5. Oral Anticoagulants Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

What is the MOA of warfarin?

A

inhibits the synthesis of vitamin-K dependent coagulation factors by interfering with the cyclic interconversion of Vit K epoxide to the active form of Vit K

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2
Q

What are the vitamin-K dependent coagulation factors?

A
  • prothrombin
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
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3
Q

________ is a cofactor for the carboxylation of glutamate residues to gamma-carboxyglutamic acid.

A

Vit K

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4
Q

What process allows the coagulation proteins to undergo a conformational change that is necessary for their activation?

A

carboxylation

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5
Q

Warfarin depletes the _______ form of Vitamin K.

A

reduced

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6
Q

What is the reduced form of Vitamin K?

A

vitamin KH2

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7
Q

Therapeutic doses of warfarin decrease the total amount of active Vit K-dependent clotting factors by _____%

A

30-50%

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8
Q

Warfarin affects the activity of already synthesized coagulation factors. (T/F)

A

False: does not affect the activity of already synthesized clotting factors

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9
Q

What is the degradation half-life of prothrombin?

A

60 hours

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10
Q

What is the degradation half-life of factor VII?

A

4-6 hours

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11
Q

What is the degradation half-life of factor IX?

A

24 hours

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12
Q

What is the degradation half-life of factor X?

A

48-72 hours

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13
Q

How many days of warfarin therapy are required before a clinical response occurs?

A

~ 5 days

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14
Q

Warfarin reduces the activity of anticoagulant proteins __ and __.

A

C and S

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15
Q

What is the half-life of protein C?

A

8 hours

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16
Q

What is the half-life of protein S?

A

30 hours

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17
Q

___________ may be induced after treatment with warfarin is started.

A

hyper-coagulation

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18
Q

Why can hyper-coagulation occur at the initiation of warfarin therapy?

A

The rapid loss of protein C temporarily shifts the balance in favor of clotting until sufficient time has passed for warfarin to decrease the activity of the clotting factors.

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19
Q

PT is prolonged by ______.

A

warfarin

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20
Q

Factors reduced by warfarin at a rate proportional to their ________.

A

half-life

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21
Q

During the first few days of warfarin therapy, the PT primarily reflects the depression of factor ____.

A

VII

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22
Q

With subsequent warfarin treatment, the PT is prolonged by depression of _______ and _______.

A

prothrombin and factor X

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23
Q

PT is a reliable measure of anticoagulation throughout the duration of warfarin therapy. (T/F)

A

False: not reliable in the early course

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24
Q

What is the route of administration of warfarin?

A

oral

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25
Orally administered warfarin is well absorbed from the GI tract. (T/F)
True
26
The effect of warfarin is greatly amplified when administered IV compared to oral. (T/F)
False: no difference
27
Plasma concentrations of warfarin are detectable within ______ of administration.
1 hour
28
The clinical effects of warfarin can be seen in _______.
5-7 days
29
A loading dose of 25 mg of warfarin is recommended to achieve clinical effects more quickly. (T/F)
False: loading doses > 10 mg do not provide quicker effects and may be associated with hyper-coagulation
30
Warfarin is ______ protein bound.
highly
31
Where is warfarin eliminated?
hepatic metabolism (CYP450)
32
Name 3 drugs that increase warfarin levels.
- erythromycin : abx - isoniazid : abx - fluconazole : antifungal - cimetidine : H2RA - amiodarone : antiarrhythmic - clofibrate : lipid-lowering - propranolol : β blocker
33
Name 3 drugs that decrease warfarin levels.
- cholestyramine : lipid-lowering - barbiturates : CNS depressant - rifampin : abx - sucralfate : GI protectant
34
What does INR stand for?
international normalized ratio
35
Why is INR used?
normalization of results using different commercial sources of tissue factor
36
What is ISI?
international sensitivity index: sensitivity of each particular thromboplastin to warfarin
37
What is the formula for INR?
INR = (PT patient/ PT mean normal) ^ISI
38
Thromboplastin with higher ISI values are more sensitive to anticoagulation effects. (T/F)
False: lower ISI = more sensitive
39
For most indications what is the target INR for warfarin therapy?
2.0 – 3.0
40
What is the target INR for mechanical heart valves?
2.5 – 3.5
41
What is the usual starting dose for warfarin?
5 – 10 mg
42
How is anticoagulation therapy managed for an established thrombosis or high risk for thrombosis?
- initial treatment: rapid acting parenteral anticoagulant (heparin or LMWH) - long-term: warfarin with INR determined q4 weeks
43
What are the direct factor Xa inhibitors?
- rivaroxaban (Xarelto) - edoxaban (Savaysa) - apixaban (Eliquis)
44
What are the direct thrombin inhibitors?
dabigatran (Pradaxa)
45
Dabigatran is a prodrug. (T/F)
True
46
Dabigatran is an irreversible competitive inhibitor of thrombin. (T/F)
False: reversible
47
Dabigatran inhibits free or clot-bound thrombin?
both free and clot-bound
48
Dabigatran inhibits thrombin's activation of ________.
platelets
49
How is dabigatran eliminated?
primarily unchanged in urine | substrate of P-glycoprotein
50
Dabigatran is an inducer of CYP450 enzymes. (T/F)
False
51
Dabigatran is a substrate of CYP450 enzymes. (T/F)
False
52
Dabigatran is not an inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes. (T/F)
True
53
What drug will reduce the plasma concentrations of dabigatran?
P-glycoprotein inducers: rifampin
54
Dabigatran shows linear PK. (T/F)
True
55
What is the dose of dabigatran?
150 mg BID (may reduce for ↓ CrCl)
56
What is dabigatran approved for?
reduction in risk of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular a.fib
57
What is the "antidote" for reversing anticoagulation with dabigatran?
idarucizumab
58
How is rivaroxaban dosed?
once or twice daily depending on indication and CrCl
59
What is the onset of action of rivaroxaban?
3 hours
60
Rivaroxaban requires no lab monitoring. (T/F)
True
61
How is rivaroxaban eliminated?
metabolized by CYP3A4 and excreted unchanged in urine
62
What is the onset of action of edoxaban?
~ 3 hours
63
INR must be monitored with edoxaban therapy. (T/F)
False: no lab monitoring
64
Edoxaban undergoes minimal liver metabolism. (T/F)
True
65
How is edoxaban primarily eliminated?
unchanged by the kidneys
66
What is the black box warning with edoxaban?
Do not administer to non-valvular atrial fibrillation patients with CrCl > 95 mL/min
67
What is the onset of action of apixaban?
~ 3 hours
68
Apixaban does not require lab monitoring. (T/F)
True
69
What is the metabolism of apixaban?
- Hepatic: primarily by CYP3A4/5 | - ~27% unchanged in urine
70
What are the advantages of using direct thrombin/Xa inhibitors vs. warfarin?
- similar efficacy in preventing clots - rapid onset of action - less drug interactions / no food interactions - wide therapeutic index - no lab monitoring
71
What are the disadvantages of using direct thrombin/Xa inhibitors vs. warfarin?
- high cost - lack of antidotes - difficulty with renal impairment - not approved for preventing embolism following MI