Anemias & Hematopoietic Growth Factors; L1 (11-06-15) Flashcards

1
Q

Iron basic pharmacology

Approximate distribution:
\_\_% in hemoglobin
\_\_% in myoglobin
\_\_% stored as ferritin and hemosiderin
\_\_% in enzymes (e.g. cytochromes), and transferrin
A

Iron basic pharmacology

Approximate distribution:
70% in hemoglobin
10% in myoglobin
10-20% stored as ferritin and hemosiderin
Less than 1% in enzymes (e.g. cytochromes), and transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Iron basic pharmacology

Intake:
-Average US diet contains __ mg of which __ mg is absorbed.

A

Iron basic pharmacology

Intake:
-Average US diet contains 10-15 mg of which 0.5-1 mg is absorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Iron basic pharmacology

Absorption:

1) __ iron is absorbed intact from __ and __
2) __ iron must be reduced to __ iron (Fe2+)
3) The __ form is absorbed through DMT1 by active transport
4) Within mucosal cell, ferrous iron is converted to ____
5) Iron leaves the mucosal cell by passing through __
6) __ down-regulates __ and regulates iron absorption

A

Iron basic pharmacology

Absorption:

1) Heme iron is absorbed intact from duodenum and jejunum
2) Non-heme iron must be reduced to ferrous iron (Fe2+)
3) The ferrous form is absorbed through DMT1 by active transport
4) Within mucosal cell, ferrous iron is converted to ferric (Fe3+)
5) Iron leaves the mucosal cell by passing through ferroportin
6) Hepcidin down-regulates ferroportin and regulates iron absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Iron basic pharmacology

Fate:

1) In case of __, ferric iron is bound to __ for immediate transport via the blood to bone marrow
2) Stored as __ or __ in liver and spleen
3) __ in plasma is in equilibrium with body storage and can be used to estimate total body stores

A

Iron basic pharmacology

Fate:

1) In case of demand, ferric iron is bound to transferrin for immediate transport via the blood to bone marrow
2) Stored as ferritin or hemosiderin in liver and spleen
3) Ferritin in plasma is in equilibrium with body storage and can be used to estimate total body stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Iron basic pharmacology

Balance:

1) Maintained by changes in __ regulated by the concentrations of __ and __ in mucosal cells
2) In iron deficiency, __ goes up, __ goes down
3) In iron overload, __ goes down, __ goes up

A

Iron basic pharmacology

Balance:

1) Maintained by changes in absorption regulated by the concentrations of transferrin and ferritin in mucosal cells
2) In iron deficiency, transferrin goes up, ferritin goes down
3) In iron overload, transferrin goes down, ferritin goes up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Indication for iron therapy: prevention or tx of iron deficiency anemia (__ __ anemia)

1) __ requirements: a) frequently present in __ infants; b) children during __ period; c) __ and __ women
2) __ absorption: post-__ or severe __ disease
3) __ loss: a) __; b) occult __

A

Indication for iron therapy: prevention or tx of iron deficiency anemia (microcytic hypochromic anemia)

1) Increased requirements: a) frequently present in premature infants; b) children during rapid growth period; c) pregnant and lactating women
2) Inadequate absorption: post-gastrectomy or severe bowel disease
3) Blood loss: a) menstruation; b) occult GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Iron therapy

1) __ preparations: a) only __ (sulfate, gluconate, fumarate); b) response within __, normal in __; c) adverse effects: __ (take with or after meals); __ may obscure recognition of GI bleeding
2) __ iron therapy: a) usually iron __, deep i.m. or i.v. infusion (also iron __ and iron ____); b) indicated post-__/__ resection, __ syndromes, intolerance of __; c) adverse effects: local __ and tissue __ with i.m.; headache, fever, nausea, vomiting, __, __, __, __, __ (rare)

A

Iron therapy

1) Oral preparations: a) only ferrous salts (sulfate, gluconate, fumarate); b) response within a week, normal in 1-3 months; c) adverse effects: GI distress (take with or after meals); black stool may obscure recognition of GI bleeding
2) Parenteral iron therapy: a) usually iron dextran, deep i.m. or i.v. infusion (also iron sucrose and iron sodium gluconate); b) indicated post-gastrectomy/small bowel resection, malabsorption syndromes, intolerance of oral preps; c) adverse effects: local pain and tissue staining with i.m.; headache, fever, nausea, vomiting, back pain, arthralgias, urticaria, bronchospasm, anaphylaxis/death (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Iron clinical toxicity

Acute (___ of iron tablets):

1) May be fatal in __
2) __ gastroenteritis
3) After short improvement, __, __, and __
3) Tx: a) gastric __, lavage with __ or __ solution; b) activated charcoal is __; c) __, a potent iron chelating substance, i.m. or i.v.

A

Iron clinical toxicity

Acute (accidental ingestion of iron tablets):

1) May be fatal in small children
2) Necrotizing gastroenteritis
3) After short improvement, metabolic acidosis, coma, and death
3) Tx: a) gastric aspiration, lavage with phosphate or carbonate solution; b) activated charcoal is ineffective; c) deferoxamine, a potent iron chelating substance, i.m. or i.v.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Iron clinical toxicity

Chronic (iron __):

1) Seen in an inherited disorder, __
2) Patients receiving repeated __
3) Excess iron deposited in __, __, __ -> to organ failure
4) Tx: a) intermittent __ (in the absence of anemia); b) iron chelation: __ (parenteral) or __ (oral)

A

Iron clinical toxicity

Chronic (iron overload):

1) Seen in an inherited disorder, hemochromotosis
2) Patients receiving repeated RBC transfusions
3) Excess iron deposited in heart, liver, pancreas -> to organ failure
4) Tx: a) intermittent phlebotomy (in the absence of anemia); b) iron chelation: deferoxamine (parenteral) or deferasirox (oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vitamin B12 - basic pharmacology

Chemistry and pharmacokinetics of vitamin B12:

1) __ and __ are the active forms
2) __ and __ (therapeutic drugs) are converted to the active forms

3) Absorption: a) vitamin B12 is absorbed ONLY after complexing with __; b) absorption (__ ug/day) occurs in the __ by a specific transport system; c) deficiency often caused by lack of __ or __ (transport); d) absorbed vitamin B12 is bound to plasma __ for distribution
4) Storage: __ is the main storage site, containing __ mg of vitamin B12

A

Vitamin B12 - basic pharmacology

Chemistry and pharmacokinetics of vitamin B12:

1) Deoxyadenosylcobalamin and methylcobalamin are the active forms
2) Cyanocobalamin and hydroxycobalamin (therapeutic drugs) are converted to the active forms

3) Absorption: a) vitamin B12 is absorbed ONLY after complexing with intrinsic factor; b) absorption (1-5 ug/day) occurs in the distal ileum by a specific transport system; c) deficiency often caused by lack of intrinsic factor or bowel disease (transport); d) absorbed vitamin B12 is bound to plasma transcobalamin II for distribution
4) Storage: liver is the main storage site, containing 3-5 mg of vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vitamin B12 - basic pharmacology

Chemistry and pharmacokinetics of folic acid:

1) Richest sources are __, __, and __
2) Absorption: a) average diet contains __ ug; b) __glutamate forms must be hydrolyzed to __glutamate; c) __glutamate form enters bloodstream by __ and __ transport
3) Storage: a) __ mg of folate is stored in __ and other tissues; b) folate is excreted and destroyed by __; c) since normal daily requirements are ~__, diminished intake will result in deficiency and anemia within __

A

Vitamin B12 - basic pharmacology

Chemistry and pharmacokinetics of folic acid:

1) Richest sources are yeast, kidney, and green veggies
2) Absorption: a) average diet contains 500-700 ug; b) polyglutamate forms must be hydrolyzed to monoglutamate; c) monoglutamate form enters bloodstream by active and passive transport
3) Storage: a) 5-20 mg of folate is stored in liver and other tissues; b) folate is excreted and destroyed by catabolism; c) since normal daily requirements are ~50 ug, diminished intake will result in deficiency and anemia within 1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vitamin B12 and folic acid - clinical pharmacology

Treatment of __ or __:

1) Vitamin B12 and folic acid used only for prevention or treatment of __
2) Important to determine whether vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency is the cause since __ will NOT prevent the irreversible neurological damage
3) Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by __ usually requires lifelong parenteral injection of __ or __
4) Response is rapid and return to normal in __
5) Folic acid deficiency due to inadequate __ or diminished __ is treated with oral doses of __

A

Vitamin B12 and folic acid - clinical pharmacology

Treatment of macrocytic or megaloblastic anemias:

1) Vitamin B12 and folic acid used only for prevention or treatment of deficiencies
2) Important to determine whether vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency is the cause since folic acid will NOT prevent the irreversible neurological damage
3) Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by malabsorption usually requires lifelong parenteral injection of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin
4) Response is rapid and return to normal in 1-2 months
5) Folic acid deficiency due to inadequate intake or diminished storage is treated with oral doses of folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Erythropoietin - basic pharmacology

1) 34-39 kDa __
2) Functions: a) stimulates __ and __ of erythroid cells; b) promotes release of __ from __ __
3) Produced by the __
4) Usually __ relationship between __ level and serum erythropoietin level, but not in ______
5) Recombinant human erythropoietin (____) is produced in a mammalian cell expression system

A

Erythropoietin - basic pharmacology

1) 34-39 kDa glycoprotein
2) Functions: a) stimulates proliferation and differentiation of erythroid cells; b) promotes release of reticulocytes from bone marrow
3) Produced by the kidney
4) Usually inverse relationship between hemoglobin level and serum erythropoietin level, but not in chronic renal failure
5) Recombinant human erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) is produced in a mammalian cell expression system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indication for erythropoietin therapy

1) _____
2) Some patients with __ anemia, __ malignancies, anemias associated with __, __ (in these patients, erythropoietin is most effective if endogenous erythropoietin levels are disproportionately __; __ doses required than in chronic renal failure, but responses are still incomplete)
3) Treatment of anemia of __
4) Post-__

A

Indication for erythropoietin therapy

1) Chronic renal failure
2) Some patients with aplastic anemia, hematologic malignancies, anemias associated with AIDS, cancer (in these patients, erythropoietin is most effective if endogenous erythropoietin levels are disproportionately low; higher doses required than in chronic renal failure, but responses are still incomplete)
3) Treatment of anemia of prematurity
4) Post-phlebotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Erythropoietin therapy

1) Given __ or __
2) Increase in __ count seen in about __ days
3) Increase in __ seen in __ weeks

A

Erythropoietin therapy

1) Given IV or subcutaneously
2) Increase in reticulocyte count seen in about 10 days
3) Increase in hemoglobin seen in 2-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Erythropoietin clinical toxicity

1) __
2) __ complications
3) __ reactions
4) Increased risk of __ progression in __ patients

A

Erythropoietin clinical toxicity

1) HTN
2) Thrombotic complications
3) Allergic reactions
4) Increased risk of tumor progression in cancer patients

17
Q

G-CSF and GM-CSF basic pharmacology

1) G-CSF (______) and GM-CSF (______) are __ growth factors
2) Recombinant human __ (filgrastim) is produced in a __ expression system
3) Recombinant human __ (sargramostim) is produced in a __ expression system
4) Pegfilgrastim: filgrastim conjugated to polyethylene glycol -> ______

5) Functions: a) both G-CSF and GM-CSF stimulate __ and __ of __ cells; b) __ promotes release of hematopoietic stem cells from bone marrow (__ is less efficient); c) __ also stimulates proliferation and differentiation of erythroid and megakaryocytic precursors

A

G-CSF and GM-CSF basic pharmacology

1) G-CSF (granulocyte colony stimulating factor) and GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor) are myeloid growth factors
2) Recombinant human G-CSF (filgrastim) is produced in a bacterial expression system
3) Recombinant human GM-CSF (sargramostim) is produced in a yeast expression system
4) Pegfilgrastim: filgrastim conjugated to polyethylene glycol -> longer 1/2 life

5) Functions: a) both G-CSF and GM-CSF stimulate proliferation and differentiation of myeloid cells; b) G-CSF promotes release of hematopoietic stem cells from bone marrow (GM-CSF is less efficient); c) GM-CSF also stimulates proliferation and differentiation of erythroid and megakaryocytic precursors

18
Q

Indication for G-CSF/GM-CSF therapy

1) After intensive __ chemotherapy: a) accelerates rate of __ recovery; b) reduces duration of __; c) reduces febrile __, antibiotic use, days of hospitalization
2) Can also be used after chemotherapy for __ (__): a) accelerates __ recovery, reduces infection; b) no evidence for increased __ rate
3) Treatment of congenital __, cyclic __, __ associated with myelodysplasia and aplastic anemia
4) High dose chemotherapy with ______ rescue
5) Mobilization of ______ cells for autologous transplant

A

Indication for G-CSF/GM-CSF therapy

1) After intensive myelosuppressive chemotherapy: a) accelerates rate of neutrophil recovery; b) reduces duration of neutropenia; c) reduces febrile neutropenia, antibiotic use, days of hospitalization
2) Can also be used after chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML): a) accelerates neutrophil recovery, reduces infection; b) no evidence for increased relapse rate
3) Treatment of congenital neutropenia, cyclic neutropenia, neutropenia associated with myelodysplasia and aplastic anemia
4) High dose chemotherapy with autologous stem cell rescue
5) Mobilization of peripheral blood stem cells for autologous transplant

19
Q

G-CSF/GM-CSF toxicity

1) __ preferred since it is better tolerated in general
2) __ can cause bone pain, __ rupture (very rare)
3) __ can cause fever, __, __, peripheral edema, pleural/pericardial effusion
4) __ reactions

A

G-CSF/GM-CSF toxicity

1) G-CSF preferred since it is better tolerated in general
2) G-CSF can cause bone pain, splenic rupture (very rare)
3) GM-CSF can cause fever, arthralgia, myalgia, peripheral edema, pleural/pericardial effusion
4) Allergic reactions

20
Q

IL-11 basic pharmacology

1) IL-11 is produced by __ cells in the bone marrow
2) Recombinant human IL-11 (oprelvekin) is produced in a __ expression system
3) Stimulates growth of __ progenitors
4) Increases peripheral __

A

IL-11 basic pharmacology

1) IL-11 is produced by stromal cells in the bone marrow
2) Recombinant human IL-11 (oprelvekin) is produced in a bacterial expression system
3) Stimulates growth of megakaryocytic progenitors
4) Increases peripheral platelets

21
Q

Indication for IL-11 therapy

Patients with __ after cytotoxic chemotherapy:

1) Can be used if __ transfusions are refractory, or to prevent adverse reactions of transfusions
2) Usually given for __ days after chemotherapy, or until the __ count rises above __/uL

A

Indication for IL-11 therapy

Patients with thrombocytopenia after cytotoxic chemotherapy:

1) Can be used if platelet transfusions are refractory, or to prevent adverse reactions of transfusions
2) Usually given for 14-21 days after chemotherapy, or until the platelet count rises above 50,000/uL

22
Q

IL-11 clinical toxicity

1) Fatigue
2) Headache
3) __
4) Cardiovascular effects (__, __)
5) __kalemia

A

IL-11 clinical toxicity

1) Fatigue
2) Headache
3) Dizziness
4) Cardiovascular effects (dyspnea, atrial arrhythmia)
5) Hypokalemia

23
Q

New agents for thrombocytopenia

Romiplostim:

1) A novel protein known as a “__”
2) Two domains: a) a __ domain that binds the __ receptor (MPL), and b) an ____ domain that increases ____
3) FDA approved for tx of ______ (__)
4) Adverse effects include headache, myalgia, and ______ (reversible)

A

New agents for thrombocytopenia

Romiplostim:

1) A novel protein known as a “peptibody”
2) Two domains: a) a peptide domain that binds the thrombopoietin receptor (MPL), and b) an antibody Fc domain that increases 1/2 life
3) Approved for tx of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
4) Adverse effects include headache, myalgia, and bone marrow fibrosis (reversible)

24
Q

New agents for thrombocytopenia

Eltrombopag:

1) A small molecule __ receptor agonist of the __ receptor
2) Approved for tx of ______ (__)
3) Adverse effects include headache, myalgia, and ______ (reversible)
4) Now received FDA approval for the tx of ____

A

New agents for thrombocytopenia

Eltrombopag:

1) A small molecule thrombopoietin receptor agonist of the thrombopoietin receptor
2) Approved for tx of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
3) Adverse effects include headache, myalgia, and bone marrow fibrosis (reversible)
4) Now received FDA approval for the tx of aplastic anemia