Geri Flashcards

1
Q

specific form of delirium and agitation that occurs in the final weeks, days or hours of life.

A

Terminal restlessness

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2
Q

specific form of delirium and agitation that occurs in the final weeks, days or hours of life.

A

Terminal restlessness

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3
Q

occurs in the final days or hours and involves observable signs of systemic failure.

A

active death

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4
Q

__ care is a medical specialty focused on aggressive symptom management.

A

Palliative care

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5
Q

Palliative visits tend to focus __ on the actual disease and __ on what impact it has on the patient’s life

A

less

more

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6
Q

__ is a medical insurance benefit, with its own set of regulations

A

hospice

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7
Q

Hospice care is typically provided in the __ whereas palliative tends to be __

A

home,

hospital /clinic based

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8
Q

Hospice care for patients with terminal conditions where survival is typically __

A
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9
Q

__ : provides: exercise and functional training during each weekly or biweekly visit.

A

rehabilitation light

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10
Q

__ utilization of skilled patient training and instruction to caregivers as a person moves through the transitions from an independently mobile level to a more dependent one as the disease progresses and as strength and balance decrease.

A

rehabilitation in reverse

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11
Q

__long term ongoing care for challenging and changing conditions.

A

case management

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12
Q

__ care that might under usual circumstances be taught to a caregiver now requires the skill of a PT because of complexity.

A

skilled maintenance

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13
Q

__ often provided throughout the occurrence of care and is comprised of the psychosocial support associated with end of life process as well as physical measures.

A

supportive care

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14
Q

__ Legal document that provides a clear statement of the patient’s desires for care in the event of imminent death (a living will) an the appointment of a person to make decisions on their behalf should they become incapacitated (medical power of attorney)
Third element includes an optional DNR document, which is usually printed on bright orange paper and displayed in a prominent place.

A

advance directives

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15
Q

IRF - patient must receive at least __ a day of PT, OT, or SLP
daily is defined as __

A

3 hours/day

5 days/week

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16
Q

Skilled Care requires that patients be in an appropriate __payment group to be considered a “skilled” patient.

A

RUGs

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17
Q

IRF services must be __ and __ for the treatment of the patient’s condition

A

reasonable & necessary

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18
Q

Services IRF must provide?

A
Rehab nursing,
rehab services (OT, PT, SLP)
audiology
Orthotic and prosthetic
social and psychological services
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19
Q

services SNf must provide

A
nursing restorative services
rehab services (PT, OT, SLP)
audiology
orthotic & prosthetic
emergency dental
social and or psychological services
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20
Q
IRF = \_\_ day per spell of illness
SNF = \_\_ days per spell of illness
A

90

100

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21
Q

IRF pays for first __ days then day _-__ co pay

A

60

61-90

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22
Q

SNF – first __ days fully covered if meets RUGs criteria; co-pay for the ___ day; 3-day pre-qualifying hospital stay required.

A

20

21-100 day

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23
Q

__ =The period which begins when a patient is furnished inpatient hospital care
ends when the patient has neither been an inpatient of the hospital or skilled nursing bed for__ consecutive days.

A

spell of illness

60

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24
Q

SNF has a __ day qualifying stay in the rehabilitation unit would qualify a patient for skilled care

A

3

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25
Q

13 diagnosis for IRF

A
Stroke
Spinal cord injury
Congenital deformity
Amputation
Major multiple trauma
Fracture 
Polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis
Neurological disorders, including multiple sclerosis, motor neuron diseases, polyneuropathy, muscular dystrophy and Parkinson’s disease
Burns
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26
Q

IRF rehab diagnosis has __ case mix groups

A

95

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27
Q

__ % of patients admitted into the IRF must fall into one of the 13 specified diagnosis.

A

60%

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28
Q

SNF
The pt. must be certified and recertified as requiring skilled care by the MD on admission, the __th day and every __ days thereafter.

A

14th

30 days

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29
Q

Rug LEvels
In the last 7 days:
Received 720 or more minutes of therapy
At least 2 disciplines, 1 for at least 5 days, and the 2nd for at least 3 days

A

ultra high

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30
Q

RUG levels
In the last 7 days:
Received 500 or more minutes of therapy
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days

A

very high

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31
Q

RUG level
In the last 7 days
Received 325 or more minutes
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days

A

high

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32
Q

RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 150 minutes/week or more
5 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines.

A

medium

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33
Q

RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 45 minutes/week or more
3 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines and restorative nursing, two or more services, 6 or more day/week.

A

low

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34
Q

RUG group
__ group Any one of the following services received within the last 14 days with an ADL sum >=7:
IV Feeding/parenteral feeding (within last 7 days)
Suctioning
Tracheostomy Care
Ventilator/Respirator
IV Medication

A

extensive services grou[

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35
Q
RUG group
\_\_Group
Any one of the following:
Multiple Sclerosis with ADL sum >= 10
Quadriplegic with ADL sum >= 10
Cerebral Palsy with ADL sum >= 10
Respiratory Therapy = 7
Ulcers (2+ sites over all stages ), with treatment
Any stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer with treatment
surgical wounds
radiation therapy
tube fed+ & aphasia
fever
A

Special Care group

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36
Q
RUG Group
\_\_ group 
Any one of the following:
Burns
Coma and not awake and completely ADL dependent
Septicemia
Pneumonia
Foot Lesions or Infections w/dressings
Internal Bleeding
Dehydration
Hemiplegia with ADL sum >=10
tube feeding
oxygen therapy
chemo therapy
A

Clinically complex group

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37
Q

__ is not a disease but rather a combination of a variety of medical problems.

A

Frality

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38
Q

Someone should be considered Frail if has __ or more of the following 5 characteristics:

A

3

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39
Q

Fraility characteristics (5)

A

Unintentional weight loss (10 lbs or more in a year)
General feeling of exhaustion (self-report)
Weakness
Slow walking speed
Low levels of physical activity

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40
Q

Normal frequency of urination is once every __ during daytime
__voids during nighttime hours

A

once every 2 hours

1-2 voids @ night

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41
Q
\_\_ bladder capacity
\_\_ residual urine
\_\_ involuntary bladder contractions
\_\_ outlet resistance (female)
\_\_ ability to inhibit contraction
\_\_ outlet resistance (male)
A
decreased
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
increase
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42
Q

Risk factors for UI

A
immobility
medications
obesity
smoking
stroke
low fluid intake
diuretics
diabetes 
estrogen depletion
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43
Q
\_\_ Loss of urine that occurs during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure:
Coughing
Sneezing
Laughing
Physical activity 
Caused by pelvic muscular weakness as a result of:
Pregnancy 
Obesity
Surgery
Medications
Aging
A

Stress UI

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44
Q

Risk factors for Stress UI (12)

A
age, estrogen loss
Caucasian
family history
obesity
smoking
chronic cough
pelvic surgery
chronic constipation
neurological disorders
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45
Q

intervention for stress incontinence

A

Kegels 2-5 sets several times a day

feedback

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46
Q

Physical or psychological impairment that results in incontinence when the urinary tract is healthy.
Causes:
Decreased mobility
Pain
Clothing that is restrictive
Psychological factors
Ability to put on and take off clothing.
Sequence of tasks involved in toileting.
Mobility – ability to ambulate, use an assistive device or transfer to/from toilet.
Access to toilet/device (urinals, bedside commodes, etc.)

A

Functional UI

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47
Q

Psychological message that UI is expected.
Chairs are plastic
Beds are protected
Pads are available and applied “just in case”.
Architectural design
Long corridors
Poorly marked bathroom doors
Caregiver attitudes
“Go ahead and go, I’ll clean you up later”
“She/he does that on purpose”

A

Environmental Incontinence

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48
Q

a loss of urine with an abrupt and strong desire to void.
“I’m unable to make it to the bathroom on time.”
caused by an overactive detrusor muscle, resulting in excessive involuntary bladder contractions that may be initiated by:
cancer (bladder / prostate)
infection
spinal or nerve damage

A

Urge UI

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49
Q

URge UI treatment options (3)

A

Behavioral therapy
estim
medications

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50
Q

Urgency perception score

0-4

A
0 = convenience no urge
1 = mild urge (Can hold more than 1 hour)
2 = Moderate urge (can hold for 10-60 seconds)
3 = severe urge (can hold
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51
Q

Loss of urine related to the over distention of the bladder. frequent or constant dribbling; may include urge or stress UI
least common; hard to diagnosi\e

A

overflow UI

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52
Q

2 scales used for female pelvic floor muscle function

A

Brink - (3-12) intensity of contraction, vertical displacement, muscle contraction duration

Modified oxford - simpler/easier 0 (lack of muscle) -5 (strong contraction)

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53
Q

drug distribution changes include __ cardiac output
__ total body water
__ serum albumin
__ body fat

A

decreased
decreased
decreased
increased

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54
Q
With aging, liver mass \_\_
hepatic blood flow \_\_
renal mass is \_\_
\_\_ glomerular filtration
\_\_ tubular secretion and absorption
\_\_ creatinine clearance
A
decreased
decreases
decreased
decrease
decreased
decreased
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55
Q

__ Defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience.
Whatever the experiencing person says it is;
Existing whenever he/she says it does

A

pain

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56
Q

__ defines pain that results from injury, surgery, or trauma. It may be associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis. Acute pain is usually time-limited and subsides with healing.

A

acute pain

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57
Q

__ defines pain that lasts for a prolonged period (usually more than 3–6 months) and is associated with chronic disease or injury (e.g., osteoarthritis).

A

persistent pain

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58
Q

__ Refers to pain caused by stimulation of specific peripheral or visceral pain receptors.
This type of pain results from disease processes (e.g., osteoarthritis), soft-tissue injuries (e.g. falls), and medical treatment (e.g., surgery, venipunctureand other procedures).
It is usually localized and responsive to treatment

A

nociceptive pain

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59
Q

__ Refers to pain caused by damage to the peripheral or central nervous system

A

neuropathic pain

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60
Q

__ is the gold standard for pain assessment

A

self-report

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61
Q

__ Pain Results from an injury, surgery, or disease-related tissue damage.
Usually associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis.

A

acute pain

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62
Q

__ pain Usually last more than 3-6 months.
May or may not be associated with a disease process.
Autonomic activity is usually absent

A

chronic / persistent pain

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63
Q

__ Pain Results from disease processes (osteoarthritis, soft tissue injuries (falls or trauma), and medical treatment (surgery and other procedures

A

Nociceptive pain

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64
Q

__ pain Caused by pathology in the peripheral or central nervous system.

A

Neuropathic pain

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65
Q

Orthotics have a __ pressure principle located __ and __

A

3 point pressure principle
1 area of deformity or angulation
2 counter forces acting in opposite direction

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66
Q

__ opening: has stitched down vamps, not suitable for orthotic wear.

A

bal (balmoral)

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67
Q

__ opening: has vamps (the flaps contain the lace stays) that open wide apart from the anterior margin of the shoe for ease of application.

A

blucher opening

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68
Q

When foot cannot attain neutral, FO may shim the gap to that fixed position-Accommodative = __ FO

A

accommodating FO

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69
Q

__ FO May help the foot attain a neutral position-Corrective

A

Corrective FO

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70
Q

FO Longitudinal Arch supports Prevent depression of the subtalar joint and correct for __

A

pes planus (flat foot)

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71
Q

University of California Biomechanics Laboratory Insert (semi-rigid plastic molded insert to correct for flexible __

A

pes planus

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72
Q

scaphoid pad is used to support __

A

longitudinal arch

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73
Q

__is a heel wedge with an extended anterior medial border used to support the longitudinal arch and correct for flexible pes valgus-pronated feet).

A

thomas heel

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74
Q

rear foot posting
varus post limits __
valgus post limits __

A

eversion/pronation

inverted/supination

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75
Q

forefoot posting
medial wedge prescribed for forefoot __
lateral wedge for ___

A

varus

valgus

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76
Q

Heel lifts or heel platform accommodates for __ & accommodates for limitation in __

A

leg length discrepancy;

ankle joint DF

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77
Q

an anterior stop limits __

a posterior stop limits __

A

DF

PF

78
Q

Spring assist (Klenzak housing) double upright metal AFO with single anterior channel for spring assist to aid __

A

DF

79
Q

Posterior leaf spring: plastic AFO that inserts into the shoe, widely used to prevent __

A

foot drop (PF)

80
Q

T Straps

Medial strap buckles around the lateral upright and correct for __

A

valgus

81
Q

lateral strap buckles around medial upright and corrects for __

A

Varus

82
Q

Floor reaction AFO uses floor reaction force through toe aspect of foot plate to prevent __

A

knee collapse

83
Q

hinge joint KAFO provides __ & __ control while allowing _/__

A

mediolateral & Hyperextension

flex/ext

84
Q

frontal plane KAFO controls for genu __ or genu__

A

valgum or varum

85
Q

HKAFO controls for __, __, and __

A

abduction, adduction and rotation

86
Q

Reciprocating Gait Orthosis commonly used in cases of __ or __

A

spina bfida and SCI

87
Q

Hip abduction orthosis

A

commonly used __ to position femoral head optimally with acetabulum

88
Q

Periods of gait
Phases (8)
Tasks (3)

A

Stance and Swing
Initial contact, loading response, mid stance, terminal stance, preswing, inital swing, mid swing, terminal swing
Tasks = weight acceptance, Single limb support, & swing limb advancement

89
Q

posterior pelvic tilt causes

4

A

hip flexor weaknes
tight HS
low back pain
hip extensor weakness

90
Q

Contralateral pelvic drop due to __ hip abductor weakness
__ hip adductor contracture or spasticity
__ hip abductor contracture

A

ipsilateral
ipsilateral
contralateral

91
Q

Step Length =

Distance between corresponding successive points of heel contact of the

A

opposite

92
Q

Stride Length =

Distance between successive points of heel contact of the

A

same

93
Q

normal cadence = __ steps/min

A

100-115

94
Q

Comfrotable Walking Speed = __

A

80 ,/min ~3mph

95
Q

Single support = __% of gait cycle

Double support = __%

A

40%

20%

96
Q

muscles at intial contact

A

DF, Quad

Glute max and HS

97
Q

occurs in the final days or hours and involves observable signs of systemic failure.

A

active death

98
Q

__ care is a medical specialty focused on aggressive symptom management.

A

Palliative care

99
Q

Palliative visits tend to focus __ on the actual disease and __ on what impact it has on the patient’s life

A

less

more

100
Q

__ is a medical insurance benefit, with its own set of regulations

A

hospice

101
Q

Hospice care is typically provided in the __ whereas palliative tends to be __

A

home,

hospital /clinic based

102
Q

Hospice care for patients with terminal conditions where survival is typically __

A

less than 6 months

103
Q

__ : provides: exercise and functional training during each weekly or biweekly visit.

A

rehabilitation light

104
Q

__ utilization of skilled patient training and instruction to caregivers as a person moves through the transitions from an independently mobile level to a more dependent one as the disease progresses and as strength and balance decrease.

A

rehabilitation in reverse

105
Q

__long term ongoing care for challenging and changing conditions.

A

case management

106
Q

__ care that might under usual circumstances be taught to a caregiver now requires the skill of a PT because of complexity.

A

skilled maintenance

107
Q

__ often provided throughout the occurrence of care and is comprised of the psychosocial support associated with end of life process as well as physical measures.

A

supportive care

108
Q

__ Legal document that provides a clear statement of the patient’s desires for care in the event of imminent death (a living will) an the appointment of a person to make decisions on their behalf should they become incapacitated (medical power of attorney)
Third element includes an optional DNR document, which is usually printed on bright orange paper and displayed in a prominent place.

A

advance directives

109
Q

IRF - patient must receive at least __ a day of PT, OT, or SLP
daily is defined as __

A

3 hours/day

5 days/week

110
Q

Skilled Care requires that patients be in an appropriate __payment group to be considered a “skilled” patient.

A

RUGs

111
Q

IRF services must be __ and __ for the treatment of the patient’s condition

A

reasonable & necessary

112
Q

Services IRF must provide?

A
Rehab nursing,
rehab services (OT, PT, SLP)
audiology
Orthotic and prosthetic
social and psychological services
113
Q

services SNf must provide

A
nursing restorative services
rehab services (PT, OT, SLP)
audiology
orthotic & prosthetic
emergency dental
social and or psychological services
114
Q
IRF = \_\_ day per spell of illness
SNF = \_\_ days per spell of illness
A

90

100

115
Q

IRF pays for first __ days then day _-__ co pay

A

60

61-90

116
Q

SNF – first __ days fully covered if meets RUGs criteria; co-pay for the ___ day; 3-day pre-qualifying hospital stay required.

A

20

21-100 day

117
Q

__ =The period which begins when a patient is furnished inpatient hospital care
ends when the patient has neither been an inpatient of the hospital or skilled nursing bed for__ consecutive days.

A

spell of illness

60

118
Q

SNF has a __ day qualifying stay in the rehabilitation unit would qualify a patient for skilled care

A

3

119
Q

13 diagnosis for IRF

A
Stroke
Spinal cord injury
Congenital deformity
Amputation
Major multiple trauma
Fracture 
Polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis
Neurological disorders, including multiple sclerosis, motor neuron diseases, polyneuropathy, muscular dystrophy and Parkinson’s disease
Burns
120
Q

IRF rehab diagnosis has __ case mix groups

A

95

121
Q

__ % of patients admitted into the IRF must fall into one of the 13 specified diagnosis.

A

60%

122
Q

SNF
The pt. must be certified and recertified as requiring skilled care by the MD on admission, the __th day and every __ days thereafter.

A

14th

30 days

123
Q

Rug LEvels
In the last 7 days:
Received 720 or more minutes of therapy
At least 2 disciplines, 1 for at least 5 days, and the 2nd for at least 3 days

A

ultra high

124
Q

RUG levels
In the last 7 days:
Received 500 or more minutes of therapy
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days

A

very high

125
Q

RUG level
In the last 7 days
Received 325 or more minutes
At least 1 discipline for at least 5 days

A

high

126
Q

RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 150 minutes/week or more
5 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines.

A

medium

127
Q

RUG level
Rehabilitation Rx 45 minutes/week or more
3 days any combination of three rehabilitation disciplines and restorative nursing, two or more services, 6 or more day/week.

A

low

128
Q

RUG group
__ group Any one of the following services received within the last 14 days with an ADL sum >=7:
IV Feeding/parenteral feeding (within last 7 days)
Suctioning
Tracheostomy Care
Ventilator/Respirator
IV Medication

A

extensive services grou[

129
Q
RUG group
\_\_Group
Any one of the following:
Multiple Sclerosis with ADL sum >= 10
Quadriplegic with ADL sum >= 10
Cerebral Palsy with ADL sum >= 10
Respiratory Therapy = 7
Ulcers (2+ sites over all stages ), with treatment
Any stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer with treatment
surgical wounds
radiation therapy
tube fed+ & aphasia
fever
A

Special Care group

130
Q
RUG Group
\_\_ group 
Any one of the following:
Burns
Coma and not awake and completely ADL dependent
Septicemia
Pneumonia
Foot Lesions or Infections w/dressings
Internal Bleeding
Dehydration
Hemiplegia with ADL sum >=10
tube feeding
oxygen therapy
chemo therapy
A

Clinically complex group

131
Q

__ is not a disease but rather a combination of a variety of medical problems.

A

Frality

132
Q

Someone should be considered Frail if has __ or more of the following 5 characteristics:

A

3

133
Q

Fraility characteristics (5)

A

Unintentional weight loss (10 lbs or more in a year)
General feeling of exhaustion (self-report)
Weakness
Slow walking speed
Low levels of physical activity

134
Q

Normal frequency of urination is once every __ during daytime
__voids during nighttime hours

A

once every 2 hours

1-2 voids @ night

135
Q
\_\_ bladder capacity
\_\_ residual urine
\_\_ involuntary bladder contractions
\_\_ outlet resistance (female)
\_\_ ability to inhibit contraction
\_\_ outlet resistance (male)
A
decreased
increase
increase
decrease
decrease
increase
136
Q

Risk factors for UI

A
immobility
medications
obesity
smoking
stroke
low fluid intake
diuretics
diabetes 
estrogen depletion
137
Q
\_\_ Loss of urine that occurs during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure:
Coughing
Sneezing
Laughing
Physical activity 
Caused by pelvic muscular weakness as a result of:
Pregnancy 
Obesity
Surgery
Medications
Aging
A

Stress UI

138
Q

Risk factors for Stress UI (12)

A
age, estrogen loss
Caucasian
family history
obesity
smoking
chronic cough
pelvic surgery
chronic constipation
neurological disorders
139
Q

intervention for stress incontinence

A

Kegels 2-5 sets several times a day

feedback

140
Q

Physical or psychological impairment that results in incontinence when the urinary tract is healthy.
Causes:
Decreased mobility
Pain
Clothing that is restrictive
Psychological factors
Ability to put on and take off clothing.
Sequence of tasks involved in toileting.
Mobility – ability to ambulate, use an assistive device or transfer to/from toilet.
Access to toilet/device (urinals, bedside commodes, etc.)

A

Functional UI

141
Q

Psychological message that UI is expected.
Chairs are plastic
Beds are protected
Pads are available and applied “just in case”.
Architectural design
Long corridors
Poorly marked bathroom doors
Caregiver attitudes
“Go ahead and go, I’ll clean you up later”
“She/he does that on purpose”

A

Environmental Incontinence

142
Q

a loss of urine with an abrupt and strong desire to void.
“I’m unable to make it to the bathroom on time.”
caused by an overactive detrusor muscle, resulting in excessive involuntary bladder contractions that may be initiated by:
cancer (bladder / prostate)
infection
spinal or nerve damage

A

Urge UI

143
Q

URge UI treatment options (3)

A

Behavioral therapy
estim
medications

144
Q

Urgency perception score

0-4

A
0 = convenience no urge
1 = mild urge (Can hold more than 1 hour)
2 = Moderate urge (can hold for 10-60 seconds)
3 = severe urge (can hold
145
Q

Loss of urine related to the over distention of the bladder. frequent or constant dribbling; may include urge or stress UI
least common; hard to diagnosi\e

A

overflow UI

146
Q

2 scales used for female pelvic floor muscle function

A

Brink - (3-12) intensity of contraction, vertical displacement, muscle contraction duration

Modified oxford - simpler/easier 0 (lack of muscle) -5 (strong contraction)

147
Q

drug distribution changes include __ cardiac output
__ total body water
__ serum albumin
__ body fat

A

decreased
decreased
decreased
increased

148
Q
With aging, liver mass \_\_
hepatic blood flow \_\_
renal mass is \_\_
\_\_ glomerular filtration
\_\_ tubular secretion and absorption
\_\_ creatinine clearance
A
decreased
decreases
decreased
decrease
decreased
decreased
149
Q

__ Defined as an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience.
Whatever the experiencing person says it is;
Existing whenever he/she says it does

A

pain

150
Q

__ defines pain that results from injury, surgery, or trauma. It may be associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis. Acute pain is usually time-limited and subsides with healing.

A

acute pain

151
Q

__ defines pain that lasts for a prolonged period (usually more than 3–6 months) and is associated with chronic disease or injury (e.g., osteoarthritis).

A

persistent pain

152
Q

__ Refers to pain caused by stimulation of specific peripheral or visceral pain receptors.
This type of pain results from disease processes (e.g., osteoarthritis), soft-tissue injuries (e.g. falls), and medical treatment (e.g., surgery, venipunctureand other procedures).
It is usually localized and responsive to treatment

A

nociceptive pain

153
Q

__ Refers to pain caused by damage to the peripheral or central nervous system

A

neuropathic pain

154
Q

__ is the gold standard for pain assessment

A

self-report

155
Q

__ Pain Results from an injury, surgery, or disease-related tissue damage.
Usually associated with autonomic activity, such as tachycardia and diaphoresis.

A

acute pain

156
Q

__ pain Usually last more than 3-6 months.
May or may not be associated with a disease process.
Autonomic activity is usually absent

A

chronic / persistent pain

157
Q

__ Pain Results from disease processes (osteoarthritis, soft tissue injuries (falls or trauma), and medical treatment (surgery and other procedures

A

Nociceptive pain

158
Q

__ pain Caused by pathology in the peripheral or central nervous system.

A

Neuropathic pain

159
Q

Orthotics have a __ pressure principle located __ and __

A

3 point pressure principle
1 area of deformity or angulation
2 counter forces acting in opposite direction

160
Q

__ opening: has stitched down vamps, not suitable for orthotic wear.

A

bal (balmoral)

161
Q

__ opening: has vamps (the flaps contain the lace stays) that open wide apart from the anterior margin of the shoe for ease of application.

A

blucher opening

162
Q

When foot cannot attain neutral, FO may shim the gap to that fixed position-Accommodative = __ FO

A

accommodating FO

163
Q

__ FO May help the foot attain a neutral position-Corrective

A

Corrective FO

164
Q

FO Longitudinal Arch supports Prevent depression of the subtalar joint and correct for __

A

pes planus (flat foot)

165
Q

University of California Biomechanics Laboratory Insert (semi-rigid plastic molded insert to correct for flexible __

A

pes planus

166
Q

scaphoid pad is used to support __

A

longitudinal arch

167
Q

__is a heel wedge with an extended anterior medial border used to support the longitudinal arch and correct for flexible pes valgus-pronated feet).

A

thomas heel

168
Q

rear foot posting
varus post limits __
valgus post limits __

A

eversion/pronation

inverted/supination

169
Q

forefoot posting
medial wedge prescribed for forefoot __
lateral wedge for ___

A

varus

valgus

170
Q

Heel lifts or heel platform accommodates for __ & accommodates for limitation in __

A

leg length discrepancy;

ankle joint DF

171
Q

an anterior stop limits __

a posterior stop limits __

A

DF

PF

172
Q

Spring assist (Klenzak housing) double upright metal AFO with single anterior channel for spring assist to aid __

A

DF

173
Q

Posterior leaf spring: plastic AFO that inserts into the shoe, widely used to prevent __

A

foot drop (PF)

174
Q

T Straps

Medial strap buckles around the lateral upright and correct for __

A

valgus

175
Q

lateral strap buckles around medial upright and corrects for __

A

Varus

176
Q

Floor reaction AFO uses floor reaction force through toe aspect of foot plate to prevent __

A

knee collapse

177
Q

hinge joint KAFO provides __ & __ control while allowing _/__

A

mediolateral & Hyperextension

flex/ext

178
Q

frontal plane KAFO controls for genu __ or genu__

A

valgum or varum

179
Q

HKAFO controls for __, __, and __

A

abduction, adduction and rotation

180
Q

Reciprocating Gait Orthosis commonly used in cases of __ or __

A

spina bfida and SCI

181
Q

Hip abduction orthosis

A

commonly used __ to position femoral head optimally with acetabulum

182
Q

Periods of gait
Phases (8)
Tasks (3)

A

Stance and Swing
Initial contact, loading response, mid stance, terminal stance, preswing, inital swing, mid swing, terminal swing
Tasks = weight acceptance, Single limb support, & swing limb advancement

183
Q

posterior pelvic tilt causes

4

A

hip flexor weaknes
tight HS
low back pain
hip extensor weakness

184
Q

Contralateral pelvic drop due to __ hip abductor weakness
__ hip adductor contracture or spasticity
__ hip abductor contracture

A

ipsilateral
ipsilateral
contralateral

185
Q

Step Length =

Distance between corresponding successive points of heel contact of the

A

opposite

186
Q

Stride Length =

Distance between successive points of heel contact of the

A

same

187
Q

normal cadence = __ steps/min

A

100-115

188
Q

Comfrotable Walking Speed = __

A

80 ,/min ~3mph

189
Q

Single support = __% of gait cycle

Double support = __%

A

40%

20%

190
Q

muscles at intial contact

A

DF, Quad

Glute max and HS