Top 100 Secrets Flashcards

1
Q

What are findings in myopathies?

A

proxmial symmetric weakness WITHOUT sensory loss

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2
Q

What is the triad of spinal cord disease?

A

distal symmetric weakness
sphincter problems
sensory level

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3
Q

Unilateral lesion in brainstem causes what?

A

causes “crossed syndrome”
ipsilateral dysfxn of CN
contralateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss

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4
Q

what causes memory formation?

A

long-term potentiation

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5
Q

NT deficiency in alzheimers

A

Acetylcholine

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6
Q

NT deficiency in epilepsy

A

GABA

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7
Q

NT deficiency in parkinsons

A

dopamine

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8
Q

NT deficiency in migraine

A

serotonin

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9
Q

What muscle weakness causes a foot drop?

A

tibialis anterior muscle

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10
Q

what lesion causes a foot drop?

A

Common peroneal nerve

Or L5

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11
Q

Which portion of the face is paralyzed in Bells palsy? What nerve is damaged?

A

entire face

lower motor neuron of CN VII

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12
Q

what portion of the face is paralyzed with UMN of CN VII? Why?

A

Lower face because the upper face is innervated by bilateral CN VII

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13
Q

What causes a dilated or “blown” pupil?

A

compression of CN III by aneurysm or brain herniation

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14
Q

Which type of hydrocephalus is a medical emergency?

A

non-communicating hydrocephalus because increased ICP

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15
Q

How do you diagnose myopathies?

A
  • CK
  • EMG
  • muscle biopsy
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16
Q

what is the most common muscular dystrophy in adults?

A

myotonic dystrophy

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17
Q

What structure is impaired in lamert-eaton myastenic syndrome?

A

pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channels

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18
Q

what is myotonia?

A

delayed relaxation after muscle contraction

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19
Q

What does muscle disease show on EMG?

A

full contraction with short, small, motor units

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20
Q

what does nerve disease show on EMG?

A

dropout and reduction in muscle contraction

prolonged, large motor units

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21
Q

most common causes of peripheral neuropathy

A

diabetes and alcoholism

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22
Q

most common cause of motor neuropathy

A

guillan-barre

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23
Q

what is the most common overlooked cause of peripheral neuropathy?

A

genetic

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24
Q

spinal fluid of guillan barre?

A

high protein and low cell counts (normal)

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25
Q

most common motor neuron disease

A

ALS

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26
Q

indications for surgery in patient with radiculopathy

A
  • intractable pain
  • progressive motor weakness or sensory deficits
  • symptoms refractory to reasonable degree of nonoperative therapy
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27
Q

What is neurogenic claudication (psuedoclaudication)

A

bilateral, asymmetric lower extremity pain that is provoked by walking, better with rest

28
Q

what is spinal shock?

A

sudden damage to spinal cord leading to temporary flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, sensory loss, loss of bladder tone

29
Q

Occlusion of what artery causes anterior spinal artery syndrome

A

Adamkiewicz

30
Q

What are the findings of ASA syndrome?

A
  • bilateral weakness
  • loss of pain and temperature and hyperreflexia below lesion
  • preserved dorsal column functions (position and vibration)
31
Q

findings in cauda equina syndrome?

A
  • weakness and sensory loss in lower extremities
  • prominent radicular pain
  • saddle anesthesia
  • urinary incontinence
32
Q

Triad of Meniere’s disease

A
  • episodic vertigo
  • tinnitus
  • hearing loss
33
Q

What causes of meniere’s disease?

A
  • increased endolymph in scala media

- hair cells degenerate in the macula and vestibule

34
Q

Where is the blood supply of the brain stem derived?

A

vertebrobasilar system of posterior circulation

35
Q

What are the 2 causes of coma?

A
  • process affecting reticular activating system in brain stem
  • process affecting both cerebral hemispheres simultaneously
36
Q

What is the most valuable treatment in parkinsons disease?

A

Sinemet (levodopa)

37
Q

Whats the most common cause of tremor?

A

essential tremor

38
Q

What is the most common form of focal dystonia?

A

torticollis

39
Q

What is the treatment of most focal dystonia?

A

botulinum toxin

40
Q

What are the cardinal symptoms of autonomic insufficiency?

A
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • bowel and bladder dysfunction
  • impotence
  • sweating abnormalities
41
Q

what is syncope most commonly caused by?

A

cardiac problems, not neurologic

42
Q

What does the diagnosis of MS require?

A
  • two separate symptoms and two different time

- lesions disseminated in space and time

43
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

seizures that persist or recur without regaining consciousness

44
Q

When do you need to stop status epilepticus?

A

within 1 hour of onset

45
Q

How do you diagnose vascular dementia?

A

can’t use just MRI or CT scan alone, you also need a clinical picture of cerebral ischemia

46
Q

What is the technical word for sleep lab testing?

A

polysomnographic evaluation

47
Q

classic tetrad of narcolepsy

A
  • excessive daytime sleepiness
  • cataplexy
  • sleep paralysis
  • hypnagogic hallucinations
48
Q

What are the most common primary brain tumors?

A

glioma

49
Q

what is the most common spinal cord tumor?

A

astrocytoma

50
Q

how much more common are metastatic brain tumors compared to primary?

A

10 times more likely

51
Q

what is the treatment of spinal mets?

A

radiation

52
Q

what is dysarthria?

A

defect in the way speech sounds

53
Q

what is aphasia?

A

defect in the use of language

54
Q

what is the most common sporadic encephalitis?

A

herpes simplex

55
Q

first line treatment for acute migraines

A

triptans

56
Q

best treatment for tension headache

A

amitriptyline + NSAID

57
Q

What is normal adult EEG with eyes closed?

A

9-11 cycles/sec in occipital lobes

this is called the alpha rhythm

58
Q

what are the 4 types of strokes?

A
  • thrombotic
  • embolic
  • lacunar
  • hemorrhagic
59
Q

what are the most important modifiable risk factors for stroke?

A
  • HTN
  • smoking
  • heart disease
  • hyperlipidemia
  • hyperhomocysteinemia
60
Q

When do you do surgery on patients with symptomatic stroke?

A

70% stenosis or more in internal carotid arteries

61
Q

most important complications of SAH

A
  • rebleeding
  • vasospastic ischemia
  • hydrocephalus
  • sz
  • SIADH
62
Q

what should you do for all partial seizures?

A

evaluate with MRI

63
Q

when should you send someone to an epilepsy evaluation center?

A

when a patient fails 2 drug treatments

64
Q

Broca aphasia

A

impaired comprehension, repetition, naming, and speech output d/t left frontal lobe lesion

65
Q

Wernicke aphasia

A

fluent speech full of nonsense words and phrases d/t L temporal lesion

66
Q

what is the drug most often recommended by neurologists?

A

acetaminophen