526 Neuro Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

secondary or primary headaches are most common

A

primary

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2
Q

trigeminal autonomic cephaligias (TAC) are primary or secondary headaches

A

primary

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3
Q

what type of headache has a relationship with epilepsy, depression, raynaud, and cardiac shunting

A

migraines

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4
Q

what is a fortification spectrum

A

aura that presents as jagged lines like in a stone fortification

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5
Q

cluster headaches are what time of primary headache

A

TAC (trigeminal autonomic cephalagias)

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6
Q

what type of headache would present with a partial horner sign? what would that look like?

A

cluter/TAC
ptosis of eyelid

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7
Q

what does the acronym SNOOP stand for

A

for serious headaches
systemic symptoms
neuro signs
older >50
onset new or progressive
previous history (first or different from others)

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8
Q

why might you do a CBC, ESR or CRP, and TSH in a patient with headach

A

CBC - to exclude anemia
ESR or CRP - to exclude temporal arteritis
TSH - to exclude thyroid disease

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9
Q

when would you consider preventative therapy for headaches

A

unable to deal with attacks
have more than 4 a month
headaches are prolonged or refractory to medication

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10
Q

when might you use divalproex or topiramate in headache therapy

A

as a preventative for migraines

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11
Q

how does metoclopramide aid in headache treatment

A

treats n/v and aids in absorption of NSAIDs

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12
Q

true or false: if a triptan is ineffective as a headache treatment you should try a different class of medication

A

false, there are differences across brands so you may try a different triptan

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13
Q

when should you use triptans with caution

A

cardiac disease patients as they are arterial constrictors

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14
Q

what is 1st line and 2nd line therapy for severe headaches

A

1st = triptans
2nd = ergots

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15
Q

what should you be aware of when prescribing ergots

A

high potential for misuse and should premedicate with antiemetics

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16
Q

what is prevenatitive and abortive treatment for cluster headaches

A

preventatitve = verapamil/CCB or lithium
abortive = oxygen, analgesics, triptansw

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17
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary trigeminal neuralgia

A

primary = vascular compression
secondary = neuro cause like MS, tumor, trauma

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18
Q

the pain of trigeminal neuralgia is described as ___ in what location

A

burning, stabbing, sharp, shocky
in any branch of the trigeminal nerve

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19
Q

when is trigeminal neuralgia more likely to be bilateral

A

with MS

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20
Q

what is a trigger zone in trigeminal neuralgia

A

one specific spot that pt can identify as where it sets off an attack

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21
Q

primary or secondary trigeminal neuralgia may have an abnormal corneal reflex

A

secondary

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22
Q

true or false: trigeminal neuralgia will usually have an unremarkable physical exam

A

true

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23
Q

when would you get diagnotic investigation for trigeminal neuralgia and what would you get

A

usually none needed unless considering a secondary cause
then get MRI to check for lesions or compression of CN5

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24
Q

what is first and second line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

first = anticonvulsants (carbamazepine)
second or add on = baclofen, lamotrigine, phenytoin

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25
what needs to be monitored when patients are put on anticonvulsants
liver CBC Na
26
what medication is used for trigeminal neuralgia for patients with MS
gabapentin or misoprostol
27
how are acute attacks of trigeminal neuralgia treated
IV fosphenytoin botox sumatriptan intranasal lidocaine
28
when is surgical management considered for trigeminal neuralgia
not responding to pharmacological
29
true or false: when initially diagnosing trigeminal neuralgia, referral to neurologist should be done to confirm
true
30
which cranial nerve is affected in bells palsy
CN VII, the facial nerve
31
acute unilateral weakness or paralysis of face that resolves in under 72 hours is indicative of what condition
bells palsy
32
a neurological disorder that specifically spares the forehead muscles has what cause
upper motor neuron or central lesion
33
a prodrome of pain behind unilateral ear, hyperacusis and dysgeusia is indicative of what condition
bells palsy
34
what facial findings would you expect in bells palsy
smooth forehead widened palpabral fissure inability to close eye flattened nasolabial fold asymmetric smile
35
true or false: bells palsy will only affect the lower portion of one side of the face
false, it will affect the full face both upper and lower, on one side
36
what is the house-brackmann classification
classification of facial function to determine severity of bells palsy
37
when would you consider an MRI for a suspected bells palsy
bilateral palsies central nerve findings instead of peripheral does not recover in 3 months
38
what is the most important treatment goal in bells palsy
protecting the eye - eye lubricant, tape shut at night
39
what medication is used to treat bells palsy
corticosteroids within 72 hours of symptoms onset
40
what test is used to test sleep overnight
polysomnography
41
true or false: trazadone, diphenhydramine and melatonin are all good first line options for insomnia
false, new guidelines suggest not to use these agents for sleep
42
true or false: CPAP is more effective than surgery for managing OSA
true
43
when might overnight PAP be recommended
for central sleep apnea
44
what are the primary hypersomnias
narcolepsy idiopathic post traumatic
45
what is the predominant characteristic of CNS hypersomnias
excessive daytime sleepiness not caused by disturbed nocturnal sleep
46
what would reduced hypocretin levels in CSF indicate? when would you do this test
narcoplepsy this test is not routinley done
47
how is narcolepsy diagnosed
presence of sleep-onset REM on MSLT (multiple sleep latency test) after getting a normal polysomnography
48
what is cataplexy and what condition is it associated with
sudden loss of muscle tone while awake narcolepsy
49
what types of medications are used to treat hypersomnias
stimulants wakeful promoting agents REM suppressing medication
50
what REM suppressing agents are used to treat cataplexy
TCAs, SSRIs, SNRIs
51
modafinil and armodafinil are what kind of medication and used to treat what
wakeful promoting agents to treat central hypersomnias
52
dextramphetamine and methylphenidate are what kind of medication and used to treat what
stimulants to treat central hypersomnias
53
what are the 4 principle diagnostic criteria for RLS
1. urge to move legs, usually with uncomfortable sensation 2. urge worse during inactivity 3. at least partially relieved with activity 4. worsened or exclusive to the evening
54
what blood work should be done for RLS and why
iron panel because low iron is associated with RLS
55
true or false: first line treatment for RLS if pharmacotherapy
false, should not be used unless severe
56
what 1st pharmacotherapy may be used for severe RLS
dopamine agonsits pramipexole, rotigotine, ropinirole
57
what pharmacotherapy may be used for RLS with concomitant neuropathy
gabapentin, pregabalin
58
what are parasomnias
undesirable events or experiences related to sleep
59
what is rem sleep behavior disorder and what type of sleep disorder is it
pt enacts dreams in a possibly dangerous fashion parasomnia
60
sleep terrors and sleep walking are what kind of sleep disorder
parasomnias
61
RBD and nightmare disorder are an NREM or REM disorder
REM
62
true or false: polysomnography is not needed for RBD
false
63
what is the pharmacological treatment for RBD
clonazepam or melatonin