Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

describe artificial immunity

A

exposure to an antigen through vaccination

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2
Q

purpose of vaccination

A

to give people an immune response to an antibody

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3
Q

why is HIV hard to make an vaccine for?

A

its antigens on the surface change (mutate) due to encodings in the DNA or RNA

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4
Q

what is a biomolecule or lypoprotein that us used in vaccines to help deliver it

A

adjuvants

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5
Q

why are adjuvants required for vaccines

A

bc the dead antigen is too small without it, must be attached to another molecule so that T Cells can find it
(mercury used to be used)

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6
Q

what help to make vaccines have a longer shelf life

A

perservatives

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7
Q

in ____ immunity, you are exposed to the antigen and thus energy is used, but in _____ immunity performed antibodies are given so the body does no work.

A

active;

passive

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8
Q

example of passive immunity and a situation when passive immunity would be used

A

RhoGAM;

when the perosn doesnt have time to produce their own antibodies

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9
Q

ex of natural active immunity

A

someone sneezing in your face

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10
Q

ex of natural passive immunity

A

colustrum from breast-feeding (has antibodies) or antibodies that cross the placenta

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11
Q

ex of artificial active immunity

A

vaccination of an antigen (live or dead)

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12
Q

ex of artificial passive immunity

A

RhoGAM, Rabies antibodies, Hepatitus A

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13
Q

who is credited for publishing a top medical article that made many medical violations that implied that children got autism bc of MMR vaccine

A

Andrew Wakefield

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14
Q

what are causes of ummunosuppression

A

lack of sleep
stress (symp. NS suppresses the immune system)
diet
exercise
medications (can be toxic to body or an organ and body has to expend energy repairing)
underlying medical conditions

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15
Q

what is the correct medical term for allergies

A

hypersensitivity

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16
Q

things that people are allergic to are ______

the molicule that the body mounts a response to ___

A

antigens;

allergens

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17
Q

define hypersensitivity

A

the overreaction of the immune system to an allergen/antigen

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18
Q

what is the reason for lactose intolerance

A

genetic - missing the gene to make lactase to digest lactose

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19
Q

t or f: most “allergies” to medicine are actually adverse reactions to he medicine, except for penecillin, which is a true allergy

A

t

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20
Q

term for when the body learns to recognize what is foreign, what is self, and if something is a threat

A

tolerance

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21
Q

US have the highest rates of hypersensitivity in the world. why?

A

its possible to be too clean to the point that the body is not exposed to antigens and cannot learn to classify them

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22
Q

the study that researched children exposed to or not to farm animals found that

A

if not exposed to any animals in childhood, they are 3X likely to develop asthma

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23
Q

what was the alt treatment used to treat chrohns disease and why did it work

A

pig parasites slurry - based on theory that GI tract is bored so it turns on itself - parasites gave it something to do

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24
Q

is it possible to be overexposed to an antigen?

A

yes, if immunosuppressed

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25
Q

how can desensitization occur

A

natural with repeated exposed, or artificially

gradual, careful reintroduction in small amounts

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26
Q

what are the 3 functions of respiration

A
  1. external respiration = ventilation = air moving in and out between body and environment
  2. internal respiration = gas exchange btwn air and blood in lung and btwn blood and cells in tissue
  3. cellular respiration (oxygen utiliation = glycolysis, Krebs cycle, ETC)
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27
Q

what muscle drives external respiration

A

diaphragm

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28
Q

when diaphragm moves down, lungs ______.

when diaphragm moves down, lungs ______.

A

open

close

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29
Q

what is internal respiration mostly driven by

A

diffusion

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30
Q

does any gas exchange occur in external respiration?

A

NO, only ventilation

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31
Q

_______ is the upper respiratory tract, where no gas exchange can occur

A

conducting/dead zone

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32
Q

what does the conducting/dead zone consist of

A

nose, trachea, bronchi,

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33
Q

______ is where gas exchange occurs, and consists of:

A

respiratory zone

alveolus and respiratory bronchioles

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34
Q

ability of the lungs to stretch/increase in size is

A

compliance

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35
Q

ability of the lungs to recoil or return to their resting size

A

elasticity

36
Q

attraction of water molecules to the lining of the lungs is

A

surface tension

37
Q

why is surface tension of the lungs important

A

allows the lung sacs to always stay a little inflated so that they dont completely collapse (which would take more energy to open

38
Q

the phospholipid that coats the inside of a normal alveolus and lowers the surface tension is

A

surfactant

39
Q

why do premie babies have respiratory issues

A

do not have surfactant

40
Q

reduced attraction between water molecules increases or decreases surface tension

A

decreases

41
Q

what is the order of the respiratory membrane

A

Surfactant (contacts air) → Alveolar epithelium → Basement membrane → Interstitial space → Basement membrane of capillary → Capillary endothelium (in contact with blood coming from heart chambers)

42
Q

what is lung volume measure with

A

spirometry

43
Q

the volume inspired/expired in unforced respiratory cycle

A

tidal volume

44
Q

max volume inspired with forced breathing (beyond tidal volume)

A

inspiratory reserve volume

45
Q

max volume expired with forced breathing (beyond tidal volume)

A

expiratory reserve volume

46
Q

what is the volume remaining after max expiration

A

residual volume

47
Q

lung _____ are combinations of at least 2 volumes

A

capacities

48
Q

max inspired capacity after normal tidal expiration

A

inspiratory capacity

49
Q

amount expired after max inspiration

A

vital capacity

50
Q

all four volumes, the total volume after max inspiration

A

total lung capacity

51
Q

what 2 components are required for adequate gas exchange in lungs

A
  1. perfusion (blood flow) to lungs must be adequate

2. ventilation (air flow) to lungs must be adequate

52
Q

what part of the CNS controls automatic breathin

A

medulla oblongata

53
Q

____ monitor the chemical composition of the blood and provide data for automatic control of breathing

A

chemoreceptors

54
Q

what do the chemoreceptors monitor?

A

CO2
H+ (for pH)
oxygen

55
Q

when pH is increasing, what is also increasing

A

CO2

56
Q

when CO2 i increased, what does the medulla trigger

A

tirggers respiratory rate to increase to decrease CO2 in the body

57
Q

where are the most significant oxygen chemoreceptors

A

in the renal artery to the kidney

58
Q

what is the homrone produced by the kidney when renal artery oxygen levels drop

A

erethropoeitin

59
Q

hypoventilation leads to

hyperventilation leads to

A

hypercapnia (increase in CO2)

hypeocapnia (decrease in CO2)

60
Q

what are pulmonary receptors

A

receptors in the lungs that monitor stretch to prevent overinflation

61
Q

irritation receptors do what?

A

monitor particles in the air that get to the alveoli and respond by triggering coughing to try to push particles back out

62
Q

____ receptors in the lungs respond to a toxic chemical

A

pain

63
Q

what do the kidneys regulate

A
  1. volume of blood plasma (and thus blood pressure)
  2. concentration of waste products in blood
    concentration of electrolytes ((Na+, K+, HCO3-, and others) in plasma
  3. pH of plasma
64
Q
  1. ureters =

2. urethra =

A
ureters = connect kidney to bladder to transport final urine product
urethra = tube that exits bladder
65
Q

urine cannot be reabsorbed one it leave _____ ____ in the kidney and enters the renal ____.

A

collecting ducts;

pelvis

66
Q

the micturition (urination) reflex consists of:

A

interal urethral spincter (innervated by ANS bc smooth muscle)
eternal urethral spincter = skeletal muscle (potty training)

67
Q

what is the functional unit of the kidney

A

nephron

68
Q

renal corpuscle consists of

A

bowmans (glomerular) capsule and glomerulus

69
Q

where is the 180 liters of urinary filtrate produced

A

renal corpusle

70
Q

______ is the beginning of the nephron, that leads into the ______

A

bowmans capsule

proximal convoluted tubule

71
Q

in the loop of Henle ____ limb IS permeable to water and the ____ limb is NOT permeable to water

A

descending

ascending

72
Q

what empties into the renal pelvis and is permeable to water but not sodium?

A

collecting durct

73
Q

what are the 2 types of nephrons

A

cortical (outer 2/3 of cortex) and juxtamedullary nephrons (inner 1/3 of cortex)

74
Q

what empties urine into the renal pelvis

A

collecting duct

75
Q

the collecting duct is permeable to ____ but not ____

A

water;

sodium

76
Q

______ arterioles deliver blood to glomerular capillaries

______ arterioles take blood from glomerulus to the second set of capillaries

A

afferent

efferent

77
Q

list the 2 basic processes in urine formation

A

filtration
reabsorption
secretion

78
Q

describe filtraation

A

from glomerular capillaries into nephron - produces urinary filtrate

79
Q

describe reabsorption

A

re- absorbs to the body/blood from the nephron

80
Q

describe secretion

A

adds to urine from peritubular capillaries into the nephron

81
Q

what goes the same direction as filtration

A

secretion

82
Q

about 65% of filtered sodium and water is reabsorbed across the ….

A

proximal convoluted tubules

83
Q

85% of reabsorption automatically occurs in the ____ and ____ (is/is not) under hormonal control

A

early nephron

not

84
Q

15% of fluid volume is under ____ control, later in the nephron

A

hormonal

85
Q

what is responsible for reabsorprion (osmosis) of most water in filtrate

A

countercurrent multiplier system

86
Q

describe how water is reabsorbed into the veins from the loop of henle

A

ascending loop is permeable to urea. Urea and Sodium are in the interstitial space and their high concentrations pull water out of the descending loop into the interstitial space. water is then reabsorbed in the veins by the high BOP of the capillaries