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Scribe America Course Material > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What other past histories would suggest that a pt has CAD?

A

MI, angina, stents, angioplasty, CABG

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2
Q

Cardiac risk factors (6)

A
  • CAD
  • HTN
  • DM
  • dyslipidemia
  • smoking
  • FHx of CAD
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3
Q

How is CAD diagnosed?

A

Cardiac catheterization

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4
Q

Two ways an MI can be diagnosed

A
  • NSTEMI (Elevated Troponin)

* STEMI (EKG)

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5
Q

Associated Sx of an MI other than CP?

A

SOB, diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting

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6
Q

Associated Sx of CHF?

A

SOB, Orthopnea, PND, pedal edema, DOE

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7
Q

What 2 studies would diagnose CHF?

A

CXR or elevated BNP

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8
Q

What is A Fib?

A

Atrial fibrillation: electrical abnormality in the heart causing the top of the heart to quiver

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9
Q

What might someone feel with A-fib?

A

Palpitations- fast, pounding, irregular heart beat

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10
Q

How is an A-Fib diagnosed?

A

EKG

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11
Q

What could be the CC of someone with a PE?

A

Pleuritic CP, SOB

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12
Q

What study would diagnose a PE?

A

D-Dimer (cannot diagnose) , CTA chest w/ IV contrast, VQ scan

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13
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Collapsed lung

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14
Q

Common cause of PTX

A

Trauma

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15
Q

How is a PTX diagnosed?

A

CXR

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16
Q

What social history will most COPD have?

A

Smoking

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17
Q

What is an inhaler?

A

Portable and gives a one time dose and provides a rapid release of medication

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18
Q

What is a nebulizer?

A

Home machine that delivers continuous treatment over a period of time

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19
Q

What is asthma?

A

Constricting of the airway due to inflammation and muscular contraction of the bronchioles. Reactive airway disease

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20
Q

What PE finding closely associated with asthma?

A

Wheezing

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21
Q

What is PNA?

A

Bacterial infection (infiltrates) and inflammation inside the lung

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22
Q

What might a person with PNA complain of?

A

Productive cough and fever

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23
Q

How is PNA diagnosed?

A

CXR

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24
Q

Layman’s name for GERD

A

Heart burn or acid reflux

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25
Q

What might someone with GERD complain of?

A

Epigastric pain/burning

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26
Q

What else might we have to R/O for GERD?

A

MI

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27
Q

What does bile do?

A

Bile emulsifies the fats in foods

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28
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

Gallbladder but it is made in the liver

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29
Q

Cholelithiasis

A

Gallstones

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30
Q

Cholecystitis

A

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder

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31
Q

What might be the chief complaint of a person with gallstones?

A

RUQ abdominal pain

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32
Q

What PE finding is closely associated with cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s sign

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33
Q

How are gallstones diagnosed?

A

Abdominal US of the RUQ

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34
Q

Name associated symptoms of appendicitis

A

Fever, N/V, anorexia

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35
Q

What is the CC for appendicitis?

A

RLQ pain

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36
Q

How is appendicitis diagnosed?

A

CT A/P with PO contrast

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37
Q

What would someone with pancreatitis c/o?

A

LUQ and/or epigastric pain with N/V

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38
Q

How is pancreatitis diagnosed?

A

Elevated lipase

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39
Q

4 possible CC’s for a GI bleed pt

A

Hematemesis (blood in vomit), hematochezia (bloody stool), coffee ground emesis, melena

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40
Q

How is a GI bleed diagnosed in the ED?

A

Heme positive stool (guaiac +), gastroccult

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41
Q

What are we worried about for someone w/ GI bleed?

A

Too much blood loss, anemia

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42
Q

What is the pre-existing condition you must have before you can get diverticulitis?

A

Diverticulosis

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43
Q

What will be the CC for someone with diverticulitis?

A

LLQ pain

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44
Q

What studies would diagnose diverticulitis?

A

CT A/P w/ PO contrast

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45
Q

What might a person with a SBO complain of?

A

Abd pain/bloating, vomiting, distension, no BM’s

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46
Q

How is a SBO diagnosed?

A

CT A/P w/ PO contrast or AAS (acute abdominal series) X-Ray

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47
Q

What is Pyelo?

A

Pyelonephritis, kidney infection

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48
Q

CC of UTI

A

Dysuria, frequency, burning, hesitancy, malodorous urine

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49
Q

What pain would suggest Pyelo?

A

Flank pain, fever and dysuria

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50
Q

How is UTI diagnosed?

A

Urine dip or urinalysis (UA) showing white blood cells

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51
Q

What might a person with kidney stones c/o?

A

Flank pain, sudden onset, radiating to groin

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52
Q

How are kidney stones diagnosed?

A

CT A/P or RBC in UA

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53
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Tubal pregnancy, when a fertilized egg develops outside the uterus (usually in the Fallopian tube)

54
Q

How is an ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?

A

US of the pelvis

55
Q

What is an ovarian torsion?

A

Twisting of the ovarian artery, which reduces the blood flow to the ovary. Could result in infarct of the ovary.

56
Q

How is ovarian torsion diagnosed?

A

US pelvis

57
Q

Two types of strokes

A

Hemorrhagic CVA and ischemic CVA

58
Q

What study would diagnose a brain bleed?

A

CT head or LP

59
Q

How is an ischemic CVA diagnosed?

A

Clinically, potentially normal CT scan

60
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Transient Ischemic attack. Temporary loss of blood supply to the brain. No permanent damage

61
Q

Common cause of seizures in children

A

Fever

62
Q

Name of the state after a seizure

A

Post-ictal

63
Q

3 Sx of meningitis

A

Fever, neck pain/stiffness, HA

64
Q

What study would diagnose meningitis?

A

LP

65
Q

4 things to document for syncopal episodes/syncope?

A

How they felt before, during, after and how they currently feel

66
Q

4 causes of AMS

A

Hypoglycemia, infection, intoxication, neurological

67
Q

DVT

A

Deep vein thrombosis

68
Q

Common signs of a DVT

A

Extremity pain, swelling (atraumatic)

69
Q

AAA

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

70
Q

Aortic dissection

A

Separation of the muscular wall from the membrane of the artery

71
Q

3 Sx of cellulitis

A

Redness, swelling, pain to an area of the skin

72
Q

Abcess

A

Cellulitis with flunctuance

73
Q

Procedure for every abcess

A

I and D (incision and drainage)

74
Q

Main concern with an allergic reaction

A

Anaphylaxis or respiratory failure

75
Q

True allergic reaction

A

Rash, itching, swelling, SOB

76
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Atrial blood gas showing low pH or positive serum ketones

77
Q

What is the ED physician main responsibility for psychiatric patients?

A

Medical clearance

78
Q

3 things to document for any trauma pt

A

LOC, head injury, neck pain, back pain, numbness, weakness

79
Q

What does MOI stand for?

A

Mechanism of injury

80
Q

Three past surgical histories that indicate the pt has a history of CAD

A

Angioplasty, CABG, stents

81
Q

Two types of stress test

A

Exercise (treadmill) stress test and nuclear (medication) stress test

82
Q

Risk factors for PE

A

Known DVT, PMHx of DVT or PE, FHx of DVT or PE, recent surgery, CA, A-Fib, immobility, pregnancy, BCP, smoking

83
Q

Risk factors for CVA

A

HTN, HLD, DM, Hx TIA/CVA, smoking, FHx CVA, A-Fib

84
Q

PERRL

A

Pupils are equal round and reactive to light

85
Q

AT/NC

A

Atraumatic/Normocephalic

86
Q

NAD

A

No acute distress

87
Q

What does pale conjunctiva indicate?

A

Anemia

88
Q

Sclera icterus

A

Yellowing of the eyes. Indicates liver failure

89
Q

TM erythema and bulging

A

Ears

90
Q

Nostril

A

Naris

91
Q

Runny nose

A

Rhinorrhea

92
Q

What do dry mucous membranes indicate?

A

Dehydration

93
Q

Which is worse, midline bony tenderness or paraspinal tenderness?

A

Bony tenderness because it points towards a spinal fracture

94
Q

RRR

A

Regular rate and rhythm

95
Q

What rhythm would the physician hear if the pt was in A-Fib

A

Irregularly irregular rhythm

96
Q

Peritoneal signs

A

Guarding, rebound tenderness, rigidity

97
Q

What abdominal sign is indicative of appendicitis?

A

McBurney’s point tenderness

98
Q

What would a “guaiac positive” stool sample diagnose?

A

GI bleed

99
Q

What is bony tenderness a sign of?

A

Bone deformity, fracture, or injury

100
Q

What is CVA tenderness?

A

Flank tenderness

101
Q

Incision in the skin that typically need sutures

A

Laceration

102
Q

DTR

A

Deep tendon reflex

103
Q

Normal finger-nose-finger test

A

Cerebellar

104
Q

Normal heel to shin

A

Coordination

105
Q

Normal gait

A

Walking normally

106
Q

Glascow coma scale

A

Trauma

107
Q

TTP

A

Tender to Palpation

108
Q

Hives

A

Urticaria

109
Q

Swollen lymph nodes

A

Lymphadenopathy

110
Q

What lab order contains the HandH?

A

CBC

111
Q

BMP

A

Basic metabolic panel. Contains electrolytes, kidney function, and glucose levels

112
Q

CMP

A

Comprehensive metabolic panel. BMP and LFTs (liver function tests)

113
Q

What does creatinine measure?

A

Renal function

114
Q

High potassium level

A

Hyperkalemia

115
Q

High sodium level

A

Hypernatremia

116
Q

Heart damage enzyme

A

Troponin

117
Q

Negative D-Dimer

A

No evidence of PE

118
Q

Positive D-Dimer

A

Possible PE

119
Q

Elevated BNP diagnose equals…?

A

CHF

120
Q

Blood sample for Atrial blood gas (ABG) comes from…?

A

Artery

121
Q

Cardiac order set (4)

A

CBC, BMP, EKG, CXR

122
Q

What do CRP and ESR test for?

A

Inflammation

123
Q

Will blood cultures result during a patient’s ED visit?

A

No

124
Q

Three labs to track efficiency

A

Troponin, creatinine, D-Dimer

125
Q

CTA

A

CT angiogram looks at the arteries (uses IV contrast)

126
Q

CT

A

No IV contrast but may or may not use PO contrast

127
Q

Types of orthopedic procedures that may be performed by the EP

A

Splinting, joint reduction, arthrocentesis

128
Q

Procedures that qualify the patient for critical care

A

Cardioversion, central line placement, chest tube placement, endotracheal intubation

129
Q

LAD

A

Left axis deviation

130
Q

Redness

A

Erythema

131
Q

Bruising

A

Ecchymosis

Scribe America Course Material (5 decks)

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