Sexually transmitted viruses Flashcards

1
Q

What marks a patient positive with HIV?

A

A tcell count less than 200 uL or the presence of pneumocystis carinii, kaposis sarcoma.

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2
Q

Which serotype is more likely to develop into AIDS?

A

HIV-2 is less likely to lead to AIDS than HIV-1

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3
Q

What does gp-120 bind?

A

gp-120 in HIV binds CD4 (T cells, monocytes, and macrophages)
It then can bind with a co receptor either CCR5 and CXR4.

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4
Q

What characteristics do CCR5 tropic HIV particulates have?

A

These guys have the gp120 bind to CCR5 and are typically passed from person to person early in the disease infecting macrophages and microglia.

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5
Q

What characteristics do the X-4 tropic HIV particulates have?

A

Uses CXCR4 as a co-receptor.

  • Approximately 40% of patients transition from R5 to X4 during the course of the disease.
  • Associated with the rapid progression of HIV.
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6
Q

Which molecule found in HIV mediates fusion?

A

gp41 mediates fusion between the viral envelope and the plasma membrane.

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7
Q

The prophase HIV virus is referring to which part of the HIV life cycle?

A

The prophase virus is the virus following insertion into the host genome via Integrase.

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8
Q

By what method do progeny HIV virions leave the cell?

A

They leave the cell by budding!

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9
Q

A heterozygous deletion of the CCR5 gene causes what in HIV?

A

A heterozygous deletion causes a longer asymptomatic period before the onset of AIDS.

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10
Q

What occurs following a homozygous deletion of CCR5 gene?

A

No infection with R5-tropic HIV viruses will occur!

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11
Q

HIV maturation describes the process where what occurs?

A

The process of the viral protease cleaving the gag and gag-pol viral polypeptides. This is essential for the infectivity of the virion.

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12
Q

What is the overall transmission risk of HIV from mother to child?

A

25%

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13
Q

When is the child most at risk for contracting HIV from mother in the process of birth?
Least?

A

Most at risk during birth, least likely before and after birth.

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14
Q

Describe HIV - Acute HIV syndrome

A

Seen 3-6 weeks following infection with symptoms very similar to infectious mononucleosis.
Burst of viremia seen but may not have detectable levels of anti-HIV antibodies at this time.

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15
Q

When does the bodies immune response usually begin curtailing HIV infections?

A

Shortly after the initial burst of viremia seen in Acute HIV syndrome the immune system creates antibodies and cause the viral levels to decrease.

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16
Q

What occurs during the HIV chronic phase?

A

A very low level viremia as the virus is currently replicating and undergoing antigenic drift of gp120 and cell to cell fusion.
Can last up to 10 years!!

17
Q

How does HIV progress to AIDS?

A

HIV progresses to aids as CD4 cell levels drop through copious budding, interference with cellular processes, and other mechanisms.

18
Q

What virus causes oral Hair leukoplakia?

A

Epstein- Barr Virus

19
Q

What organism causes thrush?

A

Candida albicans

20
Q

What organism causes Neoplasms?

A

Kaposis sarcoma (HHV8) and B-cell lymphomas.

21
Q

What are targets for diagnosis of HIV?

A

p24 antigen immunoassay
Anti- gp120 immunoassay
Viral genome Nucliec acid test (NAT)

22
Q

HIV-1/2 antigen antibody combination immunoassay detects what specifically?

A

HIV-1 antibodies
HIV-2 antibodies
HIV p 24 antigen (viral protein)

23
Q

What is the purpose of the HIV 1/2 antigen antibody combination immunoassay?

A

Screens for HIV diagnosis.

24
Q

What does the HIV 1/2 antibody differentiation immunoassay test for?

A

HIV 1 antibodies

HIV 2 antibodies

25
Q

What is the purpose of the HIV 1/2 antibody differentiation immunoassay test?

A

Differentiates between HIV-1 and HIV-2 infections.

26
Q

The HIV nucleic acid test searches for what specifically and what is it’s purpose?

A

Searches for HIV RNA genomes

Its purpose is to detect RNA genomes detectable at earlier times of the infection.

27
Q

What sort of dianostic test can detect provirus in infected cells?

A

PCR

28
Q

How does Maraviroc work?

A

It is a chemokine coreceptor agonist that prevents gp 120 interaction with CCR5 in R5 tropic HIV patients.

29
Q

How does Enfuvartide work?

A

Enfuvartide is a fusion inhibitor that binds to gp41 and prevents conformational change needed for viral fusion.

30
Q

How does Azidothymidine work?

A

This is a nucleoside inhibitor (NRTI) that causes chain termination in the provirus.

31
Q

How does Nevirapine work?

A

This is a nonnucleoside inhibitor that binds to the reverse transcriptase and inhibits its activity.

32
Q

How does Raltegravir work?

A

This is an integrase blocker that blocks the integration of DNA copy of the viral genome into the cellular genome.

33
Q

How does Saquinavir work?

A

This drug is a protease inhibitor that inhibits the viral protease causing production of immature defective HIV particles.

34
Q

Standard care of HIV uses how many combinations of ARV drugs?

A

Standar treatment involves at least three ARV drugs combined