Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Specialty Medicine > Diseases of the oral cavity > Flashcards

Diseases of the oral cavity Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general progression of the exudate seen with pharyngitis?

A

Serous to mucous to dryness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes the hyperemia with pharyngitis?

A

Pharyngeal wall blood vessels become dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens to the follicles in pharyngitis?

A

Small, white, yellow, or gray plugs form in the follicles of lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the major JONEs criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  • Polyarteritis (joints)
  • Carditis (heart)
  • Nodules
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Sydenham’s chorea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is erythema marginatum seen with rheumatic fever? How does it spread? What classically makes it worse?

A

A long-lasting reddish rash that begins on the trunk or arms as macules, which spread outward and clear in the middle to form rings, which continue to spread and coalesce with other rings, ultimately taking on a snake-like appearance. This rash typically spares the face and is made worse with heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the four major gram positive rods?

A
  • Clostridium
  • Listeria
  • Bacillus
  • Mycobacterium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the alpha hemolytic streps, and how do you differentiate?

A

Pneumoniae = optochin sensitive and bile soluble

Viridans = optochin resistant and bile insoluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive, and bile soluble = ?

A

Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant, and bile insoluble = ?

A

Strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, beta hemolytic, and bacitracin sensitive = ?

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, beta hemolytic, and bacitracin resistant = ?

A

GBS (agalactiae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, gamma hemolytic, and grows in bile AND 6.5% NaCl = ?

A

Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase negative, gamma hemolytic, and grows in bile but NOT in 6.5% NaCl = ?

A

Strep bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the beta hemolytic streps, and how do you differentiate them?

A

S. pyogenes = bacitracin sensitive

GBS = bacitracin resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the gamma hemolytic streps, and how do you differentiate them?

A

Enterococcus = grows in bile, and NaCl

Non Enterococcus = grows in bile, NOT NaCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you differentiate between staph epidermidis and saprophyticus?

A

Novobiocin sensitive = epidermidis

Novobiocin resistant = Saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase positive, coagulase negative, and novobiocin sensitive = ?

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gram + cocci that is catalase positive, coagulase negative, and novobiocin resistant = ?

A

S. Saprohpyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four most common diseases caused by strep pneumo?

A

Meningitis
OM
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which strep bacteria predisposes to colon cancer?

A

Strep bovis

“bovis in the blood = cancer in the colon”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the encapsulated bacteria?

A

“SHiNE SKiS”

  • strep pneumo
  • HiB
  • Neisseria Meningitidis
  • E. coli
  • Salmonella
  • Klebsiella
  • GBS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the catalase positive organisms?

A

PLACESS for your cats

  • Pseudomonas
  • Listeria
  • Aspergillus
  • Candida
  • E.Coli
  • S. Aureus
  • Serratia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes the fetid breath with pharyngitis?

A

Crypts fill with bacterial debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the obligate aerobes?

A

Nagging pests must breathe

  • Nocardia
  • Pseudomonas
  • Mycobacterium TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the obligate anaerobes?

A

Can’t breathe Air

Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two obligate intracellular organisms?

A

Rickettsia
Chlamydia

“stay inside when it’s Really Cold”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the facultative intracellular organisms?

A

Some Nasty bugs may live facultativeLY

  • Salmonella
  • Neisseria
  • Brucella
  • mycobacterium
  • Listeria
  • Francisella
  • Legionella
  • Yersinia pestis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the organisms that stain positive with a giemsa stain?

A

Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience

  • Chlamydia
  • borrelia
  • Rickettsiae
  • Trypanosomes
  • Plasmodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is trench mouth?

A

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG; colloquially known as trench mouth) is a common, non-contagious infection of the gums with sudden onset. The main features are painful, bleeding gums, and ulceration of inter-dental papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the abx of choice for pharyngitis? Duration of treatment?

A

PCN–5-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common infectious agent that causes adenotonsillitis?

A

GAS
Staph aureus
Hi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or false: the tonsil weight is directly proportional to the bacterial load with tonsillitis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the classical findings of EBV?

A
  • Marked LAD and splenomegaly
  • Macular rash that increases with PCN administration
  • Exanthem of the palate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the treatment for severe obstructive symptoms with EBV?

A

Prednisone

35
Q

What is the virus that can cause Guillain barre syndrome?

A

EBV

36
Q

What is a major sequelae of untreated tonsillitis?

A

Infections of the tonsils proceed to diffuse cellulitis that could lead to a peritonsillar abscess

37
Q

What are the s/sx of peritonsillar abscesses? (4)

A
  • Marked dysphagia / trismus
  • Otalgia unilaterally
  • Increased salivation
  • Uvula deviation
38
Q

Where does the suppurative infiltration most commonly occur with tonsillitis?

A

Supratonsillar fossa

39
Q

What is the role of throat cultures with tonsillitis?

A

Not effective–need culture of the abscess

40
Q

What bacteria usually causes peritonsillar abscesses?

A

Strep pyogenes

41
Q

What is the treatment for a peritonsillar abscess?

A

I and D

Abx and warm saline irrigation

42
Q

Where are retropharyngeal abscess located?

A

Buccopharyngeal fascia, running along the entire length of the neck

43
Q

What is the anterior border of the retropharyngeal space?

A

Pharynx and esophagus

44
Q

What is the posterior border of the retropharyngeal space?

A

Alar layer of deep fascia

45
Q

What is the superior border of the retropharyngeal space?

A

Skull base

46
Q

What is the inferior border of the retropharyngeal space?

A

Superior mediastinum

47
Q

What are the general s/sx of retropharyngeal abscesses?

A
  • Odynophagia/ dysphagia

- Fever

48
Q

What are the breathing s/sx of retropharyngeal abscesses?(2)

A

Stridor

Noisy breathing

49
Q

What are the neck findings of retropharyngeal abscesses? (3)

A
  • Cervical LAD
  • torticollis
  • nuchal rigidity
50
Q

What is the treatment for retropharyngeal abscesses? (3)

A
  • Airway management
  • I and D
  • IV abx and steroids
51
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: trismus

A

Peritonsillar

52
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: torticullis

A

Retropharyngeal

53
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: common voice changes

A

Peritonsillar

54
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: fever

A

Both

55
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: LAD

A

Both

56
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: ear/throat/neck pain

A

Peritonsillar

57
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: nuchal rigidity

A

Retropharyngeal

58
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: airway s/sx?

A

Retropharyngeal

59
Q

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscess symptom: unilateral s/sx

A

Peritonsillar

60
Q

What is the frequency criteria for a tonsillectomy?

A

3 or more episodes in a year

61
Q

What are the indications for a tonsillectomy, beside the frequency?

A
  • Hypertrophy causing obstruction
  • Halitosis
  • Peritonsillar abscess unresponsive to nonsurgical management
62
Q

What two diseases predispose patient to alar ligament laxity?

A

Down syndrome and RA

63
Q

Under what age should overnight observation be done post tonsillectomy?

A

Less than 3 years

64
Q

What are the indications for overnight observation post tonsillectomy?

A
  • Poor oral intake / emesis
  • Surgery for OSA or PTA
  • Poor f/u
65
Q

If home is greater than how far away is an indication for overnight observation post tonsillectomy?

A

45 minutes

66
Q

What is the issue with not hydrating enough post tonsillectomy?

A

Dry oral mucosa = cracking and bleeding

67
Q

What is the most common post tonsillectomy complication?

A

Bleeding

68
Q

What is velopharyngeal insufficiency? how does this relate to tonsillectomy?

A

Disorder resulting in the improper closing of the velopharyngeal sphincter (soft palate muscle in the mouth) during speech, allowing air to escape through the nose instead of the mouth.

Complication of tonsillectomy

69
Q

What are the nasopharyngeal complications 2/2 tonsillectomy?

A
  • Stenosis d/t overuse of caudry

- Eustachian tube dysfunction

70
Q

What are the indications for adenoidectomy?

A
  • OSA
  • Dysphagia
  • Speech issues
  • Severe orofacial abnormalities
71
Q

What is the frequency criteria for an adenoidectomy 2/2 infection?

A

3 or more episodes / year, OR recurrent OME

72
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms with adenoid disease?

A
  • Hyponasality
  • Snoring
  • Mouth breathing
73
Q

What happen to the face with adenoid disease?

A

Overbite
Long face
Crowded incisors

74
Q

What is the concern with a bifid uvula?

A
  • Submucous cleft

- Diastasis of muscles of the soft palate

75
Q

What is the only indication for lateral plain films in the evaluation of adenoids?

A

If the PE and history are not in agreement

76
Q

What is geographic tongue?

A

Idiopathic, benign overgrowth of the mucosa of the tongue

77
Q

What is hairy tongue?

A

Elongation of the fusiform papillae of the tongue, 2/2 poor oral hygiene

78
Q

What are tonsilliths? Treatment?

A

Debris accumulating in the mucosa crypts

H2O2 rinse

79
Q

What are the external mouth findings c/w candidiasis?

A

Angular cheilitis

80
Q

What are mucous retention cysts of the oral mucosa?

A

Usually asymptomatic cyst caused by an obstruction of a duct, usually belonging to the parotid gland or a minor salivary gland

81
Q

What are mucoceles of the lip?

A

Clinical term that refers to two related phenomena:

  • Mucus extravasation phenomenon
  • Mucus retention cyst

The former is a swelling of connective tissue consisting of a collection of fluid called mucin. This occurs because of a ruptured salivary gland duct usually caused by local trauma, in the case of mucus extravasation phenomenon, and an obstructed or ruptured salivary duct (parotid duct) in the case of a mucus retention cyst. The mucocele has a bluish translucent color, and is more commonly found in children and young adults.

82
Q

Angioedema is caused by a deficiency of what?

A

C1 esterase inhibitor

83
Q

What is torus palatinus?

A

Benign, bony protrusion of the palate

84
Q

What is torus mandibularis?

A

Benign, bony growth in the mandible along the surface nearest to the tongue

Specialty Medicine (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions