel; surface is hot and bright red –> usually on face and lower extremities

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58
Q

tuberculoid leprosy

A

(1) granulomas present (2) positive lepromin skin test - intact cellular immunity
(3) localized skin lesions with nerve involvement
- anesthetic macules with hypopigmentation
- digital amputation

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59
Q

patient comes in with nodular lesions on his face but with a negative lepromin skin test – you test further, and learn there is no granulomas but numerous bacteria are present within foamy macrophages –> what does he have? and how do you treat this?

A

lepromatous type of leprosy w/ classic leonine facies -Tx. Dapsone + Rifampin + Clofazimine

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60
Q

acne vulgaris

A

chronic inflammation of pilosebaceous unit - propionibacterium acnes produces bacterial lipase which makes irritating fatty acids responsible for inflammation

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61
Q

non-inflamed comedones

A

plugging of outlet of hair follicle by keratin debris open = blackhead; closed = whitehead

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62
Q

superficial mycoses (dermatophytoses)

A

fungal infection of stratum corneum or its adnexal structures; usually occur in warm, humid climates and present with scaling rash

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63
Q

diagnosis of superficial mycoses

A

Wood’s lamp (UVA fluorescent light) and KOH

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64
Q

superficial fungal infection of scalp

A

tinea capitis

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65
Q

MCC of tinea capitis in blacks that also has a negative Wood’s lamp reaction

A

trichophyton tonsurans- infects inner hair shaft

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66
Q

MCC of tinea capitis in whites with a positive Wood’s lamp reaction

A

microsporum canis/andouinii - infects outer hair shaft

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67
Q

clinical features of tinea capitis

A

circular or ring shaped patches of hair loss (alopecia) and black dot is present where hair breaks off

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68
Q

treatment for tinea capitis

A

oral terbinafine (oral imadizoles do not work)

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69
Q

MCC of all other tineas (other than capitis)

A

trichophyton rubrum - tx. with topical agents (miconazole, clotrimazole)

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70
Q

clinical features of tinea corporis

A

aka. ringworm - annular lesions with elevated, red, scaly border and tendency for central clearing

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71
Q

MC tinea infection

A

tinea pedis

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72
Q

tinea pedis (athletes foot)

A

usually caused by sweating - macerated scaling rash between the toes - in elderly, diffuse plantar scaling

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73
Q

“jock itch”

A

tinea cruris - also caused by excessive sweating and is marked by a rash that is not annular but has elevated, scaly borders

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74
Q

tinea unguium

A

nail onychomycosis = raised, discolored nail and the nail plate is white, thick and crumbly

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75
Q

treatment of onychomycosis

A

oral terbenafine –> topical agents do not work

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76
Q

patient comes in with alterations in skin pigmentation and complains of inability to tan and hyperpigmented, scaly skin in the winter months - diagnosis? treatment?

A

diagnosis = tinea versicolor. treatment = topical selenium sulfide or oral ketoconazole

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77
Q

which organism causes tinea versicolor?

A

malesezzia furfur - spaghetti and meatballs appearance on KOH smear

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78
Q

how does malesezzia furfur cause symptoms of tinea versicolor?

A

(1) fungus derived acids inhibit tyrosinase in melaoncytes from synthesizing melanin = hypopigmentation (2) fungus induces enlargement of melanosomes in melanocytes along basal cell layer = hyperpigmentation

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79
Q

intertrigo

A

erythematous rash in body folds caused by candida albicans ex. rash under breasts, diaper rash

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80
Q

which other organism can cause onychomycosis?

A

candida albicans

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81
Q

what other condition does malesezzia furfur cause?

A

seborrheic dermatitis aka. dandruff

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82
Q

seborrheic dermatitis is commonly associated with..

A

Parkinson’s disease - AIDs and AIDs-related complex

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83
Q

cradle cap in newborns

A

seborrheic dermatitis caused by m.furfur

84
Q

sporotrichosis

A

subcutaneous mycotic infection caused by sporothrix schenckii characterized by chain of suppurating lymphocutaneous nodules

85
Q

causes of sporotrichosis

A

traumatic implantation of fungus by rose gardening, sphagnum peat moss, splinters from carpentry work, landscapers, berry pickers

86
Q

treatment of sporotrichosis

A

(1) oral itraconazole (2) saturated solution of potassium iodide - poorly tolerated

87
Q

cutaneous larva migrans

A

caused by dog/cat hookworm = Ancylostoma braziliense - larva penetrate the skin (from sand) and produce serpiginous tunnels in skin with intense pruritus, scrathing and eosinophillia

88
Q

treatment of cutaneous larva migrans

A

ivermectin

89
Q

chiggers

A

small red mites that cause intense pruritic, red papular/uriticarial/vesicular rash on legs and areas of tight fitting clothing

90
Q

head lice

A

pediculus humanis capitis - lay eggs (nits) on hair shaft and cause itching of scalp

91
Q

body lice

A

pediculus humanis corporis - live on the surface of the skin and breed in clothing causing papular, itchy skin lesions

92
Q

bedbug

A

cimex leticularis –> commonly infest dwellings and feed on human blood (just before dawn, drawn by warmth and CO2) causing intensely pruritic red papules/wheals

93
Q

solar lentigo

A

brown macules located on sun-exposed areas in elderly - aka “liver spots” due to increased number of melanocytes

94
Q

normal number of melanocytes with increase in melanosomes seen in…

A

freckles

95
Q

vitiligo

A

autoimmune destruction of melanocytes causing areas of skin depigmentation –> common in blacks

96
Q

albinism

A

deficiency of tyrosinase leading to absence of melanin in melanocytes

97
Q

melasma

A

macular, hyperpigmented lesions on forehead and cheeks commonly associated with pregnancy, OCP use and sunlight in females

98
Q

treatment of melasma

A

application of hydroquinine to skin

99
Q

MC nevus in children

A

junctional nevus

100
Q

MC nevus in adults

A

intradermal nevus

101
Q

dysplastic nevus (atypical mole)

A

usually > 6 mm, variegated in color with an erythematous background and irregular borders

102
Q

dysplastic nevus syndrome

A

AD with > 100 nevi on the skin with most patients developing malignant melanoma

103
Q

leading cause of death due to skin cancer

A

melanoma (increasing in frequency)

104
Q

risk factors for malignant melanoma

A

(1) excessive sunlight exposure at an early age = most impt (2) history of a family mb with melanome
(3) use of tanning booths
(4) dysplastic nevus syndrome
(5) history of melanome in first/second degree relative
(6) xeroderma pigmentosum

105
Q

radial growth phase of melanoma

A

initial phase of invasion where it spreads laterally in papillary dermis with no metastatic potential

106
Q

vertical growth phase of melanoma

A

final phase of invasion where it penetrates the reticular dermis and with metastatic potential

107
Q

ABCD signs of malignant melanoma

A

Asymmetry; Borders - irregular; Color - changes; Diameter - increased > 6 mm

108
Q

superficial spreading melanoma

A

MC type of malignant melanoma = develops on lower extremities, arms and upper back

109
Q

lentigo maligna melanoma

A

common in elderly and occurs on parts of the face exposed to the sun; least likely to have vertical growth and thus, best prognosis

110
Q

nodular melanoma

A

no radial phase (only vertical) and can be found in sun-exposed areas, esp trunk; poor prognosis

111
Q

acral lentiginous melanoma

A

melanoma that is NOT UV-related and occurs on the palm, sole and beneat the nail; usually in Asians and Blacks

112
Q

prognosis of malignant melanoma depends on..

A

depth of invasion

113
Q

MC benign tumor of skin in old people

A

seborrheic keratoses = benign, pigmented epidermal tumor

114
Q

55 year old patient comes in complaining of macular/verrucoid lesions that have a stuck on appearance located on his face and shoulders - diagnosis?

A

seborrheic keratoses

115
Q

Leser-Trelat sign

A

rapid increase in number of keratoses which is a phenotypic marker for stomach adenocarcinoma

116
Q

your patient, who already has metabolic syndrome and PCOS, comes in to you complaining of a velvety, pigmented skin lesion on her axilla - diagnosis?

A

acanthosis nigricans - caused by excess insulin

117
Q

associations with acanthosis nigricans

A

(1) metabolic syndrome (2) insulin receptor deficiency
(3) PCOS
(4) MEN type IIb

118
Q

acanthosis nigricans can be a phenotypic marker for..

A

stomach cancer

119
Q

benign tumor that histologically mimics squamous cell carcinoma

A

keratoacanthoma

120
Q

keratoacanthoma

A

rapidly growing, dome-shaped nodules with a central keratin-filled crater that develops in males in sun-exposed areas; usually disappears on its own within 6 months

121
Q

epidermal inclusion cyst

A

benign cyst composed of normal epidermis of hair follicle that produces keratin intermixed with lipid-rich debris

122
Q

locations of epidermal inclusion cysts

A

face, base of ears and trunk

123
Q

pilar cyst (wen)

A

derived from hair root sheaths located on scalp and face - cyst wall lacks stratum granulosum and keratin has laminated appearance

124
Q

flesh-colored tag of skin with a stalk commonly occuring in elderly on neck, upper chest and upper back

A

fibroepithelial polyp aka skin tag

125
Q

actinic (solar) keratosis is associated with (1) and a precursor to (2)

A

(1) prolonged UV light exposure (2) squamous cell carcinoma

126
Q

what is actinic (solar) keratosis?

A

hyperkeratotic, pearly gray-white lesions that occur on face, back of neck and hands/forearms; these lesions commonly recur if scraped off

127
Q

treatment of actinic (solar) keratosis

A

topical therapy - 5-fluorouracil; cryotherapy

128
Q

MC malignant skin tumor

A

basal cell carcinoma

129
Q

features of basal cell carcinoma

A

raised papule/nodule with central crater and telengiectatic vessels that is a locally aggressive and infiltrating cancer (but does not metastasize) and it arises from basal cell layer of epidermis

130
Q

common locations of basal cell carcinoma

A

inner canthus of eye and upper lip; general rule = favor upper lip and higher

131
Q

risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma (6)

A

excessive exposure to UV light; actinic (solar) keratoses

arsenic exposure; scar tissue in 3rd degree burn; orifice of chronically draining sinus tract; immunosuppressive therapy

132
Q

MC cancer complicating immunosuppressive therapy

A

squamous cell carcinoma of skin

133
Q

common locations of squamous cell carcinoma of skin

A

ear, lower lip, dorsum of the hands - general rule - SCC favor lower lip

134
Q

prognosis in SCC

A

good - rarely metastasizes and complete excision is usually curative

135
Q

MC inherited skin disorder

A

ichthyosis vulgaris

136
Q

ichythosis vulgaris

A

AD defect in keratinization causing an increased thickness of stratum corneum and absent stratum granulosum

137
Q

clinical findings of ichythosis vulgaris

A

hyperkeratotic dry skin involving the palms, soles and extensor areas

138
Q

MCC of pruritus and dry skin in elderly

A

xerosis –> due to decrease in skin lipids

139
Q

age-related changes in the skin of elderly patients

A

DECREASED: number of hair follicles/sweat glands, thickness of epidermis, dermal collagen/elastic tissue, subcutaneous fat INCREASED: cross-linking of collagen and elastic tissue

140
Q

a black patient comes in with erythematous macules and vesicles that are pruritic and painful; he has not taken any drugs recently and the rash worsens upon exposure to sunlight - diagnosis?

A

polymorphous light eruption

141
Q

treatment of polymorphous light eruption

A

broad-spectrum high-potency sunscreen against UVA and UVB along with vitamin E; topical steroids

142
Q

acute eczema

A

characterized by weeping and erythematous rash with vesicles

143
Q

chronic eczema

A

dry, thickened skin (hyperkeratosis) caused by continual scratching

144
Q

atopic dermatitis

A

type 1 IgE mediated HS reaction with dry skin and eczema - in children = cheeks, extensor/flexural surfaces
- in adults = hands, eyelids, elbows and knees

145
Q

allergic contact dermatitis

A

type IV HS reaction ex. poison ivy, nickel jewelry

146
Q

contact photodermatitis

A

UV light reacts with drugs that have photosensitizing effect ex. tetracycline

147
Q

chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus

A

atrophy of epidermis due to DNA-anti DNA immunocomplex deposition in BM, along with degeneration of basal cells and hair shafts

148
Q

clinical findings in chronic cutaneous lupus

A

erythematous maculopapular eruption (butterfly rash) that is exacerbated by UV light

149
Q

treatment for chronic cutaneous lupus

A

antimalarials

150
Q

what is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

IgG antibodies against IC attachment sites (desmosomes) between keratinocytes = type II HS reaction

151
Q

features of pemphigus vulgaris

A

(1) vesicles/bullae develop on skin/oral mucosa (2) intraepithelial vesicles located above basal layer
(3) acantholysis of keratinocytes in vesicle fluid
(4) positive Nikolsky sign - outer epidermis seperates from basal layer with minimal pressure

152
Q

treatment of pemphigus vulgaris

A

corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents

153
Q

what is bullous pemphigoid?

A

IgG antibodies against BM - type II HS reaction

154
Q

features of bullous pemphigoid

A

(1) subepidermal vesicles develop on skin/oral mucosa (2) no acantholytic cells in vesicle fluid
(3) negative Nikolsky sign
(4) presence of eosinophils

155
Q

treatment of bullous pemphigoid

A

usually subsides after months/years but may require systemic steroids in resistant cases

156
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis

A

IgA-anti-IgA complexes deposit at tips of dermal papillae forming subepidermal vesicles with neutrophils

157
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with..

A

celiac sprue - increase in antireticulin and endomysial ab’s

158
Q

treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis

A

gluten free diet, dapsone or sulfapyridine

159
Q

what is lichen planus?

A

intensely pruritic, scaly, violet, flat topped papules with fine white reticular pattern on surface (Wickham’s striae)

160
Q

Koebner’s phenomenon

A

rash commonly develops in areas of trauma or excessive scratching of the skin ex. lichen planus, psoriasis

161
Q

lichen planus is associated with (1) and slightly increases your risk of (2)

A

(1) hepatitis C (2) squamous cell carcinoma

162
Q

treatment of lichen planus

A

topical, high potency corticosteroids, antihistamines, systemic corticosteroids, retinoids, cyclosporine - resistant cases

163
Q

epidemiology of psoriasis

A

1%-3% of population, peak age onset is bimodal (adolescents and > 60), strong HLA association

164
Q

pathogenesis of psoriasis

A

unregulated proliferation (hyperplasia) of keratinocytes

165
Q

aggravating factors of psoriasis (4)

A

(1) strep pharyngitis (2) HIV
(3) drugs: lithium, B-blockers, NSAIDs
(4) scratching the skin

166
Q

what does psoriasis look like?

A

well-demarcated, flat or elevated salmon-colored plaques covered by adherent white-silver colored scales; majority of patients also have nail pitting

167
Q

microscopic findings in psoriasis

A

(1) hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis (2) elongation of rete pegs - downward extension of basal layer
(3) Auspitz sign - blood vessels in dermis rupture when scales picked off
(4) munro microabscesses - neutrophil collections in stratum corneum

168
Q

herald patch (plaque) on trunk followed by pruritic rash in “christmas tree” distribution (follows lines of cleavage) that resolves in 2-10 weeks

A

pityriasis rosea

169
Q

pityriasis rosea is frequently misdiagnosed as..

A

tinea corporis “ringworm”

170
Q

rash with targetoid appearance located on palms, soles and extensor surfaces

A

erythema multiforme

171
Q

triggers of erythema multiforme

A

infection - mycoplasma pneumoniae, HSV. drugs - sulfonamides, penicillin, barbiturates, phenytoin

172
Q

fatal form of EM that involves the skin and mucous membranes

A

Stevens- Johnson syndrome

173
Q

treatment of EM

A

systemic corticosteroids - treat triggering infection or discontinue drug

174
Q

raised, erythematous painful nodules usually on anterior shins that are an inflammatory lesion of subcutnaeous fat (panniculitis)

A

erythema nodosum

175
Q

common associations with erythema nodosum

A

coccidiomycosis, histoplasmosis, TB, leprosy, strep pharyngitis, Yersinia enterocolitica, sarcoidosis, UC, pregnancy and OCP

176
Q

chronic inflammatory dermal disorder with erythematous papules/plaques on dorsum of hands/feet associated with DM

A

granuloma annulare - usually spontaneously resolves but can give topic steroids

177
Q

porphyria cutanea tarda

A

deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (urine is red and uroporphyrin I is increased in urine); precipitated by HCV, excessive alcohol, OCPs and iron

178
Q

CF in porphyria cutanea tarda

A

photosensitive bullous skin lesions, hyperpigmentation, fragile skin, hypertrichosis - increased body hair

179
Q

treatment of porphyria cutanea tarda

A

avoid alcohol and OCPs, phlebotomy - decreases iron, chloroquine

180
Q

dermatographism

A

urticaria develops in areas of mechanical pressure on skin

181
Q

urticaria

A

pruritic elevations of skin due to mast cell release of histamine (Type I IgE mediated HS reaction) associated with exposure to certain foods, insect bites, drugs, emotional stress

182
Q

cherry angioma

A

tiny bright red papules that invariably occur in all individuals > 30 years old; no treatment necessary

183
Q

demodex folliculorum causes inflammatory reaction of pilosebaceous units of facial skin with pustules/flushing of cheeks and sebaceous gland hyperplasia resulting in rhinophyma (enlarged nose)

A

acne rosacea - exacerbated by alcohol, stress, eating spicy food

184
Q

treatment of acne rosacea

A

topical metronidazole gel. systemic - isoretinoin, tetracycline

185
Q

ulcerative cutaneous condition associated with systemic disease i.e. IBD, MPD, monoclonal gammopathy, seronegative spondylarthropathy, RA

A

pyoderma gangrenosum

186
Q

pathogenesis of pyoderma gangrenosum

A

dysregulation of immune system - may be initiated by trauma and neutrophil dysfunction is often present

187
Q

clinical findings in pyoderma gangrenosum

A

small red pustule/papule that ulcerates and enlarges and is reminiscent of a brown recluse spider bite with violaceous border that overhangs the ulcer crater

188
Q

self-limited benign eruption of erythematous papules, macules and pustules all over (except palms and soles) in full-term newborns

A

erythema toxicum

189
Q

hyperplastic sebaceous glands producing profuse yellow-white papules in newborns

A

sebaceous hyperplasia

190
Q

superficial epidermal inclusion cysts forming pearly white papules on face, gingiva and midline of palate and gingiva in newborns

A

milia - Epstein’s pearls (contain laminated keratin material)

191
Q

pinpoint clear vesicles that are sweat occluded in eccrine sweat glands that are usually associated with warm, humid conditions or fever

A

Miliaria Crystallina

192
Q

retention of sweat in occluded eccrine sweat glands that manifests as erythematous, minute papulovesicles that impart prickly sensation

A

Miliaria rubra

193
Q

both types of miliaria respond dramatically to..

A

cooling or removal of excess clothing

194
Q

bluish-black spots that usually occur in dark-skinned babies on their buttocks, back, shoulders and legs

A

mongolian spot

195
Q

anagen phase of hair growth

A

development of new shaft of hair comes from hair bulb; growth stops at end of this phase and thus, determines hair length

196
Q

telogen phase of hair growth

A

resting phase of hair growth where matrix portion shrivels and hair falls out of follicle

197
Q

effect of estrogen on hair growth

A

causes synchronous hair growth - all hair enters the resting phase at once –> risk for massive hair loss

198
Q

risks for massive hair loss

A

post partum, OCPs, stress, radiation/chemo

199
Q

well-circumscribed, round-oval patches of hair loss that have the appearance of exclamation marks; regrows over several months but may recur

A

alopecia areata

200
Q

treatment of alopecia areata

A

topical - clobetasol, intralesional triamcinolone, systemic steroids, psoralen + UVA

201
Q

nails in iron deficiency

A

koilonychia - spoon nails

202
Q

nails in psoriasis

A

pitting

203
Q

mees lines

A

signs of arsenic poisoning and systemic illness of any kind - transverse white lines in the nail plate that extend proximally until they are pared off

204
Q

Beau’s lines

A

transverse grooves or depression parallel to lunula - caused by conditions that cause the nail to grow slowly (infection, nutritional disorders, hypothyroidism)

205
Q

sunungual hematoma

A

blood clot under nail plate due to trauma - confused with acral lentiginous melanoma

ABBEY MSII Unit 2 (19 decks)

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