Chapter 12. Drug Abuse and Addiction Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In performing urine drug testing (UDT), a
    physician must know all of the following,
    EXCEPT
    (A) the characteristics of the testing procedures,
    since many drugs are not routinely
    detected by all UDTs
    (B) that although no aberrant behavior is
    pathognomonic of abuse or addiction,
    such behavior should never be ignored
    (C) reliance on aberrant behavior to trigger
    a UDT will miss more than 50% of those
    individuals using unprescribed or illicit
    drugs
    (D) always prescribe “on-demand” for the
    patient until you are comfortable with
    the situation
    (E) a history of drug abuse does not preclude
    treatment with a controlled substance,
    when indicated, but does require
    a treatment plan with firmly defined
    boundaries
A
  1. (D) In performing UDT, know the characteristics
    of testing procedures, since many drugs are not
    routinely detected by all UDTs. Although no
    aberrant behavior is pathognomonic of abuse
    or addiction, such behavior should never be
    ignored.
    Reliance on aberrant behavior to trigger a
    UDT will miss more than 50% of those individuals
    using unprescribed or illicit drugs.
    Never prescribe on-demand for the patient
    until you are comfortable with the situation. A
    history of drug abuse does not preclude treatment
    with a controlled substance, when indicated,
    but does require a treatment plan with
    firmly defined boundaries.
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2
Q
  1. A 65-year-old man with cancer and multiple
    bony metastases complains of increasing requirement
    of intrathecal morphine. However, he also
    complains of increased nausea associated with
    the increased dose. All the workup with regards
    to carcinomatous spread failed to show any progression
    of the disease. Which of the following
    explanations is accurate?
    (A) The catheter is no longer in the intrathecal
    space and he is not receiving appropriate
    dosages
    (B) He is addicted to the drugs and requesting
    higher doses
    (C) He is physically dependent on the drug
    and is nauseated because of withdrawal
    symptoms
    (D) He has developed tolerance to the analgesics
    effects of intrathecal morphine
    (E) There is significant progression of the
    disease, which was unidentified by the
    evaluation
A
  1. (D) The patient is most likely developing tolerance
    to the analgesic effects of the intrathecal
    morphine while continuing to complain of
    the adverse side effect of nausea as the
    intrathecal dose is increased. The mechanism
    by which tolerance develops is not known.
    The development of tolerance can be minimized
    by selecting the lowest effective narcotic
    dose; placing the catheter as close as
    possible to the cord level of the painful areas;
    giving multiple, small, divided doses rather
    than one or two large, daily boluses; and
    using low-dose continuous infusions whenever
    possible.
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding quality
    assurance?
    (A) Quality assurance, quality improvement,
    and quality management are
    interchangeable words
    (B) Quality assurance is internally driven,
    follows patient care, and has no endpoints
    (C) Quality improvement is externally driven,
    focused on individuals, and works
    toward end points
    (D) Total quality of management, quality
    management and improvement, and
    continuous quality improvement are
    synonymous with quality assurance
    (E) Aquality improvement program is different
    from quality assurance and focuses
    on patient care, process, and integrated
    analysis
A

(E) Ashort tabular comparison of quality assurance

versus quality improvement is given here:

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is true with typical
    detection times for urine testing of common
    drugs of abuse?
    (A) Methadone, 2 to 4 days
    (B) Chronic use of marijuana, 1 to 3 days
    (C) Morphine, 15 days
    (D) Cocaine, 15 days
    (E) Benzodiazepines, 15 days
A
  1. (A) Ashort tabular description of some common
    drugs of abuse and there typical detection time
    for urine testing is as follows:
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5
Q
  1. What is the mode of action for cocaine in the
    central nervous system?
    (A) Increasing the reuptake of norepinephrine
    (B) Blocking dopamine receptors
    (C) Activating γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
    receptors
    (D) Mediating its effect through dopamine
    cells in the ventral tegmentum
    (E) Inhibiting acetylcholine esterase in the
    central nervous system
A
  1. (D) Cocaine acts by blocking reuptake of neurotransmitters
    (norepinephrine, dopamine, and
    serotonin) at the synaptic junctions, resulting in
    increased neurotransmitter concentrations. As
    norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter
    of the sympathetic nervous system it causes
    sympathetic stimulation and leads to vasoconstriction,
    tachycardia, mydriasis, and hyperthermia.
    Central nervous system stimulation may appear as increased alertness, energy, and
    talkativeness, repetitive behavior, diminished
    appetite, and increased libido. Psychologic stimulation
    by cocaine produces an intense euphoria
    that is often compared to orgasm. Pleasure
    and reward sensations in the brain have been
    correlated with increased neurotransmission in
    the mesolimbic or mesocortical dopaminergic
    tracts (or both). Cocaine increases the functional
    release of dopamine, which activates the ventral
    tegmental–nucleus accumbens pathway, which
    seems to be major component of the brain
    reward system. Activation of this pathway is
    essential for the reinforcing actions of psychomotor
    stimulants.
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6
Q
878. Which is the accurate statement on federal regulations?
(A) They are promulgated by the US
Congress, CMS, and Office of Inspector
General (OIG)
(B) They are promulgated by the
Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal
Bureau of Investigation (FBI), and OIG
(C) Courts may not promulgate any regulations,
as it is the duty of the US
Congress and Administration
(D) They are enforced by the US Congress
(E) They are enforced by local Medicare
carriers
A
  1. (A) Federal regulations are

table

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7
Q
  1. A 38-year-old white male with history of low
    back pain with radiation into the lower extremity
    with disc herniation demonstrated at L4-5
    with nerve root compression, and electromyographic
    evidence of L5 radiculopathy was
    referred for consultation. You have examined
    the patient and decided to perform transforaminal
    epidural steroid injection at the L5
    nerve root. This encounter is appropriately considered
    as follows:
    (A) It is a consultation as the patient was
    referred by another physician for management
    (B) It is a consultation as the patient was
    referred and your opinion was requested
    (C) It is a new office visit since it is a known
    problem and the patient was referred to
    you for the treatment
    (D) It is a consultation as you told the patient
    to return to the referring physician after
    completion of course of epidurals
    (E) It is a consultation, as you do not plan
    on billing for another consultation within
    the next 3 years
A
879. (C)
Consultation
• An opinion is requested
• Patient is not referred
The three R’s
• Request for opinion is received
• Render the service/opinion
• Report back to physician requesting your
opinion
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8
Q
880. Which of the following is schedule I substance?
(A) Buprenorphine
(B) Hydromorphone
(C) Heroin
(D) Cocaine
(E) Morphine
A
  1. (C) The Controlled Substances Act has divided
    drugs under its jurisdiction into five schedules.
    Schedule I drugs have a high potential for
    abuse and no accepted medical use in the
    United States. Examples of schedule I drugs
    include heroin, marijuana, lysergic acid diethylamide
    (LSD). Hydromorphone, heroin, morphine
    are schedule II drugs; buprenorphine is
    schedule III drug; and diazepam is schedule
    IV drug.
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9
Q
  1. All of the following are accurate statements
    with managing opioid-dependent pregnant
    patients experiencing withdrawal symptoms
    when the drug is discontinued, EXCEPT
    (A) methadone frequently is used to treat
    acute withdrawal from opioids
    (B) current federal regulations restrict the
    use of methadone for the treatment of
    opioid addiction to specially registered
    clinics
    (C) methadone may be used by a physician
    in a private practice for temporary
    maintenance or detoxification when an
    addicted patient is admitted to the hospital
    for an illness other than opioid
    addiction
    (D) methadone may never be used by a private
    practitioner in an outpatient setting
    when administered daily
    (E) methadone may be used by a private
    practitioner in an outpatient setting
    when administered daily for a maximum
    of 3 days
A
  1. (D)
    A. Methadone frequently is used to treat
    acute withdrawal from opioids.
    B. Current federal regulations restrict the use
    of methadone for the treatment of opioid
    addiction to specially registered clinics.
    C Methadone may be used by a physician in
    private practice for temporary maintenance
    or detoxification when an addicted patient
    is admitted to the hospital for an illness
    other than opioid addiction. This includes
    evaluation for preterm labor, which can be
    induced by acute withdrawal.
    D. Methadone may also be used by a private
    practitioner in an outpatient setting when
    administered daily for a maximum of
    3 days while a patient awaits admission to
    a licensed methadone treatment program.
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10
Q
  1. Your friend’s daughter whom you have known
    for several years makes an appointment with
    you. During the visit, she tells you that she is a
    heroin addict and requests a prescription for
    hydrocodone. Your options in this situation are
    as follows:
    (A) Immediately call her father and give
    hydrocodone
    (B) Immediately tell father and give her
    methadone
    (C) Start rapid detoxification in your office
    (D) Provide her with a prescription for
    methadone maintenance
    (E) Do not tell the father and do not give
    hydrocodone
A
  1. (E)
    A. A physician has to maintain patient’s confidentiality.
    Further, she may be addicted
    to not only heroin, but hydrocodone. It is
    not certain at this point. She may be receiving
    hydrocodone from other sources.
    B. A physician has to maintain patient’s confidentiality.
    Further, she may be addicted
    to not only heroin, but hydrocodone. It is
    not certain at this point. She may be
    receiving methadone from other sources.
    C. Rapid detoxification requires a special
    license.
    D. Similarly, methadone maintenance treatment
    also requires special licensure.
    E. The best option is to maintain confidentiality,
    protect the patient, and yourself.
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11
Q
883. Which of the following is true regarding
opioid-induced constipation?
(A) Treat constipation
(B) Obtain a surgical consult to rule out
complication
(C) Evaluate for drug abuse
(D) Start on transdermal fentanyl
(E) Start on methadone-maintenance
program
A
  1. (A)
    A. Constipation is the most frequent side
    effect of opioid therapy. Tolerance does
    not develop to this side effect. Therefore, as
    the dose of opioid increases, so does the
    potential for constipation. Frank bowel
    obstruction, biliary spasm, and ileus have
    occurred with opioid use. It is crucial to
    place patients on an active bowel regimen
    that includes laxatives, stool softeners adequate fluids and exercise, and cathartics
    as needed to prevent the severe constipation
    that can occur with opioid use.
    B. Surgical complications are unlikely.
    C. Constipation is not a symptom of drug
    abuse.
    D. Transdermal fentanyl may be an option if
    morphine titration fails. Constipation is
    similar.
    E. Methadone maintenance is not indicated.
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12
Q
  1. What are the risks of malprescribing?
    (1) Legal charges, probably jail time
    (2) Conviction rate is currently almost 30%
    (3) Felony conviction will likely prevent or
    at least severely limit future practice
    (4) Duped and dated are highly viable
    defenses
A
  1. (B) Risks of malprescribing includes legal
    charges, probably jail time. Conviction rate is
    currently almost 90%. Felony conviction will
    likely prevent or at least severely limit future
    practice. Duped and dated aren’t viable
    defense.
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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) an accurate
    statement(s) with regards to function of
    Controlled Substances Act?
    (1) It creates a closed system of distribution
    for those authorized to handle controlled
    substances
    (2) The cornerstone of this system is the
    licensure of all those authorized by the
    State Medical Licensure Board to handle
    controlled substances
    (3) Only the individuals and practices
    which dispense directly to the patients
    from their clinics are required to maintain
    a DEA license
    (4) It requires maintaining complete inventory
    of controlled substances, only if the
    drugs are administered by physician,
    but not if dispensed to the patient
A
  1. (A)
  2. The CSA created a closed system of distribution
    for those authorized to handle controlled
    substances.
  3. The system is the registration of all those
    authorized by the DEA to handle controlled
    substances.
  4. Only the individuals and practices that dispense
    directly to the patients from their clinics
    are required to maintain a DEA license.
  5. All individuals and firms that are registered
    are required to maintain complete and accurate
    inventories and records of all transactions
    involving controlled substances, as
    well as the security for the storage of controlled
    substances.
    The attorney general may limit revocation
    or suspension of a registration to the particular
    controlled substance. However, the Board
    of Medical Licensure may also limit this indirectly
    by means of requesting the limitation
    by DEA and reaching an agreement with the
    practitioner.
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14
Q
  1. What are the pitfalls of opioid UDT?
    (1) Tests for opiates are very responsive for
    morphine and codeine
    (2) UDTs do not distinguish between morphine
    and codeine
    (3) UDTs show a low sensitivity for semisynthetic/
    synthetic opioids such as oxycodone
    (4) A negative response excludes oxycodone
    and methadone use
A
  1. (A) UDT method
    Opioids: Pitfalls
    • Tests for opiates are very responsive for
    morphine and codeine.
    • Do not distinguish which is present.
    • Show a low sensitivity for semisynthetic/
    synthetic opioids such as oxycodone.
    • A negative response does not exclude oxycodone,
    or methadone use.
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15
Q
  1. What are the pitfalls of prescription practices?
    (1) The four D’s—deficient, duped, deliberate,
    dependent practitioner
    (2) Never say “NO”—family, friends,
    patients
    (3) Ignore complaints
    (4) Focus on positive aspects of regulations
    and reimbursement
A
  1. (A) The top 10 pitfalls of prescription practices
    are:
  2. The four D’s—deficient, duped, deliberate,
    dependent practitioner
  3. Weak heart—pretend addiction doesn’t
    exist
  4. Never say “NO”—family, friends, patients
  5. Poor documentation
  6. No policies—no agreements
  7. Ignore complaints
  8. Focus on negative aspects of regulations
    and reimbursement
  9. Not nice to investigators from the Board
    and DEA
  10. Reckless disregard to law with prescription
    pads and regulations
  11. Know it all—do it all
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16
Q
  1. What are the risks of malprescribing related to
    practice management?
    (1) Loss of provider status
    (2) Insurers frequently report to Boards
    (3) Plans may remove providers for overprescribing
    (4) Insurers are unable to report to any type
    of national databank for malprescribing
A
  1. (A) Risks of malprescribing include loss of
    “provider” status; insurers frequently report
    to the Boards now; several plans have removed
    providers for “overprescribing”; and finally
    insurers can report to a separate national data
    bank, not available to public, but available to
    hospitals and other insurers.
17
Q
  1. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
    Disorder (Fourth Edition) (DSM-IV) definition
    of substance abuse includes at least one of the
    following in 12 months:
    (1) Maladaptive pattern leading to distress
    or impairment
    (2) Recurrent failure to fill role
    (3) Recurrent physically hazardous behavior
    (4) Recurrent legal problems
A
  1. (E) As per the DSM-IV definition for substance
    abuse at least one of the following should hold
    true in 12 months:
    • Maladaptive pattern leading to distress or
    impairment.
    • Recurrent failure to fill role.
    • Recurrent physically hazardous behavior.
    • Recurrent legal problems.
    • Continued use despite social problems.
    • Never met dependence criteria.
18
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) correct statement(
    s) regarding amphetamines in UDT?
    (1) Tests for amphetamine/methamphetamine
    are highly cross-reactive
    (2) Very predictive for
    amphetamine/methamphetamine use
    (3) UDT will detect other sympathomimetic
    amines such as ephedrine and pseudoephedrine
    (4) Further testing is not required
A
890. (B) UDT method
Amphetamines: Low specificity
• Tests for amphetamine/methamphetamine
are highly cross-reactive.
• They will detect other sympathomimetic
amines such as ephedrine and pseudoephedrine.
• Not very predictive for amphetamine/
methamphetamine use.
• Further testing is required.
19
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) the correct statement(
    s) about UDT for cocaine?
    (1) Tests for cocaine react principally with
    cocaine and its primary metabolite, benzoylecgonine
    (2) Tests for cocaine are nonspecific in predicting
    cocaine use
    (3) Tests for cocaine have low cross-reactivity
    with other substances
    (4) Cold medicines may test false-positive
    for cocaine
A
  1. (B) UDT method
    Cocaine: Very specific
    • Tests for cocaine react principally with
    cocaine and its primary metabolite, benzoylecgonine.
    • These tests have low cross-reactivity with
    other substances.
    • Very specific in predicting cocaine use.
20
Q
  1. What precautions must a physician take in
    interpretation of UDT?
    (1) Consult with laboratory regarding any
    unexpected results
    (2) Never use results to strengthen
    physician-patient relationship and
    support positive behavior change
    (3) Schedule an appointment to discuss
    abnormal/unexpected results with the
    patient; discuss in a positive, supportive
    fashion to enhance readiness to
    change/motivational enhancement therapy
    (MET) opportunities
    (4) It is not necessary to document results
    and interpretation
A
  1. (B) UDT results
    Consult with laboratory regarding any unexpected
    results:
    • Schedule an appointment to discuss abnormal/
    unexpected results with the patient;
    discuss in a positive, supportive fashion to
    enhance readiness to change/motivational
    enhancement therapy (MET) opportunities.
    • Use results to strengthen physician-patient
    relationship and support positive behavior
    change.
    • Chart results and interpretation.
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) true about postoperative
    pain management in patients receiving
    methadone maintenance treatment?
    (1) Continue maintenance treatment without
    interruption
    (2) Immediately stop maintenance treatment
    (3) Provide adequate individualized doses
    of opioid agonists, which must be titrated
    to the desired analgesic effect
    (4) If opioids are administered in methadone
    maintenance patients, doses should be given less frequently and as needed
A
  1. (B)
  2. Continue maintenance treatment without
    interruption.
  3. Maintenance treatment must be continued.
  4. Provide adequate individualized doses of
    opioid agonists, which must be titrated to
    the desired analgesic effect.
  5. Doses should be given more frequently and
    on a fixed schedule rather than as needed.
22
Q
  1. A38-year-old white male with chronic low back
    pain and history of alcoholism, on a total of
    200 mg of morphine per day, was admitted to
    the emergency room because he was acting
    agitated and confused. The emergency room
    physician notifies you of his admission. Which
    of the following identifies delirium tremens in
    differential diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
    (1) Clear sensorium
    (2) Prominent tremor
    (3) Auditory hallucination
    (4) Dilated pupils with slow reaction to light
A
  1. (B)
  2. There is difficulty sustaining attention, disorganized
    thinking, and perceptual disturbances.
  3. Acute alcoholic hallucinosis may start
    without a drop in blood alcohol concentration,
    and without delirium, tremor, or autonomic
    hyperactivity.
  4. Hallucinations are usually auditory and
    paranoid and may last more than 10 days.
  5. In delirium tremens, the patient is confused,
    with prominent tremor and psychomotor
    activity, disturbed vital signs, autonomic
    dysfunction with dilated pupils, and a slow
    reaction to light. Hallucinations are usually
    of the visual type.
23
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) true regarding
    the five schedules of controlled substances,
    known as schedules I, II, III, IV, and V?
    (1) Schedule I substances have high potential
    for abuse and the substance has no
    currently accepted medical use in treatment
    in the United States
    (2) Schedule I substances may be changed
    to a lower schedule if the safety of the
    drug is demonstrated even though there
    is a high potential for abuse and there is
    no accepted medical use in treatment
    (3) Schedule II drugs have high potential
    for abuse and may lead to severe psychologic
    or physical dependence
    (4) Schedule V drugs or substances have a
    high potential for abuse and may lead to
    physical or psychologic dependence
A
  1. (B)
  2. and 2. Schedule I
    The drug or other substance has a high potential
    for abuse.
    The drug or other substances has no currently
    accepted medical use in treatment in the
    United States.
    There is a lack of accepted safety for use of the
    drug or other substance under medical supervision.
  3. Schedule II
    The drug or other substance has a high potential
    for abuse.
    The drug or other substances has no currently
    accepted medical use in treatment in the
    United States or a currently accepted medical
    use with severe restrictions.
    Abuse of the drug or other substances may lead
    to severe psychologic or physical dependence.
    Other
    Schedule III
    The drug or other substance has a potential
    for abuse less than the drugs or other substances
    in schedules I and II.
    The drug or other substances has no currently
    accepted medical use in treatment in the
    United States.
    Abuse of the drug or other substance may
    lead to moderate or low physical dependence
    or high psychologic dependence.
    Schedule IV
    The drug or other substance has a low potential
    for abuse relative to the drugs or other
    substances in schedule III.
    The drug or other substance has a currently
    accepted medical use in treatment in the
    United States.
    Abuse of the drug or other substances may
    lead to limited physical dependence or psychologic
    dependence relative to the drugs or
    other substances in schedule III.
  4. Schedule V
    The drug or other substance has a low potential
    for abuse relative to the drugs or other
    substances in schedule IV.
    The drug or other substance has a currently
    accepted medical use in treatment in the
    United States.
    Abuse of the drug or other substances may
    lead to limited physical dependence or psychologic
    dependence relative to the drugs or
    other substances in schedule IV.
24
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of a drug-dependent
    (addict) practitioner?
    (1) Starts by taking controlled-drug samples
    (2) Never asks staff to pick up medications
    in their names
    (3) Calls in scripts in names of family members
    or fictitious patients and picks
    them up himself
    (4) Never uses another doctor’s DEA number
A
  1. (B) Drug dependent (addict)
    • Starts by taking controlled drug samples.
    • Asks staff to pick up medications in their
    names.
    • Uses another doctor’s DEA number.
    • Calls in scripts in names of family members
    or fictitious patients and picks them up
    himself.
25
Q
  1. Which is (are) the true statement(s) about marijuana
    UDT?
    (1) UDTs provide reasonable reliability
    (2) Marinol tests positive
    (3) Protonix may test false-positive
    (4) Marijuana may be positive 2 years after
    use
A
897. (A) UDT methods
THC: Marijuana: Moderate specificity
• Reasonable reliability
• Marinol: positive
• Protonix: false-positive

Table

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) the correct statement(
    s) for UDT?
    (1) Thin-layer chromatography (TLC) is a
    relatively old technique, testing the
    migration of a drug on a plate or film,
    which is compared to a known control
    (2) Gas chromatography (GC) is most sensitive
    and specific test, most reliable, and
    labor intensive/costly
    (3) Enzyme immunoassay is easy to perform/
    highly sensitive, more sensitive than
    TLC, and less expensive than GC
    (4) Rapid drug screens are not similar to
    other enzyme immunoassay tests and
    may be more expensive
A
898. (A)
Thin-layer chromatography (TLC)
Relatively old technique, testing the migration
of a drug on a plate or film, which is
compared to a known control
Gas chromatography: liquid and mass spectrometry
(CGMS)
Most sensitive and specific tests
Most reliable
Labor intensive/costly
Several days to know results
Used to confirm results of other tests
Enzyme immunoassay
Easy to perform/highly sensitive
More sensitive than TLC
Less expensive than GC Common tests
EMIT (enzyme multiplied immunoassay
test)
FPIA (fluorescent polarization immunoassay)
RIA (radioimmunoassay)
Screen only one drug at a time
Rapid drug screens
Similar to other enzyme immunoassay tests
May be more expensive
27
Q
899. Drug testing may be performed by any of the
following:
(1) Hair samples
(2) Saliva testing
(3) Serum drug testing
(4) Urine drug screening
A
899. (E) Drug testing may be performed by any of
the following:
• Urine drug screening
• Specific drug analysis (blood)
• Hair samples
• Saliva testing
• Serum levels
28
Q
  1. Which of the following is (are) accurate for
    addiction and dependence?
    (1) Based on the Controlled Substances Act,
    the term “addict” means any individual
    who habitually uses any narcotic drug
    so as to endanger the public health and
    safety
    (2) Based on DSM-IV definition, addiction
    means maladaptive pattern leading to
    distress or impairment
    (3) DSM-IV definition of substance dependence
    includes tolerance, withdrawal,
    and continued use despite problems
    (4) Federation of State Medical Board
    guidelines for the treatment of pain recommends
    use of controlled substances
    in patients with history of substance
    with no additional monitoring, referral,
    or documentation
A
  1. (B)
  2. The term “addict” by CSA means any individual
    who habitually uses any narcotic
    drug so as to endanger the public morals,
    health, safety, or welfare, or who is so far
    addicted to the use of narcotic drugs as to
    have lost the power of self-control with reference
    to his or her addiction.
  3. There is no definition for addiction in
    DSM-IV.
  4. DSM-IV defines substance abuse with at
    least one of the following in a 12-month
    period.
    • Maladaptive pattern leading to distress or
    impairment
    • Recurrent failure to field role
    • Recurrent physically undesirous behavior
    • Recurrent legal problems
    • Continued use despite social problems
    • Never met dependence criteria
    DSM-IV definition for substance dependence
    is as follows (need three of the following in a
    12-month period):
    • Tolerance
    • Withdrawal
    • Larger amounts/longer periods
    • Efforts or desire to cut down
    • Large amount of time using/obtaining/
    recovering
    • Activities given up: social/work/recreation
    • Continued use despite problems
    An alternate definition for addiction is from
    the American Society of Addiction Medicine. It
    says addiction is a primary, chronic neurobiological
    disease with genetic, psychosocial and
    environmental factors affecting its course and
    presentation. Addiction is characterized by one
    or more of the following:
    • Impaired control of drug use
    • Compulsive use
    • Craving
    • Continued use despite harm
  5. Federation of State Medical Board guidelines
    recommends several additional steps
    in patients with addiction or abuse.