Other/ER Flashcards

1
Q

What coagulation factors are part of the intrinsic pathway?

A

12, 11, 9, 8

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2
Q

What coagulation factors are part of the extrinsic pathway?

A

7

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3
Q

What coagulation factors are part of the common pathway?

A

2, 5, 10

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4
Q

What coagulation factors are vitamin K derived?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

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5
Q

What drug can be given to greyhounds to prevent bleeding after surgery?

A

aminocaproic acid

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6
Q

What is the treatment for cutaneous habronemiasis in horses?

A

surgical removal, ivermectin, topical steroids

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7
Q

What is the concentration of isotonic saline?

A

9 g/L

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8
Q

What is the swine maternal recognition of pregnancy?

A

embyronic estrogen production

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9
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor of cats? dogs?

A

cats - meningioma

dogs - glial cell

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10
Q

What is the treatment for bovine ketosis?

A

IM dex

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11
Q

What breeds are predisposed to enteroliths?

A

arabians and miniature horses

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12
Q

What topical parasiticide is contraindicated in horses?

A

amitraz

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13
Q

What does corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis cause in horses?

A

ulcerative lymphangitis

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14
Q

What are two essential fatty acids for cats?

A

linoleic and arachadonic acid

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15
Q

What causes enzootic pneumonia in swine?

A

mycoplasma hyopnemoniae

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16
Q

What are causes of udder cleft dermatitis in cattle?

A

ascariasis and fusobacterium necrophorum

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17
Q

What stage of heartworm is infective from the mosquito?

A

L3

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18
Q

What stage of heartworm is microfilaria?

A

L1

19
Q

What are the two heartworm stages in the mosquito?

A

L1 to L2

20
Q

What salivary glands cause salivary mucoceles?

A

mandibular and sublingual glands (parotid - rare)

21
Q

What does haemophilus parasuis cause?

A

glassers disease - fibrinous pleurisy and peritonitis

22
Q

What is the treatment of choice for sand impaction in horses?

A

psyllium

23
Q

What sheep breed is predisposed to abomasal emptying defect?

A

suffolk

24
Q

What dog breed is predisposed to chronic degenerative disc disease with cervical instability?

A

doberman

25
Q

What drug causes bigeminal rhythym?

A

thiopental

26
Q

What plants cause cardiac arrythmias and acute GI signs in small ruminants?

A

azalea and rhododendron

27
Q

What drug is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine

28
Q

What parasite causes typhlitis and colitis in horses?

A

trichuris vulpis

29
Q

What virus is equine sarcoids associated with?

A

bovine papilloma virus

30
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing johnes disease?

A

culture mycobacterium paratuberculosis from feces or postmortem

31
Q

How do you treat malignant hyperthermia in pigs under anesthesia?

A

IV dantrolene, body cooling, IV fluids

32
Q

What two chemotherapies are contraindicated in cats?

A

cisplatin and 5-fluroacil

33
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing west nile virus?

A

RT-PCR on cns tissue

34
Q

What are the CS of west nile virus in horses?

A

summer, fever, acute onset hind limb ataxia and weakness

35
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing newcastle disease?

A

virus isolation

36
Q

What kind of virus is newcastle?

A

paramyxovirus

37
Q

How is newcastle disease virulence tested for?

A

ICPI (intracerebral pathogenicity index)

38
Q

What tick transmits lyme disease?

A

ixodes scapularis - black legged deer tick

39
Q

What bacteria causes fowl cholera?

A

pasteurella multocida

40
Q

What are the two tests for BLV?

A

AGID

ELISA

41
Q

What percent of infected cows develop clinical disease due to BLV?

A

less than 5%

42
Q

What dog breed gets juvenile onset of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

portugese water dogs

43
Q

What bacteria causes infectious coryza in chickens?

A

avibacterium (haemophilus) paragallinarum