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Aeromedical Evacuation > Universal Master Question File > Flashcards

Universal Master Question File Flashcards

1
Q

Operations Group Commanders (OG/CC) shall Define local operation procedures to AFI 11-2AEV3 in a unit supplement?

A

A. True

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2
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, ect., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a ___________.

A

A. Warning

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3
Q

Wavier authority fro content of AFI 11-AEV3 is the ________.

A

D. MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

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4
Q

During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later then __ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide ____________.

A

C. 1/AF IMG 3858 Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information

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5
Q

The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:

A

A. A patient is removed from flight
B. A change in patient status
C. Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements
D. All of the above

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6
Q

A basic AE crew consists of ___/____ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AEV3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions)

A

D. 2 FN/3 AET

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7
Q

Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/D) may extend to augment day regardless of aircrew composition

A

A. True

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8
Q

The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as

A

A. The C2 agent or pic discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first take off of the day
B. PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew memebers can get adequate rest en route.
C. The PIC with a basicc crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (W/mission execution authority)
D. All of the above

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9
Q

Which of the following does not describe a medical crew director?

A

C. Final mission authority and will make decision not assigned to high authority

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10
Q

The Squadron’s Chief Nurse after reviews the Operational Risk Management (ORM) worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less then (1) FN and two (2) AET’s and will notify the controlling C2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive.

A

B. This is permissible, the CN my increase tor reduce the crew compliment

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11
Q

________ or designees will augment an aircrew with FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting aircrew members adequate time to rest en route

A

B. SQ/CC

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12
Q

The ______ must designate who is going to be MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401, prior to mission execution.

A

B. SQ/CC

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13
Q

SQ/CC’s shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties

A

A. When the flight will excedd maxiumim flying time limitations
B. Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (Scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric (compression) chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes
C. Within 12 hours following a hypobaric (altitude) chamber mission above 25,000 ft.
D. All of the above

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14
Q

What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?

A

C. Appropriate management of sleeping cycles

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15
Q

Aircrew members will limit the use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more then 20 days in a 60-day period.

A

A. True

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16
Q

C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except ________.

A

A. When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO.
B. During Emergencies

D. A & B

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17
Q

What is the purpose of an assertive statement “Time Out”?

A

A. Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situation awareness
B. Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs
C. Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew duties departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing condition
D. All of the above

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18
Q

What is the goal of Aviation Safety Program (ASAP)?

A

A. To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and evens or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through tradition safety reporting sources

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19
Q

All AECMs will wear nomex gloves during taxi, take off and landing.

A

A. True

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20
Q

What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?

A

A. Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department.
B. The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS>
C. Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exit (excluding the over head escape hatch) are opened for egress
D. All of the above

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21
Q

At what point during the price check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?

A

D. C- Connection

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22
Q

Demonstartion of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.

A

A. True

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23
Q

When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?

A

C. 5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are “resting” and log other time

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24
Q

If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECM will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:

A

A. Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOCPMRC) for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.
B. Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.
C. Be ready ro communicate age, sex, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for woman of childbirth years date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report any treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome.
D. All of the above

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25
Q

Which of the following are effective CBRN passive defense measures?

A

A. Up-to-date immunizations
B. Standard Personal Hygiene practices
C. The use of chemoprophylaxis
D. All of the Above

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26
Q

If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the ____ will check the security of all patient/passengers by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.

A

C. CMT

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27
Q

In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:

A

A, The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation

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28
Q

All of the following statements are correct except?

A

A. On mission with ventilator patients, AECM’s will calculate permission oxygen requirements using 14 LPM for all ventilators.

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29
Q

During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the ________ is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.

A

C. CMT

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30
Q

When considering placement of an “H’ sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:

A

C. Against the inner aspect of the sanction with two cargo tie-down straps places on upper and lower portions of the H tank.

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31
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, ect., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a __________________.

A

B. Caution

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32
Q

The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred ________ oxygen, smoke and fume protection.

A

B. Passenger

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33
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient and attendants?

A

C. AE Crew

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34
Q

The EPOS will not function with out the removal of the __________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the _______ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.

A

C. Metal Tab

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35
Q

The PBE/EEBD is a ______ minute self-contained, completed disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.

A

D. 15

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36
Q

AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Eqiupment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between ____ and ____ PSIG gage pressure.

A

C. 5/38

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37
Q

The adult/child (A/C) LPU is preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPUS can be used on the children greater than ____ old.

A

A. 18 months

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38
Q

PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold _____ LBS.

A

D. 260

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39
Q

When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold ____ LBS

A

B. 320

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40
Q

On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3 pin “household type” service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide ____amps for a total of ___ amps.

A

C. 15/90

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41
Q

A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the ____ aeromedical electric outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlet on each panel

A

C. 6

42
Q

A minimum quantity of __ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.

A

C. 75

43
Q

To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft fright side to the ___ Hz system for a total of ___ amps when using the Avionic/Unitron Frequency Converter

A

C. 400/40

44
Q

For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.

A

A. True

45
Q

The release of TCTO IC-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T black, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ___ amps.

A

A. 180

46
Q

When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked _________ and __________ are pulled.

A

A. Galley PWR/Station 445

47
Q

The KC-125 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE Crews will request ground air conditioning units when the ambient temperature is ______ degrees or greater

A

B 84

48
Q

Latring capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO IC-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latring and a minimum of __________ and ____________.

A

B Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges

49
Q

A total of ___ litter patients can be floor loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional _______ littler patients.

A

C. 15, 6

50
Q

On the C-17, a total of ____ litters patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ___ litters patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.

A

B 48/12

51
Q

On the KC-135 the maximum floor loaded litter capacity is ____ patients. Maximum altitude for floor loaded patients if flight level _____.

A

C. 8, 350

52
Q

If a wavier request for a piece of non-certified equipment is approved, there is no need to complete a DD Form 2852.

A

B. False

53
Q

It is the responsibility of the ____ to ensure aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.

A

C. AEC Commander

54
Q

If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:

A

A. Complete AFTO 350
B. Upon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to the host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF
C. Complete DD Form 2852
D. All of the above

55
Q

After the delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows.

A

A. 90 days for Active component and deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG)

56
Q

The following statements about the Mutilator are correct, except:

A

A. The oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator

57
Q

The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store ___ of liquid oxygen (LOX) to a gaseous state.

A

B. 20 L

58
Q

The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?

A

D. Red indicates no pulse

59
Q

During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?

A

A. Total patient oxygen requirement
B. Total pre-mission, mid-mission and post-mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level
C. A and B
D. All of the Above answer

60
Q

Synchronized cardioverison is permitted by the ACLS flight nurse with out physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?

A

D. None of the Above

61
Q

____ and _____ indicate a mandatory requirement.

A

B Will/Shall

62
Q

The propaq encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings

A

A. True

63
Q

The turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?

A

C. Automatically and continues to take as many measurements as possible within five minutes

64
Q

When utilizing the Unitorn Portable Power System do no exceed 45 amps for the unit or 15 amps for any one duplex erectable.

A

B. False

65
Q

When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:

A

C. Turn off the unit when connecting to aircraft power

66
Q

If the ______ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operations

A

B. Yellow

67
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?

A

A. The unit Simultaneously operates and recharges the battery when plugged into either 115/230 VAC 50-400 Hz or 28 VDC power source
B. The internal battery operates for a minimum of two hours and takes a maximum of 16 hours to recharge
C. The charge light will not illuminate if the battery is fully charged
D. All of the above

68
Q

When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing _____, use a 45 degree ______, motion to insert cassette into channel.

A

D. Downward/upward

69
Q

The Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain is a disposable, waterless operating system with 2100 ml collection volume, dry suction regular, and one-say valve for seal protection. Since this medical piece of equipment is approved fro flight, ensure a Heimlich valve is in place

A

B. False

70
Q

Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:

A

A. Always lace the chest drain below the patient’s chest in an upright position
B. To avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter.
D. both A and B

71
Q

When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every ______ unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient movement Record)

A

C. Every Hour

72
Q

The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient’s head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during ________.

A

A. Take off
B. Landing
C. Enplaning/Deplaning
D. All of the above

73
Q

Use a minimum of ______ litter bearers to enplane the North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to ___ personnel.

A

B. 6/8

74
Q

Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.

A

A. True

75
Q

It is acceptable to use K-Y jelly or EKG gel with the ultrasounds Stethoscope Fetal Monitor-Medasonic Model FP3a if Ultrasound Coupling Agent is not available

A

B. False

76
Q

The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:

A

A. C-17 and C-130
C. KC-135
D. A and C

77
Q

Regarding Electronic Health Record documentation, _____ will provide initial hardware (laptops, printers and routers) and refreshers on the normal cycle (4 years)

A

HQ AMC/SG

78
Q

The pt classification for an outpatient on litter for comfort, going for treatment is:

A

5D

79
Q

Should electronic health record system failure occur or the MCD determines electronic documentation of clinical care will impede mission times, ____ will direct the use of paper documentation by AECMs

A

MCD

80
Q

All patients will be identified by using at least _____ unique identifiers.

A

Two

81
Q

T/F

For paper documentation, if an error is made, line through or discontinue the order and annotate with date, time and initials or signatures

A

True

82
Q

The AF Form ______, Pt movement record Enroute Critical Care, is used by any clinician in the AE system to document on critically ill or injured patients.

A

D 3899L

83
Q

When filling out the AF Form 3899M, Pt movement Record PCA/PNB/Epidural Hand-Off Form, the infusion running total _____ be cleared.

A

D Will not

84
Q

T/F

ERCC (En route critical care) personnel are trained to interface with aircraft system and do not need to be tasked with appropriate service-specific personnel capable of interfacing between ERCC team/equipment and airframe’s crew/systems

A

B False

85
Q

Documentation for regional and epidural pain management infusions will include

A

D All of the above

86
Q

T/F

Urgent precedence requires immediate PM to save life, limb eyesight or prevent serious complications locally and medical condition could deteriorate

A

A True

87
Q

Routine precedence requires expedient PM and prompt medical intervention when care is unavailable locally and medical condition could deteriorate

A

B False

88
Q

Flight Surgeon will make routes with the staging nurse at a minimum of every ____ hrs and update the AF Form 3899 or EHR equivalent

A

D 24 hrs

89
Q

The originating MTF must ensure ambulatory patients will wear the appropriate service uniform or civilian clothes to include _____ shoes.

A

D Closed

90
Q

______ are mechanical effects of expansion and contraction can exert a differential pressure on the surrounding tissues, which can severe, potentially disabling pain and potential physical damage to tissues

A

A Boyle’s Law

91
Q

Time between the evening and breakfast meals will not exceed ______ hrs.

A

D 15 hrs

92
Q

If an AECM utilizes any AE clinical protocol they must:

A

D All of the above

93
Q

Symptoms of decompression sickness. Skin: Itching, tingling, cold or warm sensations and occasionally a mottled rash referred to as the _____?

A

C Creeps

94
Q

For mental health patients, position litter patients in the lower litter space, away from flt deck, emergency exits, oxygen shut off valve, bulk head. T/F

A

A True

95
Q

If a multi-dose vial been opened accessed the vial should be dated and discarded within _____ days unless the manufacturer specified a different opened vial.

A

C 28

96
Q

What event classification is described as an event involving temporary patient harm or status change requiring emergency evacuation and treatment. Immediate notification to C2 and PMRC. Submit DD Form 2852 into traces PMQ-R database within 24 hours

A

B Medical Class C

97
Q

Prior to flight verify the DNR order with the patient and/or the patient’s family. DNR orders will not be written more than ___ hours before the originating flight.

A

D 72

98
Q

T/F

When malfunctioning equipment is identified and removed from a patient assess the patient for any harm. Do not Clear any settings from the malfunctioning equipment removed. This will aide biomedical maintenance in their investigation.

A

A True

99
Q

The airflow direction on a C-17 is:

A

B Aft to forward

100
Q

When two or more licensed clinicians are caring for the same patient, ____ will document and sign for their care provided and/or service rendered.

A

B each licensed clinician

Aeromedical Evacuation (5 decks)

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