5. Oral Dental Considerations Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Growth hormone deficiency – Oral Manifestations

  • Overall ____ stature
  • Body proportions normal
  • Smaller maxilla and mandible
  • ____ tooth eruption
  • Delayed shedding of deciduous teeth
  • Delayed development of permanent teeth ____
  • General lack of ____ molar development
  • Reduced ____ of teeth (proportional)
A
short
delayed
roots
third
size
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2
Q

Growth hormone excess – Oral Manifestations

Gigantism (childhood)
• Abnormally \_\_\_\_
• Enlargement of facial soft tissues
• Enlargement of \_\_\_\_ bones 
• \_\_\_\_
Acromegaly (Adult)
• Enlargement of \_\_\_\_ tissues • Coarsening of soft tissues
• Mandibular \_\_\_\_
• Increased dental spacing
• \_\_\_\_
• Macroglossia
A

tall
maxillofacial
macrodontia

bony
prognathism

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3
Q

Hypothyroidism – Oral Manifestations

  • Cretinism (childhood); Myxedema (adult)
  • ____ swelling
  • Lip thickening
  • Association with ____
  • Macroglossia
  • ____
  • Tooth eruption delay / failure
  • Tooth ____ not impaired
  • Association with oral l____
A
facial
lingual thyroid
dysgeusia
development
lichen planus
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4
Q

Hyperthyroidism – Oral Manifestations

  • Increased risk of ____
  • Rapid development of periodontal disease
  • Increased risk of ____
  • Accelerated development of jaws and teeth
  • Premature loss of ____
A

osteoporosis
dental caries
deciduous teeth

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5
Q

Hyperparathyroidism – Oral Manifestations

  • Osseous changes
  • Loss of ____
  • ____ pattern alterations
  • “____” appearance
  • Unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies of mandible
  • ____ tumor
  • Alteration of maxillofacial bones
  • Associated with ____
A

dental lamina dura
trabecular
ground glass

brown
CRD/ESRD

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6
Q

Thyroid disorders – Dental Management

  • Thorough baseline ____ history
  • Diagnosis / management of condition to date
  • Review of systems
  • ____ of diagnosed disease
  • Recognition of undiagnosed disease
  • Need for medical consultation / referral

• Update ____ history at each visit

A

medical
stability
medical

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7
Q

ypothyroidism – Dental Management

• No ____ to dental treatment in patients with stable disease

  • CNS depressants, sedatives or narcotic analgesics
  • Exaggerated ____ in hypothyroid patients
  • ____ dose in mild disease
  • ____ in patients with severe disease
A

contraindications
response
reduced
contraindicated

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8
Q

Hyperthyroidism – Dental Management

• No ____ to dental treatment in patients with stable disease

  • Anti-thyroid medication may cause ____ suppression
  • Consider laboratory assessment
  • Poorly-controlled or undiagnosed disease
  • Defer ____ dental treatment until stable (preferred)
  • Dental treatment / oral infection can precipitate ____ crisis
  • Avoid use of ____
  • ____-reduction protocols
A
contraindications
bone marrow
elective
thyrotoxic
epinephrine
stress
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9
Q

Stress – Reduction Protocol

  • Recognition of ____ risk and anxiety
  • Medical ____
  • Consider ____
  • ____ scheduling
  • Minimize ____ time
  • ____ signs
  • ____ of dental treatment
  • ____ control
A

medical
consultation
premedication
appointment

waiting
vital
duration
pain

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10
Q

Thyroid cancer – Dental Management

  • Management
  • Surgery
  • Ablative ____ iodine therapy (I131)
  • External radiation / chemotherapy – rare
  • Establish optimal oral ____ prior to treatment
  • Frequent recalls
  • Radioactive iodine therapy
  • ____ gland complications
  • Oral pain
  • ____
A

radioactive
hygiene
salivary
dysgeusia

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11
Q

Diabetes mellitus – Oral Manifestations

  • ____
  • Increased incidence / severity of caries
  • ____
  • Oral burning / Glossodynia
  • ____
  • Oral mucosal lesions
  • ____ complications • Altered wound healing
A

xerostomia
candidiasis
lichen planus
salivary gland

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12
Q

Periodontal Health and DM

• DM considered a risk factor for prevalence and severity of ____ disease

  • Degree of glycemic control
  • Increased levels of ____
  • Attachment loss
  • Progressive destructive ____
  • Alteration in wound healing
  • ↑ risk of periodontal ____ formation
A

periodontal

gingivitis
periodontitis
abscess

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13
Q

Periodontal Health and DM

  • Periodontal infection may adversely affect ____ control
  • Periodontitis may be associated with increased risk of developing ____ and macrovascular disease
  • Aggressive periodontal treatment may positively affects glycemic control
A

glycemic

nephropathy

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14
Q

DM – Dental Management

  • Thorough baseline medical history
  • Diagnosis / management of condition to date
  • Review of systems
  • Stability of ____ disease
  • Recognition of ____ disease
  • Need for ____ consultation / referral

• Update medical history at each visit

A

diagnosed
undiagnosed
medical

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15
Q

Physician consultation / referral
• Patient presents with signs / symptoms of undiagnosed disease

  • Patient with known DM
  • Patient exhibits poor ____ control
  • BG values > ____ mg/dl
  • Extensive dental treatment and/or acute infection which may limit ____ intake necessitating altering ____ dose
A

diabetic
400
caloric
insulin

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16
Q

Before Dental Treatment

• Determine ____ control (HbA1c)

  • Antibiotic prophylaxis?
  • Lack of evidence-based ____
  • ____ AM appointments
  • 1.5 - 3 hours after breakfast / insulin

• Avoid elective dental treatment with BG > ____ mg/dl • Have glucose source available

A

glycemic
recommendations

short
400

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17
Q

During Dental Treatment

  • Limit ____ in poorly-controlled diabetics to minimize ↑ in blood glucose levels
  • Keep glucose ____ available
  • Recognize ____ and symptoms of hyper- and hypoglycemia
A

epinephrine
source
signs

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18
Q

After Dental Treatment
• Adjust insulin dose according to ability to maintain ____ intake
• Avoid ____
• Post-____ antibiotics when appropriate

A

caloric
glucocorticosteroids
operative

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19
Q

Adrenal disorders – Oral Manifestations

• ____ disease

  • Oral hypermelanosis
  • ____ pigmentation
  • Diffuse / patchy
  • Hyperpigmentation of the skin
  • ____
  • ____ syndrome
  • ____ tissue deposition in facial area

• Rounded facial appearance
“____”

> >

____ changes to bone

A

addison
brown
bronzing

cushing
fatty
moon facies

osteoporotic

20
Q

Adrenal disorders – Dental Management

  • Thorough baseline medical history
  • Diagnosis / management of condition to date
  • Review of systems
  • ____ of diagnosed disease
  • Recognition of undiagnosed disease
  • Need for medical consultation / referral
  • Update medical history at each visit
21
Q

Adrenal Disorders – Dental Management

  • ____ insufficiency
  • ____-reduction protocols
  • Avoid ____ / NSAIDs if GI ulcers present
  • Determine need for steroid supplementation
  • Risk of adrenal crisis
  • ____

• ____ syndrome

• Adverse effects associated with secondary
diseases
• ____, HTN, CVD, ____, Psych
• Monitor VS

• Delayed wound healing

  • Increased risk of infection
  • Consider use of ____
A

adrenal
stress
ASA
rare

cushing
DM
osteo

antibiotics

ASA

22
Q

The physiology of pregnancy
• Endocrine changes are the most significant alterations during pregnancy
• ____ fold increase in estrogen levels
• ____ fold increase in progesterone levels
• Changes occur due to
• Increasing maternal and fetal requirements for growth • Preparation of mother for delivery

23
Q

Overall changes

1st Trimester (conception–13th week)
• ____
• Tendency for syncopal episodes
• Tendency for ____ and vomiting

2nd Trimester (14th – 27th week) • Relatively \_\_\_\_ symptoms
• General sense of well-being

3rd Trimester (28th week – childbirth) • Increasing ____
• Increasing discomfort
• Mild ____ may be evident

A
fatigue
nausea
few
fatigue
medpression
24
Q

Cardiovascular changes
• ____ in total blood volume (TBV)
• ____ in cardiac output (CO)
• ____ in stroke volume (SV)
• The combination of increased CO and SV can produce a functional ____ in 90% of females
• These murmurs typically disappear after delivery
• ____ in blood pressure during 2nd trimester with return to ____ in 3rd trimester

A
increase
increase
increase
murmur
decrease
baseline
25
Supine Hypotensive Syndrome * Affects up to 8% of ____ * Mainly after ____ trimester * When in supine position, there is compression of the ____ by the fetus * Results in impaired venous return to the heart * Symptoms * ____ * Bradycardia * ____ * Nausea * Dizziness * ____ * Roll the patient on to her ____ side • Lifts uterus off the ____ • Rapid return to normal
females second IVC hypotension sweating left IVC
26
Hematologic changes * Increased ____ count * Increase in ____ volume * Plasma volume is increased disproportionately to erythrocyte volume and creates a ____ anemia * 20% of females develop ____ anemia * Decreased levels of ____ seen * Additional iron and folate required * Clotting factors ____ are increased • Anti-clotting factors ____ are decreased • Pregnant female is considered “____” • Increased risk for ____
WBC erythrocyte physiologic iron-deficiency hemoglobin VII-X XI and XIII hypercoagulable thromboembolism
27
Gastrointestinal changes * ____ and vomiting * 66% of females * Starts ____ weeks after last menstrual cycle * Peaks between ____weeks * Symptoms gradually decline for most females * May continue throughout pregnancy * Likely due to ____ alterations * Increased risk of dental erosion * Pyrosis * ____ * Up to 50% of females * Due to * enlarging ____ * slow rate of ____ * decreased resting pressure of ____ sphincter * Increased ____ * Cravings for unusual foods
nausea 5 8-12 hormonal heartburn fetus lower gastroesophageal appetite
28
Gestational Diabetes * Occurs in 5% of pregnancies * Increased risk with maternal ____ / advancing age * Progressive maternal ____ to insulin * Maternal hyperglycemia→fetal ____ * Normoglycemic state returns s/p ____ * Increased risk of developing: * ____ (maternal / fetal) * ____ (maternal / fetal) * ____ disease (maternal) * ____ (fetal)
obesity insensitivity hyperinsulinemia parturition type 2 DM metabolic syndrome cardiovascular obesity
29
Oral and facial changes • ____ • Results from an enhanced inflammatory response to local irritants due to elevated hormone levels * Usually affects the ____ and interdental gingiva * Usually begins during ____ month of pregnancy * Most common oral complication of ____ * Pregnancy does not cause ____ disease but may cause an existing condition to worsen * Possible association between periodontal disease and risk of ____ birth and ____ birth weight
pregnancy gingivitis ``` marginal second pregnancy periodontal preterm low ```
30
* Pregnancy ____ (epulis gravidarum) * AKA “pregnancy tumor” * Etiology * Increased ____ coupled with local factors (i.e. plaque) * Primarily on ____ aspect of interdental papilla * Most common in first ____ and during ____ trimesters
``` granuloma angiogenesis labial pregnancies first and second ```
31
* Melasma * “Mask of Pregnancy” * Increase in facial ____ appearing as bilateral brown patches on the face * Usually appears during ____ trimester * Observed in approx. 75% of pregnant females • Usually ____ after giving birth
paigmentation first resolves
32
When to Consult with Prenatal Health Care Professional? * If ____ conditions are present that could affect management of the patient (i.e. diabetes, hypertension, pulmonary or cardiac disease and bleeding disorders) * If considering use of ____ sedation or general anesthesia * If considering the use of ____ as an adjunct to local anesthesia Otherwise, consensus guidelines state that dental care can be ____ delivered during all trimesters of pregnancy
comorbid intravenous sedation nitrous oxide
33
Radiographs * Dental radiographs may be ____ during pregnancy because radiation exposure to the fetus in utero is negligible * Fetal dose of radiation when completing a full mouth series using D speed film is equivalent to less than ____ hours of average daily background radiation in the U.S.
prescribed | 2.5
34
* Minimize radiation exposure to mother and fetus via: * Using ____ x-rays instead of panoramic radiographs when appropriate (to minimize total radiation dose) * Using____ films (____ speed) or ____ radiography * Use of ____ collimation * Use of a properly ____ beam * Use of a ____ collar and lead apron over the abdomen
bitewing high-speed E digital rectangular collimated thyroid
35
Drug Administration * Easy transfer of free (unbound) drug across the placenta exposing the fetus to the drug * Due to changes in drug metabolism and bioavailability in pregnant females * Caution must be used when prescribing drugs to pregnant females * Use only if expected ____ to mother > potential risks to fetus * Most drugs are excreted in ____ • Exposes newborn to the drug
benefits | breast milk
36
U.S. FDA Guidelines • Categorization of prescription drugs for pregnancy based on their potential risk of fetal injury • Drugs in category____ are preferable for prescribing • Drugs in category ____ typically present the most difficulty for the health care providers in terms of therapeutic and medicolegal decisions
A or B | C
37
* Category A—Controlled human studies indicate no apparent ____ to the fetus. The possibility of risk to the fetus is remote. * Category B—Animal studies do not indicate fetal ____. Well- controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk. * Category C—Animal studies show an ____ effect on the fetus but there are no controlled studies in ____. The benefits from use of such drugs may be acceptable. * Category D—Evidence of ____ risk, but in certain circumstances the use of such a drug may be ____ in pregnant women despite its potential risk. * Category X—Risk of use in pregnant women clearly ____ possible benefits.
``` risk risk adverse humans human acceptable outweighs ```
38
Analgesics * Acetaminophen * Category ____ * Most commonly used ____ to be used during pregnancy * ____ secretion in breast milk * Aspirin * Category ____ * Prostaglandin inhibitor * Known to cause constriction of ____ * ____ in breast milk * Ibuprofen * Category ____ in 1st and 2nd Trimester, Category ____ in 3rd Trimester * Similar to aspirin effects * ____ secretion in breast milk (less than aspirin)
B analgesic limited D ductus arteriosus secreted B D limited
39
Local Anesthetics • Lidocaine • Category ____ • Safe to use for pregnant patients * Mepivicaine, bupivicaine, and articaine * Category ____ • Epinephrine use is considered to be ____ during pregnancy
B C safe
40
Antibiotics / Antifungals * Penicillins and cephalosporins * Category ____ * First choice for ____ infections * Safe when used in pregnancy * Clindamycin * Category ____ * Recommended for pregnant patients with ____ allergy * Nystatin (antifungal) * Category ____
B oro-facial B penicillin B
41
Oral Hygiene * Educate patient regarding importance of oral ____ during pregnancy * Maintain ____ / flossing regimen as per dental team recommendations * Rinse daily with over-the-counter ____, alcohol-free mouthrinse * After eating, chew ____-containing gum (↓ bacteria that can cause tooth decay) * After vomiting, rinse mouth with ____ (and 1 tsp of baking soda, if available) * (↓ acid that can affect tooth structure)
``` hygiene brushing fluoridated xylitol water ```
42
1st Trimester – Clinical Management • Emphasize importance of ____ • Dental treatment may be provided on an as-needed basis • Radiographs may be prescribed ____ • Patient may be ____ due to nausea and vomiting during 1st trimester
oral hygiene selectively uncomfortable
43
2nd Trimester – Clinical Management * Emphasize importance of oral hygiene * Dental treatment may be provided on an as-needed basis * Radiographs may be prescribed selectively * Patients typically have ____ overall discomfort during the 2nd trimester
less
44
3rd Trimester – Clinical Management • Emphasize importance of oral hygiene • Dental treatment may be provided on an as-needed basis • Radiographs may be prescribed selectively • ____ dental appointments should be considered with appropriate positioning while in the chair • Promote patient comfort • Minimize risk of supine hypotensive syndrome
short
45
Postpartum – Clinical Management * Return to routine oral hygiene regiment * Return to routine dental care recommendations * Monitor for resolution of any oral changes that may have occurred during pregnancy * Appropriate use of ____ in patients who are nursing
medications