Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Drug class for Chloroquine sulfate

A

antimalarial

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2
Q

MoA for Chloroquine sulfate

A

increases accumulation of toxic free heme in parasite

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3
Q

Indications for Chloroquine sulfate

A

P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, sensitive P. falciparum malaria

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4
Q

Drug class for Iodoquinol

A

antiamebocide

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5
Q

MoA for Iodoquinol

A

unknown

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6
Q

Indications for Iodoquinol

A

Tx acute & chronic intestinal amebiasis

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7
Q

Drug class for Metronidazole

A

antiamebocide

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8
Q

MoA for Metronidazole

A

disrupts helical DNA structure & causes DNA strand breakage

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9
Q

Indications for Metronidazole

A

tx susceptible anaerobic bacterial & protozoal infections, C. diff infections

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10
Q

Drug class for Mebendazole

A

antihelminthic

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11
Q

MoA for Mebendazole

A

inhibits microtubule synthesis

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12
Q

Indications for Mebendazole

A

tx infection hookworm, pinworm, ascariasis, trichuriasis

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13
Q

Drug class for Praziquantel

A

antihelminthic

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14
Q

MoA for Praziquantel

A

causes spastic paralysis & tegumental damage in helminths

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15
Q

Indications for Praziquantel

A

tx schistosome, taenia infections, several other rarer parasites

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16
Q

Drug class for Permethrin

A

antiscabide

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17
Q

MoA for Permethrin

A

delays Na ion influx through nerve & cell membrane producing paralysis & cell death

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18
Q

Indications for Permethrin

A

tx head louse, scabies

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19
Q

Drug class for Nitrofurantoin

A

urinary antiseptic

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20
Q

MoA for Nitrofurantoin

A

inhibits several bacterial enzyme systems (including acetyl CoA) interfering w/ metabolism & possibly cell wall synthesis

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21
Q

Indications for Nitrofurantoin

A

Px/Tx urinary tract infections

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22
Q

Drug class for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

nucleoside

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23
Q

MoA for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

inhibits viral DNA synthesis & viral replication

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24
Q

Indications for Acyclovir, Famcyclovir, Valcyclovir

A

mucocutaneous HSV 1 & 2, VZV infections

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25
Q

Drug class for Amantadine, Rimantadine

A

M2 pump inhibitor

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26
Q

MoA for Amantadine, Rimantadine

A

inhibits uncoating of influenza A virus preventing penetration of virus into host; dopamine agonist

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27
Q

Indications for Amantadine, Rimantadine

A

influenza A, Parkinson’s disease

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28
Q

Drug class for Oseltamivir

A

neuroamidase inhibitor

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29
Q

MoA for Oseltamivir

A

prodrug converted to active form & inhibits cleaving of virus from cellular envelope preventing release

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30
Q

Indications for Oseltamivir

A

tx/px influenza A & B

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31
Q

Drug class for Zanamivir

A

neuroamidase inhibitor

32
Q

MoA for Zanamivir

A

inhibits cleaving of virus from cellular envelope preventing release

33
Q

Indications for Zanamivir

A

tx/px influenza A & B

34
Q

Drug class for Lamivudine

A

anti-hepatitis B drug

35
Q

MoA for Lamivudine

A

inhibits viral RNA & DNA transcription

36
Q

Indications for Lamivudine

A

tx HBV, HIV

37
Q

Drug class for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a

A

anti-hepatitis B or C drug

38
Q

MoA for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a

A
  1. binds to specific cell membrane receptors inhibiting viral penetration, translation, transcription, protein processing, maturation, release
  2. increases phagocytic activity macrophages
  3. increases # & survival of cytotoxic T cells
39
Q

Indications for Pegylated Interferon Alfa 2a

A

tx HBV, HCV infections

40
Q

Drug class for Ribavirin

A

anti-hepatitis C drug

41
Q

MoA for Ribavirin

A

inhibits replication DNA, RNA, viruses via inhibition of protein synthesis

42
Q

Indications for Ribavirin

A

RSV in infants, Hep c (w/ peg interferon alfa 2a)

43
Q

Drug class for Sofosbuvir

A

anti-hepatitis C drug

44
Q

MoA for Sofosbuvir

A

direct acting antiviral against HCV; prodrug that is converted to active from intracellularly & inhibits HCV NS5B RNA-dependent polymerase needed for viral replications & acts as a chain terminator

45
Q

Indications for Sofosbuvir

A

tx of for Hep C genotype 1,2,3,4 (w/ Ribavirin or Pg Interferon alfa & Ribavirin)

46
Q

Drug class for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir

A

anti-hepatitis C drug

47
Q

MoA for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir

A
  • Ledipasvir: inhibits HCV NS5A protein needed for viral replication
  • Sofosbuvir: inhibits NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase needed for viral replication & acts as a chain terminator
48
Q

Indications for Ledipasvir & Sofosbuvir

A

chronic Hep C, genotype 1

49
Q

Drug class for Rifampin

A

anti-tuberculosis drug

50
Q

MoA for Rifampin

A

inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis by blocking RNA transcription

51
Q

Indications for Rifampin

A

tx TB; elimination of meningococci from nasopharynx in carriers

52
Q

Drug class for Isoniazid

A

anti-tubuerculosis drug

53
Q

MoA for Isoniazid

A

possible interruption of mycolic acid synthesis resulting in disruption of bacterial cell wall

54
Q

Indications for Isoniazid

A

tx TB, latent TB

55
Q

Dx-Dx interaction for Iodoquinol

A

interferes w/ iodine metabolism

56
Q

Which drug could be used to treat Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

57
Q

Dx-Dx interaction for Metronidazole

A

ethanol (causes a disulfiram-like reaction)

58
Q

What is a possible side effect of Nitrofurantoin?

A

pulmonary fibrosis

59
Q

How is Nitrofurantoin metabolized and excreted?

A

very rapidly

60
Q

How is the systemic absorption of Nitrofurantoin?

A

poor so don’t use with pyelonephritis; only use with straightforward UTIs

61
Q

What type of antibiotics are safe to use in pregnant women?

A

macrolides

62
Q

Acyclovir and Valcyclovir at high doses may cause what?

A

seizures

63
Q

Which drug is a prodrug of Acyclovir?

A

Valcyclovir

64
Q

On average, about how much/long does medication reduce flu symptoms?

A

about 1 day

65
Q

Contra-indication for Zanamivir

A

underlying respiratory disease (COPD, asthma)

66
Q

Oseltamivir needs to be started within how many hours of symptom onset?

A

48 hours

67
Q

Common side effect of anti hepatitis C drugs?

A

flu-like syndrome, depression

68
Q

Which drug may cause orange/red staining of body fluids?

A

Rifampin

69
Q

Which anti-tuberculosis drug shouldn’t be used as a sole agent and why?

A
  • Rifampin

- build resistance quickly

70
Q

Major/important side effect of Isoniazid?

A

hepatitis

71
Q

Other drug class for Lamivudine

A

antiretroviral drug: NRTIs

72
Q

Drug class for Delavirdine

A

antiretroviral drug: NNRTs

73
Q

Drug class for Darunavir

A

antiretroviral drug: PIs

74
Q

Drug class for Enfuvirtide

A

antiretroviral drug: fusion inhibitors

75
Q

Drug class for Maraviroc

A

antiretroviral drug: CCR5 antagonists

76
Q

Drug class for Raltegravir

A

antiretroviral drug: integrase inhibitor