45 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1, What is the minimum time a wet riser should operate for?

A

45 minutes at 1500 LPM

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2
Q

2, What additional resources should be requested to improve safety at a water rescue incident?

A

FRU swift water rescue technicians

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3
Q

3, when working near water when you have concerns of crews entering water, what additional safety measures would you put in place?

A

Nominate a safety throw line officer in full PPE.

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4
Q

4, what is the first stage of management action you would take under attendance management?

A

Attendance support meeting

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5
Q

5, in what circumstances would there be more then one operational commander?

A

Greater spans of control and geographical location of operational area

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6
Q

6, Who is the is the sector command command support responsible for?

A

Command team and functional officers

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7
Q

7, Who is responsible for mobilising at the forward control point?

A

Group Manager mobilising officer

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8
Q

8, You have been mobilised as station manager and booked status 3 to monitor an incident, when can you leave the incident?

A

When there is an achievable plan in place and no further resources are required

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9
Q

9, What type of person is PIDA in place to protect?

A

To be a ‘protected disclosure’ under PIDA, the disclosure must be made by “employees” who must reasonably believe that the disclosure is in the public interest

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10
Q

10, Who can authorise committing people to a radiation incident?

A

Scientific advisor or HMEPO for over 5msv ph

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11
Q

11, What is the purpose of the FCP?

A

A point from which multi agencies can exercise their authority (specialist trained in MTFA for a joint response)

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12
Q

12, what aerial appliance cannot be used as a DRM?

A

Turntable Ladder

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13
Q

13, Who can declare an area safe at the end of an incident involving asbestos containing materials?

A

Premises responsible person

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14
Q

14, what action should you take on discovering a failed composite cylinder at an incident?

A

Allow to burn off and protect surrounding risks

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15
Q

15, who authority is it to commit emergency BA teams to an incident if required?

A

BAECO

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16
Q

16, At what period of absence would you consider someone for the capability procedure?

A

6 months

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17
Q

17, At an incident with a temporary station manager in charge, and a substantive SM attends who takes charge?

A

No change

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18
Q

18, you are mobilised as an SM to monitor can you return when you hear the stop?

A

No, once you are mobilised and brigade recourses are in place you must attend.

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19
Q

19, who is responsible for mobilising the RRT to an incident?

A

RRT team leader via a risk assessment

20
Q

20, you are at an underground train incident and experiencing intermittent radio signal, what action do you take?

A

Deploy crews to the next station platform

21
Q

45, what is foreground channel 10 used for?

A

Command support teams

22
Q

21, can an FSG call be terminated by control?

A

In exceptional circumstances under the direction of the officer in charge at control

23
Q

22, where can you get vehicle data on the MDT?

24
Q

23, what is the minimum time a stage 2 can be held after notice is given?

A

No less then 10 days

25
24, after what period of time does sickness become long term?
28 days or more
26
25, After what time must an informative be sent at reliefs?
60 minutes or less
27
26, you attend a small fire in a shed, the person has received only light smoke inhalation. What type of stop do you send?
Full stop
28
27, who is mobilised to the forward control point during a civil disturbance?
Station manager
29
28, Who is overall in charge at a MTFA?
Police incident commander
30
29, what action do you take on signs and symptoms of a backdraft or flashover?
Withdraw crews and attack externally
31
30, at a cylinder involved incident, what distance would you advise public to stay in their property and close Windows and doors?
100m
32
31, what do you do with a key decision log form when a command unit arrives?
Transfer copy to CSS and keep original copy
33
32, who is responsible for regulating waste sites?
The environment agency
34
33, what must be in place before tacking a ducting fire at the outlet?
Salvage plan
35
34, premises exempt from the regulatory reform (Fire safety) order 2005.
Single private dwelling
36
35, what are the triggers for the first attendance support meeting?
3 separate instances or 6 working days
37
36, what is the minimum distance at an MTFA if no RVP is set?
1000m
38
37, who is responsible for mobilising at a specific event?
BCC at HQ
39
38, who has responsibility for entering and exiting the inner or outer cordon at a major incident?
Police
40
39, in order to comply with the LFB counter fraud strategy and support the authorities aims, what must employees do?
Detect fraud where it is not prevented and seek redress to recover all funds obtained by fraud
41
40, at what incidents must you carry out a PRO?
Persons reported Persons confirmed trapped All make ups
42
41, can you have more then one tactical mode in a sector?
No
43
42, who is responsible for discharging brigade authority on the incident ground?
Incident commander
44
43, who can declare a terrorist incident?
Police control room
45
44, when can advice given during a fire survival guidance be changed?
Under direction of the incident commander in exceptional circumstances