Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology 2 > Osteoporosis > Flashcards

Osteoporosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A chronic skeletal disorder of compromised bone strength associated with low bone density (quantity) and deterioration of bone microarchitecture (quality) which often results in fragility fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does bone strength depend on?

A

Bone mass and bone microacrchitecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do osteoclasts and osteoblasts do?

A

Osteoclasts excavate areas of damaged or weakened bone.

Osteoblasts then fill in the areas to form bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes bone reabsorption to become greater than formation?

A

Menopause (accelerates bone loss), aging (begins after mid 30s), disease and drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is osteoporosis known as the silent thief?

A

Because it slowly steals bone density over many years without signs or symptoms until a bone breaks or fractures
Extreme curvature can form over time (kyphosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a compression fracture?

A

A loss of >25% of vertebral height with end plate disruption

Can cause 6-9 inches loss in height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do fragility fractures occur?

A

Spontaneously or from minor traumas like falling from sitting or standing height, at walking speed or climbing 3 stairs or coughing, hugging, sneezing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some common sites for a fragility fracture?

A

Hip, spine and wrist

Not feet, ankle, hands, craniofacial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is bone mineral density (BMD) assessed?

A

Using a Dual X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) at the hip and spine

OP classification is a T-score less than -2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What else is used to determine risk of fragility fractures?

A

BMD, age, height, weight, risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is eligible for BMD testing?

A

Fragility fracture, prolonged glucocorticoid use, >65 years use of high risk medications
Those >50 with RA, current smoking, high alcohol intake or low body weight
Those

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some disorders strongly associated with osteoporosis?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism, diabetes, hypogadism, chronic liver disease, Cushing disease, COPD, chronic inflammatory conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What will automatically increase a patient to the next fracture risk assessment category?

A

Fragility fracture after age 40, prolonged corticosteroid therapy (7.5 mg prednisone daily in previous year is equivalent to 3 months of it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What confers high risk in the 10-year fracture risk assessment tool?

A

Hip/vertebral fracture, >1 non-vertebral non-hip fragility fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who is a candidate for osteoporosis therapy?

A

Based on 10-year fracture risk calculation and fracture history
High risk should receive treatment, moderate may, low does not need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some high risk fracture history scenarios?

A

Fragility fracture of the hip or spine, 2 or more non-hip, non-spine fragility fractures or 1 non-spine, non-hip fragility fracture after age 40 and prolonged glucocorticoid use in the previous year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should all patients maintain basic bone health?

A

Strength training twice a week, balance training or tai chi daily, 30 minutes aerobic physical activity daily, home safety and med assessment, calcium, vitamin D, smoking cessation, limit alcohol (2 per day), good nutrition (adequate protein, low sodium)
All very important adjunct to OP meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which medications put patients at risk for falls?

A

Medications taken for sleep, mood, anxiety, depression, hypertension, allergies, pain and muscle spasms. They may impair balance, coordination, vision, dizziness, drowsiness, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How much calcium is needed daily?

A

1200 mg for those 50 years and older
1000 mg for those 19-50
Cannot get all from supplements (usually get ~300 mg from diet)

20
Q

How much vitamin D is needed daily?

A

400-1000 IU daily for adults 50

21
Q

What are some supplements of calcium available?

A 
Calcium carbonate-Tums (must be taken with meals, GI complaints)
Calcium citrate (can be taken with or without food, good for patients who can't tolerate CaCO3 or are on PPI or H2 blocker)
22
Q

What are some side effects of over supplementation of calcium?

A

Kidney stones, increased risk of MI (without vitamin D)

23
Q

What does vitamin D do?

A

Helps the body absorb and use calcium/phosphorous to build/maintain strong bones and teeth
Low levels results in increased bone reabsorption
Excess levels results in hypercalcemia and calcification of organs

24
Q

What are the different types of vitamin D?

A

Vitamin D3 is synthesized in skin on exposure UV and fortified food and milk
Vitamin D2 is found in wild mushrooms, fungi, yeasts
Both must be converted to active form in liver

25
Q

What are the optimal vitamin D serum levels?

A

> 75 nmol/L
2000 IU daily should be followed by serum monitoring
Check levels only after 3-4 months of supplementation/dose changes

26
Q

What are some examples of anti-resorptive agents (inhibits bone loss)?

A 
Biphosphates (alendronate, risendronate, zoledronic acid-IV)
Monoclonal antibody (denosumab), SERM (raloxifene) and estrogen
27
Q

What is an example of an anabolic agent?

A

PTH analogue (teriparatide)

28
Q

How does denosumab work?

A

It is a RANK ligand inhibitor to stop it from binding to the RANK receptors on osteoclasts in circulation so they can’t work

29
Q

Which drugs reduce the RANK ligand?

A

Estrogen and raloxifene

30
Q

How does terparatide (rPTH) work?

A

A recombinant formulation of endogenous parathyroid hormone that stimulates osteoblast activity to form bone, increase GI and renal Ca reabsorption
Anabolic action

31
Q

How do 1st generation biphosphates work?

A

Bind directly to bone hydroxyapatite crystals, are taken up by osteoclasts during remodeling and are incorporated into their ATP, accumulate and induce osteoclast cell death
Etidronate

32
Q

Where does raloxifene work?

A

Spine

Agonist on bone, antagonist on breast and endometrium (no hyperplasia)

33
Q

Where does teriparatide work?

A

Spine and non-vertebral bones

34
Q

What is the first line therapy for patients with menopausal symptoms?

A

Estrogen

35
Q

What are the first line treatments in men?

A

Alendronate, risedronate and zoledronic acid

36
Q

How do 2nd and 3rd generation (nitrogen-containing biphosphonates) work?

A

Bind directly to hydroxyapatite crystals, taken up by osteoclasts during remodeling and act by inhibiting enzymes in the mevalonate pathway (needed for proteins required for osteoclast function), leading to death.
1st line therapy in males and females
More effective than 1st gen

37
Q

How must biphosphonates be taken?

A

Take first thing in the morning with a full glass of water only on an empty stomach (food decrease absorption) and remain upright and avoid ingesting anything other than water for at least 30 minutes
Dairy, antacids, calcium and other divalent cations should be taken 2-3 hours after

38
Q

What is the half-life elimination of biphosphonates?

A

Varies from months to years and is slowly released with the process of bone turnover

39
Q

What are the adverse effects of biphosphonates?

A

GI related problems (acid reflux, nausea, ulcers), bone, joint and/or muscle pain, ocular disorders, acute phase reaction (IV-flu-like symptoms)
Rare: Osteonecrosis of jaw, atypical femur fractures

40
Q

When should drug holidays be considered in patients taking biphosphonates?

A

Should be considered after 5 years in moderate risk patients

High risk patients are not candidates for drug holidays

41
Q

What are the adverse effect of denosumab?

A

Increased risk of infection (activated T and B cells also express RANKL), dermatitis, eczema, rashes, musculoskeletal pain, hypersensitivity, rare incidence of ONJ

42
Q

When is teriparatide indicated?

A

For severe osteoporosis (BMD

43
Q

What are some adverse effects of teriparatide?

A

Transient hypocalcemia 4-6 hours post dose, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache, nausea, arthralgia
Very costly

44
Q

What must estrogen be prescribed with? When?

A

Progestin when the uterus is intact

45
Q

What are the adverse effects of estrogen?

A

Increased risk of breast cancer, stroke, DVT with long term therapy

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of raloxifene (SERM)?

A

Breast cancer risk reduction, increased risk of DVT or PE

Hot flashes, leg cramps/muscle spasms

47
Q

Which medications negatively affect bone metabolism?

A

Glucocorticoids (increase osteoclast proliferation, decrease calcium absorption), aromatase inhibitors (blocks estrogen synthesis) and androgen deprivation therapy (males-increases bone turnover)

Pharmacology 2 (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions