More Flashcards

1
Q

What is maternal mortality defined as in the UK?

A

Death whilst pregnant or within 42 days of pregnancy ending from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management
But not from accidental or incidental causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Direct causes of maternal mortality

A

Cause of death is directly attributable to pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indirect causes of maternal mortality

A

Resulting from pre-existing disease or disease developed during the pregnancy which therefore not directly due to pregnancy but aggravated by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Late maternal mortality

A

From 42 days - 1 year by direct or indirect causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Northern Europe rate of maternal mortality

A

1 in 30,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chief direct cause of maternal mortality 2006-2008

A

Genital sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chief cause of maternal mortality overall 2006-2008

A

Cardiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is perinatal mortality

A

Stillbirths and deaths in 1st week of life
Stillbirths only include post 24 weeks of gestation
If born with signs of life >24 weeks but then dies within 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a neonatal death

A

Dies up to and including 28 days after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does triad of abdominal pain, uterine rigidity and vaginal bleeding suggest?

A

Placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Consequences of placental abruption

A

Fetal loss is high if >50% of placenta is affected - fetal anoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Part of the placenta becomes detached from the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Associations of placental abruption

A

Pre-eclampsia, IUGR, smoking, PROM, multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios, older maternal age, thrombophilia, abdominal trauma, assisted reproduction, cocaine/amphetamine use, infection, non-vertex presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the cause of tenderness in placental abruption

A

Compression of uterine muscles by the blood - may prevent good contraction during labour - therefore also PPH risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does uterine torsion present?

A

Mid-late pregnancy with abdominal pain, shock, a tense uterus and urinary retention (catheterisation may show displaced urethra in twisted vagina)
Fibroids, adnexal masses or congenital asymmetrical uterine anomalies are present in 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name of normal c-section scars

A

Pfannensteil (bikini line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can fetal heart be heard with doppler and pinnard?

A

Doppler from 12 weeks and pinnard from 24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When are fetal movements first noticed by mother

A

Around 18-20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rate of fetal movements

A

Increase until 32weeks then plateau at about 31/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should CTG be done for reduced fetal movements

A

If less than 10 - same day CTG

21
Q

What is occiptoposterior fetal position?

A

Back (occiput) facing to the back - head and limbs forward

22
Q

What is occiptoanterior fetal position

A

Back to the front

23
Q

What is leftoccipto transverse position

A

Occiput and back on mothers left side - limbs on mothers right side

24
Q

What foods should be avoided in pregnancy due to risk of listeriosis infection?

A

Unpasteurised milk, ripened soft cheese, pate, undercooked meat

25
Q

What foods should be avoided in pregnancy due to risk of salmonella

A

Avoid raw or partially cooked eggs and meat especially poultry

26
Q

Folic acid for non-high risk women

A

400mcg until 12 weeks

27
Q

Folic acid for high risk women

A

5mg until 12 weeks

28
Q

Who are high risk women who need folic acid

A
Previous NTD or fhx of NTD 
Antiepileptics
Coeliac
DM 
Thalassaemia
Obese BMI >30
29
Q

Painless bleeding after 24 weeks

A

placenta praevia

30
Q

Treatment for women at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia

A

Aspirin 75mg OD from 12weeks until birth

31
Q

Which women are high risk for pre-eclampsia

A

HTN during previous pregnancies
CKD
SLE antiphospholipid
T1 and T2DM

32
Q

4 T’s causing PPH

A

Tone
Tissue (retained placenta)
Thrombin (coag abnormalities)
Trauma

33
Q

What are indomethacin and salbutamol used for in labour

A

To suppress premature labour - tocolytics

34
Q

Management of primary herpes infection in pregnancy

A

Risk of transmission is highest within 6 weeks of delivery
Elective c-section if primary infection after 28weeks
oral aciclovir 400mg TDS given to treat primary infection during pregnancy
IV only needed if spontaneous ROM or delivery occurs

35
Q

First line for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

promethazine

36
Q

Cervical excitation and vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy

A

Ectopic!!!

37
Q

When are pregnant women screened for anaemia

A

Booking

28 weeks

38
Q

Highest risk factor for baby developing Group B strep growth

A

Previous baby who has grown it - causes x10 increased risk

39
Q

Management of Group B strep mothers

A

Intrapartum antibiotics

40
Q

What is syntocinon

A

Oxytocin - used to induce labour

41
Q

What is syntometrine

A

Oyxtocin + ergometrine - used to deliver placenta - shouldn’t be given until baby has been delivered

42
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Propylthiouracil instead of carbimazole - less likely to cross placenta

43
Q

Most common location of ectopic pregnancy

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube

44
Q

Management of postpartum endometritis

A

Admit for IV antibiotics - clindamycin and gentamicin until afebrile for 24hrs

45
Q

When is twin-twin transfusion syndrome identified and in whom

A

Scans at 16-24 weeks and in monochorionic twins

46
Q

Main purpose of scans post-24 weeks

A

To detect fetal growth restriction

47
Q

Management of rhesus D negative pregnant women

A

Anti-D at 28 and 34 weeks

48
Q

Signs of open neural tube defect on amniocentesis

A

2.5x increase in AFP (compared to mean)

Acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid

49
Q

Low AFP, low oestriol and low bHCG on bloods

A

Edwards syndrome - trisomy 18