4L9 Simple Arrivals

Question 1

Long and Short Bedpost Waypoints

Answer 1

KELTO: L-36/31, S-18/13

AMBIL: L-36/31, S-18/13

BEFAN: L-13/18, S-36/31

NORAK: L- 13/18, S-36/31

KENBI: L-13/18, S-36/31

Question 2

Sequence of Events for Arriving Aircraft

Answer 2

-A/C requests descent with Enroute controller

-A/C is handed off to arrival

-A/C checks in and landing information is given

-A/C is routed to the active runway

-A/C is positioned on the final approach course and cleared for an approach

-Final approach information is given

-A/C is switched to tower frequency

-Tower clears the A/C to land and taxi to the apron

Question 3

SOM 10. West Low will establish aircraft flight planned at:

Answer 3

a) 8000 ft ASL or below, on course, 9000 ft ASL or above in the arrival gate closest to its route of flight

c) At the controller’s discretion, utilize an arrival gate other than the one originally flight planned

d) Enter all changes, additions or cancellations made to RNAV STAR routings in CAATS prior to initiating a hand-off to Terminal.

Question 4

CYWG Arrival Spacing must be:

Answer 4

a. Must be constant or increasing prior to handoff, and is required as follows:

i. For Short Arrivals, between all aircraft with a filed airspeed of 245kts or greater

ii. For Long Arrivals:
* Between Turboprops with a filed airspeed of 245kts or greater
* Between Jet aircraft.

b. Standard Spacing is 6NM.

c. Increased Arrival Spacing may be implemented when required for TWR or TCU ATFM or other operational reasons.

Question 5

Vector an Aircraft if any of the following apply-

Answer 5

• It is necessary for separation.
• It is required for noise abatement procedures.
• You or the aircraft will gain an operational advantage.
• The pilot requests it.

Question 6

Clearance for the STAR allows the aircraft to follow:

Answer 6

-the lateral track only

-descent clearance must be received from ATC. Clear an aircraft flying a STAR for descent in sufficient time to meet any published altitude restriction. Pilots are required to comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions at or above the cleared altitude unless specifically cancelled by ATC.

Question 7

Clear the aircraft to fly direct to any waypoint contained within the STAR provided you:

Answer 7

◦Determine that the shorter route still allows an acceptable descent profile for the aircraft.

◦Instruct the pilot to rejoin the STAR.

Question 8

If you vector an aircraft off a STAR, instruct the pilot to rejoin the STAR using one of the following:

Answer 8

1) Direct to a waypoint (“proceed direct waypoint rejoin STAR”)

2) Intercept a point between two waypoints (“fly heading, rejoin STAR”)

Question 9

If an amended route bypasses a waypoint over which published altitude or speed restrictions exist:

Answer 9

Then the restrictions at that fix are automatically cancelled

Question 10

Vector an aircraft to intercept the final approach course at an angle of 30° or less, and one of the following distances:

Answer 10

-2 miles or more from the point at which final descent will begin

-1 mile, provided the aircraft will intercept the glide path at 3000 ft AGL or higher

-Any distance, but not closer to the runway than the FAF, if requested by the pilot

-Any distance, but not closer to the runway than the FAF, provided:

1) The reported ceiling is 3000 feet AGL or above and the ground visibility is 3 miles or more

2) No known or suspected wind shear conditions exist

3) The pilot has received prior notification of the vectoring procedure either by ATIS or by direct communication

Question 11

Consider an aircraft to be cleared for the STAR if…

Answer 11

The STAR is included in the routing portion of the flight plan

Question 12

You must NOT use the published STAR altitudes for…

Answer 12

Separation

Question 13

MATS allows the cancellation of altitude and speed restrictions, but only for:

Answer 13

Safety, sequencing, separation or pilot requests

Question 14

CYWG Closed STARs

Answer 14

AMBIL- RWY 13
BEFAN- None
KELTO- RWY 18
NORAK- RWY 31
PEPNO- RWY 31 and 36

Question 15

Air Traffic Control Recommended Actions for a Stable Approach

Answer 15

• Allow the arrival or approach procedure to be flown as published
• Avoid routine vectoring
• When aircraft are being vectored, issue track miles to the airport
• Keep the pilot informed
• Ensure the runway assignment is appropriate for the wind
• Issue accurate and timely information
• Apply appropriate speed control and restrictions.
• Avoid instructions that combine a descent clearance and a speed reduction.
• Comply with operational flight requirements
• Avoid close-in, last second runway changes

Question 16

Include the following items in landing information, as appropriate:

Answer 16

*Wind
*Visibility and Ceiling
*Altimeter setting
* Pertinent remarks from the current weather report
* STAR, including any transition
* Runway in use
* Approach aid in use
* Pertinent airport conditions, including RVR

Question 17

If an aircraft has been cleared for a STAR, then on initial contact, the arrival controller must inform the aircraft of the …

Answer 17

landing runway

Question 18

After issuing landing information, if you learn of information that may affect an aircraft’s descent, approach, or landing…

Answer 18

Promptly inform the pilot

Question 19

Who is responsible for updating ATIS information?

Answer 19

Winnipeg Tower

Question 20

E.20.1, in the CYWG ATIS Tower must advise:

Answer 20

• DAR1 as the primary arrival runway
• DAR2 as the secondary arrival runway
• The RSC and CRFI for the primary and secondary arrival runways
• Icing, Wind Shear, and Turbulence PIREPS as indicated in EXCDS (X)
• ATFM restrictions

Question 21

The first response to an aircraft checking in should always include:

Answer 21

*Landing runway
*Current altimeter
*Control instructions (as required)
*Pertinent weather information

Question 22

Reasons why aircraft may not be on a STAR:

Answer 22

• Filed altitude 8000 or below can file direct CYWG.
• Priority flights or aircraft diverting around weather may coordinate direct CYWG even if entering the TCA via a departure gate.
• Aircraft that have been coordinated to enter via the RL gate.
• Aircraft is not equipped properly to fly the STAR.

Question 23

Visual Approach

Answer 23

An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, operating in visual meteorological conditions under the control of ATC and having ATC authorization, may proceed to the airport of destination

Question 24

E.7.1 IFR Arrivals: TCU must inform TWR of the following:

Answer 24

-arrival runway
-approach to be flown
-approach sequence
-approach indicator changes

Question 25

Winnipeg Terminal SOM: When clearing aircraft for approaches via a transition published on the approach plate (4)

Answer 25

1) Do not cancel the published speed restriction or assign a higher speed 2) If necessary, assign a lower speed in accordance with MATS 3) For RNAV Z or ILS Z approaches at CYWG and CYAV, do not cancel or assign lower than the published altitude restrictions, as they are the same as the subsequent "minimum" altitudes, which cannot be amended. A higher altitude may be specified, provided the pilot accepts. 4) For RNAV Y approaches, the transition altitude restriction may be amended to an altitude that is at or above the subsequent minimum altitude provided the pilot accepts the change.

Question 26

LPV

Answer 26

Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance -Uses WAAS to provide an approach similar to a CAT 1 ILS -All LPV approaches have the same decision height as an ILS (200 ft AGL)

Question 27

LNAV/VNAV

Answer 27

Lateral Navigation/Vertical Navigation -provide both horizontal and vertical approach guidance -baro-VNAV is provided instead of WAAS so the approach will have restrictions due to temperature limitations

Question 28

LNAV

Answer 28

Localizer Performance without Vertical Guidance -non-precision approaches with WAAS lateral guidance

Question 29

The following airport systems must be fully serviceable to meet CAT II/III standards:

Answer 29

1) Airport Lighting (AL) 2) ILS Components (localizer, glide path transmitter, NDB, RNAV or DME fix) 3) RVR equipment 4) Power source

Question 30

TCU is obligated to provide TWR with (2)

Answer 30

-Ensure TWR is provided with the sequence of arriving aircraft and update this sequence as required -Provide the TWR with information on the position of arriving aircraft at least once before instructing the aircraft to change to TWR frequency

Question 31

Between TWR and TCU, who is responsible for coordinating PIREP information with the FIC?

Answer 31

The unit receiving the PIREP from the aircraft

Question 32

TCU traffic must maintain 3000'/3500' ASL or above until established in the active ___________

Answer 32

GO ZONE

Question 33

TCU traffic must maintain 3000’/3500’ ASL or above until on final approach or within the DZ (R) for the runway in use when either (2)

Answer 33

* There is an ADS-B or SSR PPS in conflict; or * Tower has verbally coordinated a requirement for the restriction.

Question 34

Reasons (5) Arrivals are permitted descent below 3000'/3500' ASL in the active Go Zones and Descent Zones

Answer 34

1. Unrestricted visual approaches – more on these later in the course 2. Contact approaches 3. Medium aircraft cleared for an RNAV Z approach transition (3000) 4. RNAV Y approaches 5. To ensure acceptable intercept altitude for aircraft vectored to final approach

Question 35

What separates the Go Zones?

Answer 35

A 070-250 line displayed on CSiT aligned with taxiway K

Question 36

E.7.3 TCU must coordinate verbally with TWR: (5)

Answer 36

* Arriving aircraft who may not meet the CAP published FAF speed restrictions * Requests for overhead breaks * Alternate IFR missed approach instructions * Contact approaches * Circling procedures (N)

Question 37

If you initiate vectoring, inform the pilot of the following:

Answer 37

-the purpose of vectors and/or the point to which the aircraft is being vectored -that the aircraft's SID or STAR is cancelled, if applicable

Question 38

When vectoring, ensure the following:

Answer 38

* Provide aircraft with adequate terrain clearance by assigning altitudes at or above a minimum IFR altitude specified for the area within which they are being vectored. * Follow unit procedures to assign cold temperature corrected minimum IFR altitudes, if applicable

Question 39

CYAV 100 NM Safe Altitudes

Answer 39

* Above 0°C: 3400’, or any other Minimum IFR Altitude applicable to the airspace. * Below 0°C to -35°C: CYAV 100NM SAFE ALTITUDE 4000’. * Below -35°C to -50°C: CYAV 100NM SAFE ALTUTUDE 4200’

Question 40

Ways that CYWG STARS connect directly to approach procedures (3)

Answer 40

1. Closed STAR 2. RNAV transition segments on the approach 3. RNAV Y transition via common waypoint

Question 41

1. If the aircraft reaches the end of a closed STAR prior to receiving an approach clearance, the pilot is expected to ___________ 2. If, upon reaching the end of the final approach track, further clearance has not been obtained, the pilot is expected to

Answer 41

1. Intercept the final approach course and fly inbound maintaining the last assigned altitude 2. Track the lateral portion of the missed approach procedure for the anticipated approach and to maintain the last assigned altitude or, if higher, climb to the anticipated missed approach altitude.

Question 42

If an aircraft is flying an open STAR, do the following as applicable (2)

Answer 42

1. If the pilot requests a transition, advise them as early as possible whether to expect the routing or the transition via the approach interface waypoint 2. Issue an approach clearance and transition at least 3 miles prior to the appropriate fix or waypoint

Question 43

After an approach clearance is received, the aircraft is expected to

Answer 43

-follow the STAR to the approach interface waypoint, then follow the appropriate transition, and conduct a straight-in approach while complying with all published altitude and speed restrictions, unless cancelled by ATC

Question 44

If an approach clearance is not received prior to the expected transition ______

Answer 44

The aircraft is required to keep flying the STAR and expect vectors

Question 45

Advantages of clearing an aircraft for the approach via the transition fix rather than vectors

Answer 45

1. Simpler operation and execution required 2. Workload is reduced by flight crew 3. Maximum fuel efficiency is achieved for most modern aircraft by allowing the FMS/autopilot to fly the entire STAR

Question 46

SOM- When clearing aircraft for approaches via a transition published on the approach plate: (4)

Answer 46

1. Do not cancel the published speed restriction or assign a higher speed. 2. If necessary, assign a lower speed in accordance with MATS. 3. For RNAV Z or ILS Z approaches at CYWG and CYAV, do not cancel or assign lower than the published altitude restrictions, as they are the same as the subsequent “minimum” altitudes, which cannot be amended. A higher altitude may be specified, provided the pilot accepts. 4. For RNAV Y approaches, the transition altitude restriction may be amended to an altitude that is at or above the subsequent minimum altitude provided the pilot accepts the change

Question 47

The vectoring “V” indicator on Terminal Control Area maps represents the point at which:

Answer 47

The glide path intercepts the localizer when an aircraft is at the minimum vectoring altitude

Question 48

Localizer ranges for 3000' and 3500' at CYWG

Answer 48

3000' - 20 NM range 3500' or above - 25 NM range

Question 49

When an aircraft is on the final approach course, or immediately before the aircraft turns on to the final approach course, issue the following: (3)

Answer 49

-Vector to intercept the final approach course, if required -Distance from one of the following (FAF, final approach course, threshold) -Approach clearance

Question 50

1. When issued by Tower, a blanket EXCDS "NR" means- 2. Cancellation of an individual restriction must be-

Answer 50

1. All restrictions for that aircraft are cancelled 2. Accomplished verbally

Question 51

2 reasons to switch aircraft to Tower on final

Answer 51

1. Tower needs to issue clearances and instructions to aircraft 2. Tower needs to be in communication with the arrival for ACT to occur

Question 52

E.7.14 TCU shall transfer communications to TWR:

Answer 52

* For instrument and practice approaches, not less than 6NM from the threshold * For visual or contact approaches, as soon as practicable

Question 53

Conditions for Control Transfer to a Tower

Answer 53

* A ceiling of 1000 feet or more and a visibility of 3 statute miles or more are reported at the airport. * The pilot plans a full-stop landing and either of the following conditions applies: ○ The aircraft has been cleared for an approach. ○ The aircraft will have been cleared for an approach when it reaches the point agreed upon by you and the ACC controller. * The aircraft is within the control zone and is either: ○ At a position agreed upon by you and the ACC when you request control ○ Established on the final leg, and transfer of control occurs in accordance with an arrangement[5] * You have done one of the following: ○ Sighted the aircraft, and are satisfied that it will remain in sight and not have to return to IMC ○ Observed the aircraft on situation display on the final leg, ensured that the control transfer point is visible from the tower, and determined that the aircraft is operating in VMC * You ensure the aircraft remains in the control zone

Question 54

TWR/TCU Arrangement E.11 Automatic Control Transfer (ACT)

Answer 54

E.11.1 Control of arriving IFR aircraft is transferred to the TWR automatically when the aircraft is in the control zone, established on final for the landing runway, and is at or inside the FAF or FAWP for a RNAV approach to the landing runway. E.11.2 After Control Transfer to TWR has occurred, control will not revert to TCU except in accordance with E.7.13. E.11.3 TWR must: * Activate ACT whenever conditions permit; * Coordinate verbally with TCU changes to ACT status and electronic display.

Question 55

TWR may request control of an arriving IFR aircraft in the control zone. All TWR requests for control must be:

Answer 55

Considered approved unless otherwise verbally coordinated

Question 56

E.7.11 TWR must not issue speed adjustments to IFR arrivals when: (2)

Answer 56

1. ACT is suspended, unless authorized by TCU 2. When ACT is in effect and the speed adjustment may affect spacing with following IFR traffic, unless previously coordinated