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My Neuro > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cerebral cortex is divided into 52 ___ based on cytoarchitectural variation

A

Brodmann areas

[Lecture: Introduction]

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2
Q

The primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex are adjacent to one another and separated by the ___

A

Central/Rolandic sulcus

[Lecture: Introduction]

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3
Q

A map of the body as represented in the cortex is a ___ ___

A

somatotopic homunculus

[Lecture: Introduction]

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4
Q

The most extensive neural representation is in our ___ and ___

A

face and hands

[Lecture: Introduction]

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5
Q

Communication between neurons is called a ___

A

synapse

[Lecture: Introduction]

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6
Q

___ carry information toward the cell body (afferent)

A

Dendrites

[Lecture: Introduction]

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7
Q

___ carry impulses away from the cell body (efferent)

A

Axons

[Lecture: Introduction]

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8
Q

Experience sculpts synaptic connections to shape mental activity through ___

A

epigenetic mechanisms

[Lecture: Introduction]

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9
Q

The neurologic exam will help determine lesion is at the level of ___________

A

muscle, the neuromuscular junction, the peripheral nerve,
the spinal cord, brainstem, subcortical structures (basal ganglia and cerebellum), or the cortex

[Lecture: Introduction]

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10
Q

Organic disorder is one that decreases mental function due to ___

A

medical or physical disease

[Lecture: Introduction]

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11
Q

Functional disorder is one that decreases mental function due to ___

A

psychological cause

[Lecture: Introduction]

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12
Q

VITAMIN C

A

Vascular Infectious Tramautic Age-related Metabolic Inflammatory Neoplasm Congential

[Lecture: Introduction]

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13
Q

White areas of the brain contain ___

A

myelinated axons, connecting the different processing areas

[Lecture: Introduction]

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14
Q

Myelinated axons are mostly ___

A

fat sheaths veined with capillaries

[Lecture: Introduction]

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15
Q

Gray (pinkish-tan really, due to capillaries) matter is collections of ___

A

cell bodies, dendrites, synapses; it’s where the neural processing occurs

[Lecture: Introduction]

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16
Q

Axons ___ extend into the white matter

A

do

[Lecture: Introduction]

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17
Q

Pathways connecting one part of the brain to another are given names according to ____ nomenclature

A

from-to, name tells you what is connected to what

[Lecture: Introduction]

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18
Q

The CNS consists of two types of cells: ___ and ___

A

neurons and glia

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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19
Q

___ are distinctive, spindle shaped collections of rough ER in the neuron

A

Nissle bodies/substance

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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20
Q

The neuron cell body is also known as the ___

A

soma

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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21
Q

Glia are ___

A

non-neuronal cells that maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for neurons in the CNS and

originally thought to be the connective tissue of the brain, hence the name, which means “glue”

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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22
Q

Examples of glia include ___, ___, ___, and ___ in the CNS, and ___ and ___ in the PNS

A

oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia

Schwann cells, satellite cells

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23
Q

Synapses are where ___

A

One neuron passes information to another - can be at axon dendrite connection, or axon cell body, or even between axons…

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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24
Q

When an action potential reaches the terminal, ___ influx permits fusions of vesicle to the plasma membrane to dump the neurotransmitter in

A

Calcium

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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25
Q

Ionotropic receptors are transmembrane molecules that ___ to allow ___

A

bind ligands to allow ions to travel in/out of the cell; they are quick and produce a specific response

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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26
Q

Metabotropic receptors are transmembrane receptors that are ___

A

linked to G proteins; they are much slower and result in wider range of responses

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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27
Q

Microglia are the ___ of the CNS and are signaled by ___

A

phagocytes; ATP (if a cell is damaged it will leak ATP, there is normally no ATP in the EC space)

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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28
Q

Microglia arise embryonically from outside the ___

A

neural tube; from hematopoietic tissue

They do not originate embryonically from the nervous system

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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29
Q

Oligodendrocytes form ___ in the CNS

A

myelin - one oligodendrocyte can myelinate several nearby axons

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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30
Q

Schwann cells form ___ in the PNS

A

myelin - one Schwann cell can only form myelin around only one axon

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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31
Q

Astrocytes are ___-shaped glia that ___, ___, and ___

A

star; have long processes to maintain ionic equilibrium by taking up the released K+; clear and recycle myelin debris in the CNS as well as neurotransmitters released extracellularly by converting it to glutamine; and maintain the BBB and regulate blood flow locally

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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32
Q

PNS damage response is mediated by Schwann cells that ___ and then ___

A

clear the myelin debris and then line up to act as a substrate for outgrowth of axons

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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33
Q

CNS damage response is mediated by oligodendroglia that ___ and ___ and ___ to ___ axonal regeneration

A

proliferating and up-regulating expression of molecules (e.g. chondrotin sulfate proteoglycans) to inhibit axonal outgrowth. They then active astrocytes to form a scar to block off axonal regeneration

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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34
Q

CNS axons are ___ capable of re-growth

A

they are capable, but are inhibited by the local CNS glia

[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]

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35
Q

Capillaries of the brain are ___ fenestrated

A

not; the endothelial cells are zipped up by tight junctions

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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36
Q

Endothelial cells of the brain have ___ junctions

A

tight; substances must diffuse or be transported through endothelium to enter ECF of brain

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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37
Q

___ (glia) help maintain the blood-brain barrier

A

Astrocytes

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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38
Q

T/F: there are small sites where there is no blood-brain barrier

A

True; here the CNS is linked to peripheral blood flow for various functions

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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39
Q

___ wall off the “circumventricular organs” to maintain the separation of EC space from plasma

A

Astrocytes

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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40
Q

Cerebral ischemia develops when blood flow falls below ___

A

20 mL/min per 100 g of tissue

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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41
Q

Autoregulation of blood flow is performed by ___ in ___

A

calcium-activated potassium channels (Kca) of arterioles

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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42
Q

Stretch of brain arteriole -> ___ -> depolarization -> ___

A

Inhibition of Kca such that K outflux is blocked and Ca influx is activated

increase vascular muscle tone to maintain vessel diameter

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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43
Q

___ is an increase in local blood flow due to an increase in neuronal activity

A

Functional hyperemia

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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44
Q

Functional hyperemia involves neurons producing ____ and astrocytes ___ arachidonic acid to ___ to ___, resulting in increased blood flow

A

neurons producing NO to dilate vessels, and astrocytes taking up the glutamate released by the overworked neurons, release arachidonic acid and convert it to EET via P450, which hyperpolarizes the arteriole membrane to dilate it

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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45
Q

fMRI relies on intrisic properties of ___ to measure blood flow

A

hemoglobin

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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46
Q

PET relies on an ___, a radioactive analog of ___

A

injected tracer; glucose

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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47
Q

Neurons ___ glycogen reserve

A

lack

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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48
Q

T/F: The blood supply of the brain carefully adheres to its embryonic organization

A

False, it invades the growing cerebrum after it has started to fold and bend

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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49
Q

The brain’s arterial supply arises from the ___ artery and the ___ arteries, such that a drop in flow in one system can be compensated by the other

A

internal carotid and vertebral arteries

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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50
Q

The internal carotid artery supplies the ___ of the brain

A

anterior half

Recall, it divides into ophthalmic, and then anterior and middle cerebrals

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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51
Q

The vertebral arteries supply the ___, ___, and ___ of the cortex

A

brainstem, cerebellum, and medial face of occipital lobe and inferior temporal lobe of the cortex

Recall, they divide into the anterior and posterior spinals

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]

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52
Q

The ___ divides the two halves of the cerebral cortex

A

longitudinal fissure

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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53
Q

The ____ artery enters the longitudinal fissure and supplies the ___ of the medial face of the cerebral hemisphere and orbital cortex

A

Anterior cerebral; anterior 2/3

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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54
Q

The internal carotid branches to form the ___ and the ____ arteries

A

anterior cerebral, middle cerebral

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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55
Q

The ___ supplies the lateral face of the cerebrum, including the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes

A

middle cerebral

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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56
Q

Unnamed branches of the ____ supply the deep white and gray matter, these vessels are often involved in ___ symptoms

A

middle cerebral artery; stroke symptoms such as hemiplegia

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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57
Q

The vertebral arteries fuse at the level of the pons to form the ____

A

basilar artery

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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58
Q

The basilar artery bifurcates into the ___

A

posterior cerebral arteries

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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59
Q

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) branches off the ___ artery to supply the ____ part of the cerebellum

A

vertebral; most caudal

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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60
Q

The anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) branches off the ____ artery to supply the ___ of the cerebellum

A

basilar artery; supplies the more anterior portion of the inferior face of the cerebellum

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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61
Q

The superior cerebellar artery branches off the ___ artery, and enters the ___ to supply the superior cerebellum

A

basilar artery; posterior fossa

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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62
Q

The Circle of Willis connects the ____ circulatory systems along the base of the brain

A

posterior and anterior circulation

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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63
Q

The Circle of Willis is formed by the ____

A

anterior and posterior communicating arteries joining the anterior cerebral arteries, middle cerebral arteries, and posterior cerebral arteries

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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64
Q

All of the sinuses merge at the ___

A

sinuses confluens

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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65
Q

The sinus confluens drains into the ___

A

jugular vein

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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66
Q

Cerebral veins empty into ___

A

dural sinuses

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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67
Q

The ___ are enlarged fluid-filled lumens that are remnants of the embryonic tube that formed the brain

A

ventricles

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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68
Q

Embryonically, the brain forms from a ___

A

neural tube

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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69
Q

CSF is secreted by the ___, a modified vascular structure in the ventricles

A

chorioid plexus

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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70
Q

The lateral ventricles are what used to be the first and second ventricles, and communicate with the third ventricle via the ___

A

intraventricular foramina (one for each lateral ventricle)

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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71
Q

There are ___ ventricles in total

A

four - the lateral (1 and 2), third, and fourth

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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72
Q

The ____ connects the third and fourth ventricles

A

cerebral aqueduct

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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73
Q

Three apertures (two lateral and one caudal) connect the fourth ventricle with the ___

A

subarachnoid space

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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74
Q

The ___ is a single layer of cells that lines the ventricles to form a leaky cell layer

A

ependyma

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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75
Q

T/F: Substances in the CSF cannot move from the ventricle into the EC space of the brain

A

False, ependyma forms a leaky cell layer

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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76
Q

In the choroid plexus, brain capillaries lose their ___ junctions and ependymal cells acquire ___ junctions

A

tight, tight

Here solutes diffuse out of capillaries and must be actively transported across ependymal cell to the CSF

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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77
Q

Most of the CSF (100 mL) is in the ___

A

subarachnoid space

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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78
Q

About 500 mL of ___ is made per day

A

CSF

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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79
Q

The CSF is the extracellular fluid for neurons and also ____

A

buoys up the brain, dampens shock of blows to the head, and is tightly regulated in regard to ionic compisition

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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80
Q

CSF returns to the blood primarily via ___, which line the principle dural sinuses

A

arachnoid granulations/arachnoid villi

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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81
Q

If CSF resorbtion fails, ___ increases resulting in ___

A

intracranial fluid pressure, hydrocephalus

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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82
Q

If the flow of CSF is interrupted, this is called a ___

A

non-communicating hydrocephalus (it’s not communicating to the subarachnoid space)

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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83
Q

If CSF gets to subarachnoid space but isn’t resorbed properly, it is called a ___

A

communicating hydrocephalus

[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]

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84
Q

Excitatory postsynpaptic potential (EPSP) are results of neurotransmitters that cause ___

A

depolarization (inside becomes positive with respect to the outside of cell)

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85
Q

IPSPs cause ___

A

hyperpolarization

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86
Q

T/F: Cells cannot receive an EPSP from one source and an IPSP from another simultaenously

A

False, the can partially or totally cancel each other out

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87
Q

An action potential will occur if an ___ can cause the neuron to reach ___

A

EPSP, threshold

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88
Q

Steps of the action potential

A

First, voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels pop open, allowing Na+ to rush from the
extracellular space into the cell, causing the interior of the cell to become even less negative with
respect to the outside. At some point, the membrane potential actually becomes positive instead
of negative.

When the membrane potential becomes positive enough, the voltage-gated Na+ channels
are inactivated and Na+ no longer enters the cell.

At this point, voltage-gated K+ channels pop open, K+ rushes out of the cell, and the
membrane potential becomes negative again (repolarizes).

The rapid efflux of K+ from the cell causes a slight undershoot (hyperpolarization).

Equilibrium is slowly restored through the action of the Na+/K+ pump.

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89
Q

The ___ period is the period during which another action potential cannot
be generated under any circumstances

A

absolute refractory

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90
Q

The ___ period is the period during which extra depolarizing current (an
extra large EPSP) is needed to generate an action potential

A

relative refractory

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91
Q

Synaptic transmission takes time, and thus there is a lag, called the ___, between the time a stimulus is present in the environment and when a neuron responds

A

response latency

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92
Q

___ was the methodology of studying the skull to make inferences about brain function

A

Phrenology

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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93
Q

___ is a method of correlating brain regions and injuries to behavior

A

Lesion analysis

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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94
Q

CT and MRI provide information of the ___ of the brain, at a resolution of ___ - higher resolution requires histologic analysis

A

structure; 2-3mm squared

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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95
Q

Negative symptoms (i.e. weakness, loss of sensation) correspond to ___ lesions

A

loss of function due to destructive lesions

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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96
Q

Measuring ___ noninvasively allows us to measure functions of neurons

A

electromagnetic potentials

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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97
Q

Measurement of ___ provides an indirect measure of activity of populations of neurons

A

cerebral hemodynamics and regional cerebral blood flow (CBF)

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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98
Q

Electrophysiologic techniques of measuring brain function include

A

EEG (electroencephalogram), ERP (event related potential), MEG (magnetoencephalogram)

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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99
Q

Metabolic/hemodynamic techniques of measuring brain function include

A

PET (positron emission technology), fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging), SPECT (single photo emission computed topography)

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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100
Q

EEG measures ___ as they are slow postsynaptic potentials, because ___ are very brief and thus contribute little

A

EPSPs and IPSPs; action potentials

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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101
Q

Summation of electrical potential changes occurs at the vertically oriented neurons known as ___, and thus this gives the EEG signal off

A

pyramidal cells

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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102
Q

EEG and MEG do not measure individual neurons (only single electrodes can), but rather capture ___, representing synchronized activity across many neuronal elements

A

field potentials

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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103
Q

An event-related potential (ERP) is the average of multiple ___ recordings in response to a single stimulus

A

EEG

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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104
Q

T/F: ERP waveforms can be compared to the norm to indicate pathology at specific loci within the known transmission pathways for these sensory modalities

A

True

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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105
Q

Electromyography is usually performed in conjunction with ___

A

nerve conduction studies

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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106
Q

EMG and nerve conduction studies are useful in identifying pathology affecting ___, ___, and ___ disease

A

muscle, peripheral nerve, and motor neuron disease

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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107
Q

Increased glutamate in the synaptic cleft is taken up by ___

A

astrocytes

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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108
Q

Glutamate is taken up by astrocytes, resulting in increased numbers of ___ along the foot process abutting the capillary and blood brain barrier, and the
release of ___ factors that increase local cerebral blood flow.

A

glucose transporters; vasodilatory

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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109
Q

PET scans are obtained by injecting patients with ___ and then measuring ___

A

positron-emitting radionuclide; collisions with electrons to create photons

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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110
Q

___, a tracer, can provide a map of glucose metabolism in the brain in PET scans

A

18-Fluorodeoxyglucose (18 FDG)

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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111
Q

___, a tracer, can provide a map of water distribution in PET scans

A

H215O

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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112
Q

BOLD (Blood-Oxygen Level Dependent) is a technique in fMRI that measures ____

A

inhomogeneities in the magnetic field due to
changes in the level of O2 in the blood - deoxyhemoglobin is paramagnetic and will distort the magnetic field

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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113
Q

A connectome is ____

A

connections of all neurons

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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114
Q

____ is the study of the organization of neural interactions within the brain

A

Connectomics

[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]

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115
Q

A typical synapse occupies a volume of about ___

A

2 cubic micrometers

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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116
Q

Presynaptic terminals are filled with ___, each with a diameter of about 40 nm and contain neurotransmitter

A

synpatic vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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117
Q

When an action potential arrives in the

presynaptic terminal, the depolarization causes ___ to open, which moves ___ into the cell.

A

voltage-gated calcium channels; Ca2+

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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118
Q

Binding of calcium
ions to the protein ___ triggers the fusion of the
lipids of the vesicle and surface membranes, opening a fusion pore through which the
neurotransmitter diffuses out of the vesicle

A

synaptotagmin

This is called exocytosis

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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119
Q

Neurotransmitter will bind to receptors at the ___ to initiate a response

A

postsynaptic membrane

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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120
Q

Neurotransmitter is handled three different ways:

A

destroyed, diffuse into the EC space, or recycled back into the presynaptic terminal into vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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121
Q

After dumping its neurotransmitter, the spent vesicle will be ___

A

reinternalized and refilled with neurotransmitter

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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122
Q

NMJ synapses are generally ___ (speed), ___ (effect), ___ (strength), and use ___ (transmitter)

A

fast; excitatory; strong, ACh

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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123
Q

CNS synapses can be ___ (speed), ___ (effect), ___ (strength), and use multiple different ___ including ACh

A

fast or slow; excitatory or inhibitory; weak; transmitters

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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124
Q

The ANS controls ___ movement while the SNS controls ___ movement

A

involuntary (cardiac, smooth muscle); voluntary (skeletal muscle)

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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125
Q

At each neuromuscular
junction, the motor axon loses its myelin sheath and splays out on a tiny ___ (about 30
micrometers in diameter) on the muscle surface

A

end plate

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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126
Q

In ___ (uniquely) the postsynaptic membrane is thrown into numerous folds that increase the membrane area

A

skeletal muscle

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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127
Q

A ___ is the number of muscle fibers innervated by one

motor axon, and a single AP will cause all the fibers to twitch once

A

motor unit

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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128
Q

The ACh receptor in skeletal muscle is a ___ as ACh binding will cause ___

A

ligand-gated ion channel; Na+ movement into the cell

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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129
Q

The NMJ is located near the ___ of the muscle fiber and thus ___ get initiated

A

middle; two APs moving away from one another toward the tendons

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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130
Q

The neuromuscular synapse acts like an ___ relay

switch

A

all-or-none - if the action potential threshold is not reached in the muscle fiber there is no twitch at all, and if threshold is exceeded there is ordinarily a single twitch
regardless of the size of the stimulus

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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131
Q

The neuron resting potential is ___ mV, and threshold is ___ mV

A

-80; -50

so must secrete 30 mV of depolarizing ACh

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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132
Q

The action potential is propagated quickly to each tendon by ___ which let in ___, and are located everywhere on the muscle fiber

A

voltage-gated sodium channels, Na+

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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133
Q

The nerve terminal is much smaller than the muscle it innervates, so there is a need for ___

A

amplification

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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134
Q

Because each single synpatic vesicle products about one mV depolarization, to reach threshold the body has to ___ and ___

A

extend its length of contact with the muscle; and load it with a few hundred active zones and tens of thousands of synaptic vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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135
Q

The motor nerve terminal secretes the contents of a few times more than the minimum number of synaptic vesicles needed to maintain a ___

A

safety factor

comes in handy during repetitive stimulation as number of vesicles exocytosed with each stimulus declines

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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136
Q

Miniature End Plate Potentials (MEPP) are about 1 mV and reflect the ___

A

spontaneous exocytosis of a single synaptic vesicle

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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137
Q

The ACh receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel and is permeable to ___

A

all cations; it is a Non-Selective Cation (NSC) channel

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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138
Q

The ACh receptor is a pentamer of ___

A

four different subunits; alpha contributes two subunits

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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139
Q

___ (number) of ACh must bind to the receptor to open it

A

Two molecules

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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140
Q

In the NMJ, presynpatic delay is short but is due to the time between ___ and ___

A

membrane depolarization and fusion of vesicle and surface membranes

the entire thing takes about 1 millisecond

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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141
Q

Cleaning up the NMJ synapse involves ___, ___, ___, and the muscle fiber must ___

A

pumping Ca++ out via Ca ATPase and NCX
retrieval of the exocytosed vesicle membrane
removal of ACh
muscle fiber must pump out Ca and Na, and pump back in K - done via Na/K ATPase and Ca pumps

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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142
Q

Removal of ACh at the NMJ can be completed via ___, ___, or ___

A

simple diffusion out into EC medium [most important]
destruction by AChe (acetylcholinesterase) into acetate and choline
reuptake of choline by the presynpatic terminal [least important]

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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143
Q

Two repetitive-use phenomena have been especially well characterized: ___ and ___

A

facilitation and synaptic depression

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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144
Q

Facilitation occurs exclusively pre-synaptically, as increased (residual from the last EPSP) presynaptic ___ causes greater release of ___

A

Ca++, neurotransmitter-containing synaptic vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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145
Q

Synaptic depression occurs exclusively pre-synaptically, and is due to depletion of ___

A

releasable synaptic vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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146
Q

In myasthenia gravis, patients make antibodies to ___

A

ACh receptors, and thus diminishes the amplitude of MEPPs and EPP

This may not be a problem at first, but with repetitive stimulation and synaptic depression patient will have weakness on exertion

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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147
Q

Myasthenic syndrome is ___-synaptic and patients will become ___, myasthenia gravis is ___-synaptic and patients will become ___. Both are autoimmune

A

pre-synaptic to Ca++ channels; stronger (myasthenic syndrome is like ongoing facilitation)

post-synaptic to ACh receptors; weaker (myasthena gravis is a little bit like ongoing synaptic depression)

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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148
Q

Facilitation and depression are of more importance in the ___ rather than the ___

A

CNS, PNS - they are linked to learning and memory

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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149
Q

CNS neurons typically receive synaptic inputs from many different neurons and has long dendrites from which
small protuberances called ___ make synaptic contact with incoming axon terminals

A

dendritic spines

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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150
Q

CNS synapses are weak because the presynaptic terminal contains only a ___, thus facilitation (teamwork!) becomes more important

A

single active zone and only a few dozen
releasable synaptic vesicles

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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151
Q

CNS transmitter action termination occurs via ___, ___, and ___

A

diffusion, reuptake, and destruction…

just as in the NMJ, though while the NMJ uses only ACh, there are many different transmitters, so the importance of each method is different here

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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152
Q

While CNS synapses can be excitatory or inhibitory due to variation of the ion channel selectivity, most are ___

A

inhibitory

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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153
Q

The ___ of an ion is the membrane potential at which there is no net/overall flow of that particular ion from one side of the membrane to the other.

A

reversal potential/Nernst potential

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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154
Q

In the CNS the major excitatory transmitter is ___, and the main channel gated opened by that transmitter is a(n) ___ channel.

A

glutamate; Non-Selective Cation (NSC)

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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155
Q

In the CNS the major inhibitory transmitter is ___, which acts by increasing ___ permeability in the postsynaptic membrane

A

GABA; chloride

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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156
Q

The membrane potential is always determined by the relative ___ of each participating ion.

A

permeability

Chloride’s equilibrium potential is near the resting potential, thus there is a huge Cl permeability change with a small IPSP

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

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157
Q

If Vion is +, then the ion’s concentration is high ___ the cell. If Vion is -, then the ion’s concentration is high ___ the cell.

A

outside; inside

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

158
Q

CNS synapse inhibition can be ___ or ___

A

pre-synaptic, as inhibitory neurons synapse on excitatory ones, or post-synaptic, causing a decrease in membrane permeability

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

159
Q

___ is the process of combining excitatory and inhibitory inputs to determine whether or not an AP will occur

A

Summation - can be temporal or spatial

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

160
Q

Summation can be ___ or ___, based on algebraic summation of inputs or based on the time between one input

A

spatial or temporal, note that temporal summation occurs simultaneously with facilitation

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

161
Q

___ summation is where two or more inputs contribute

A

Spatial

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

162
Q

___ summation is where one input fires successively before the previous one can fully decay

A

Temporal

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

163
Q

Indirect/slow synaptic transmission involves ___ as opposed to ligand-gated ion channels

A

G-protein coupled receptors which create second messengers

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

164
Q

T/F: a first messenger can work on both fast/direct and slow/indirect pathways

A

True

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

165
Q

Catecholamines, serotonin, and most peptide transmitters exert their effects through ___

A

G-protein coupled receptors

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

166
Q

ACh acts on both ___ (ligand-gated ion channel, fast) and ___ (G-protein coupled receptor, slow) receptors

A

nicotinic; muscarinic

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

167
Q

Toxins like strychnine and tetanus toxin selectively block ___ synaptic transmission and thus produce ___

A

inhibitory; powerful, persistent, involuntary skeletal muscle contractions

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

168
Q

___ is the summation of excitatory and inhibitory potentials in neurons

A

Synaptic integration

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

169
Q

___ always arise first at the trigger zone/axon hillock/initial segment, because threshold is lowest at this site

A

Action potentials

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

170
Q

Because action potentials arise at the axon hillock first, excitatory inputs will be more effective ___

A

the closer they are to it, due to decremental spreading

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

171
Q

___ is the property that CNS neurons are able to become potentiated in relation to the activity of the postsynaptic cell

A

Associative plasticity/spike-timing dependent plasticity

possible because of the NMDA receptor

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

172
Q

Associative plasticity (temporal pairing/long term potentiation) is made possible by the ___ receptor

A

NMDA

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

173
Q

The NMDA receptor is plugged by a ___ ion, and once that is released via glutamate binding and a subsequent postsynaptic action potential, ___ ions will enter the cell

A

Mg++; Ca++

This is how we learn

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

174
Q

Ca++ entry through the NMDA receptor causes postsynaptic vesicle membrane insertion of ___ which increases the synaptic potential, as well as a ___ signal which strengthens the presynaptic signal

A

More NMDA receptors; a retrograde signal going presynaptically (e.g. NO diffusing back in and potentiating transmitter release)

This is how we learn

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

175
Q

Silent synapses occur because NMDA receptors need to be activated (requiring glutamate and a postsynaptic potential) to insert ___ receptors into the postsynaptic membrane

A

AMPA

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

176
Q

The main function of ___ is to couple, and thereby

synchronize, cells that need to fire together

A

electrical synapse transmission

Electrical synapses are much faster than chemical ones

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

177
Q

NMDA receptors require ___ signal strength than AMPA receptors to produce postsynaptic membrane depolarization

A

greater, so that the Mg++ ion in the core can be dislodged

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

178
Q

Predominately Ca++ influx occurs at ___ receptors, while predominately Na++ influx occurs at ___ receptors in potentation

A

NMDA; AMPA

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

179
Q

Vesicle fusion to the membrane involves ___ on the vesicle latching to ___ on the membrane, ___ ions triggering the fusion, and ___ unwinding the coils

A

v-SNARE (synaptobrevin); t-SNARE (syntaxin/SNAP-25) (t=target); Ca++; NSF

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

180
Q

Botulinum toxin cleaves ___ to block exocytosis, tetanus toxin does the same but acts at inhibitory synapses

A

snare proteins

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

181
Q

Review pages 28-31 of 2nd day’s handout for examples of indirect synaptic transmission

A

DO PRIOR TO THE TEST!

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

182
Q

___ is the causative agent of tetanus which is due to a plasmid that encodes tetanospasmin

A

Clostridium tetani

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

183
Q

Tetanospasmin blocks the release of ___ neurotransmitters, such as glycine and GABA, by cleaving ___

A

inhibitory; synaptobrevin II

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

184
Q

Botulinum toxin is specific for ___ nerve endings

A

peripheral

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

185
Q

Botulinum toxin binds to the neuron and prevents the release of ___

A

acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

186
Q

T/F: Extracellular fluid is always electrically neutral

A

True

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

187
Q

Hyperkalemia causes ___ in neurons. Why?

A

depolarization.

Hyperkalemia makes the concentration of potassium on the two sides of the membrane more nearly equal, which moves the potassium equilibrium potential positively, ie towards zero.
Because neurons are relatively highly permeable to potassium, the membrane potential follows, and the neuron depolarizes.

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

188
Q

What is the mechanism of the refractory

period?

A

Inactivation gates are still closed and potassium
channels are still conducting immediately after the
AP finishes.

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

189
Q

Slow depolarization can ___, essentially knocking out those sodium channels and blocking an AP

A

close inactivation gates

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

190
Q

Nerve APs and skeletal muscle APs both last about ___, while a ventricular myocyte AP lasts about ___

A

1 ms; 250 ms

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

191
Q

If the intracellular and extracellular fluids of an axon were switched, what would happen to the membrane potential?

A

The membrane potential would be positive (about +80 mV). This would close all inactivation gates, so it could not give an AP unless the membrane itself were also flipped inside out.

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]

192
Q

The ___ is the part of the nervous system responsible for control of the bodily functions not consciously directed, such as breathing, the heartbeat, and digestive processes.

A

autonomic NS

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

193
Q

Sympathetic chain ganglia arise from the spinal level of ___ - ___ via the lateral horn and emerge via the ventral root

A

T1-L2 (thoracolumbar)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

194
Q

Parasympathetic chain ganglia arise from cranial nerves ___ (4 total) aka tectal region of brain stem, as well as S_-S_

A

III, VII, IX, X; S2-S4

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

195
Q

Most of the clinically useful drugs affect ___ neurons

A

efferent (motor) rather than afferent (sensory)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

196
Q

Afferent neurons convey ___ information, efferent neurons convey ___ information

A

sensory; motor

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

197
Q

Somatic NS regulates ___ activity and a single neuron connects CNS with peripheral tissues; Autonomic NS regulates ___ activity and pre- and post- ganglionic nerves connect at a ganglion

A

somatic: voluntary skeletal muscle; autononic: involuntary smooth and cardiac muscle and glandular secretions (divided into symp/parasymp)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

198
Q

The adrenal medulla can release the neurotransmitter ___

A

epinephrine

Adrenal medulla is embryologically and functionally a sympathetic ganglion; innervated by typical sympathetic preganglionic neurons

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

199
Q

___ neurons synapse in terminal ganglia, either next to or within the organs innervated

A

Parasympathetic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

200
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic ganglions are ___er than preganglionic sympathetic ganglions
Postganglionic parasympathetic ganglions are ___er than postganglionic sympathetic ganglions

A

longer; shorter

Parasympathetic ganglia (most) are located in the innervated organs
Sympathetic ganglia are located in two paravertebral chains along spinal cord (most), or in prevertebral ganglia in the abdomen (some)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

201
Q

Adrenergic receptors include ___ receptor subtypes while cholinergic receptors are divided into muscarinic (of which the subtypes are ___) and nicotinic

A

α and β
M

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

202
Q

Nicotinic receptors are located in ___, ___, and ___

A

neuronal CNS, skeletal muscle, and ganglionic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

203
Q

Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons release the neurotransmitter ___ at effector organs, ___ at sweat glands, or ___ at renal VSMC, while post ganglionic parasympathetic release acetylcholine, although both release acetylcholine at the preganglionic neuron

A

norepinephrine (interacts with α and β receptors);
ACh (interacts with M receptors);
dopamine (interacts with D1 receptors)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

204
Q

Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons release the neurotransmitter norepi at effector organs, ACh at sweat glands, or dopamine at renal VSMC, while post ganglionic parasympathetic release ___

A

ACh (interacts with M receptors)

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

205
Q

Preganglionic PS and S neurons release ACh which interacts with ___ receptors

A

nicotinic cholinergic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

206
Q

Most organs are dually innervated save for ___ which receive sympathetic innervation only

A

blood vessels

They have muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are not responsive to PS activation

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

207
Q

Predominant neural control is almost always exerted by the ___ branch, save for blood vessels which receive ___ innervation only

A

parasympathetic; sympathetic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

208
Q

The ___ nervous system is considered essential for life, while the ___ NS is not in a controlled environment, though is also always active

A

parasympathetic; sympathetic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

209
Q

___ receptors exist at cardiac muscle and blood vessels, GI tract, bronchiole smooth muscle and glands, GU tract and the eye

A

Muscarinic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

210
Q

___ receptors in the cardiovascular system produce primarily sympathetic effects (vasoconstriction, tachycardia, elevated BP), and in the GU system produce primarily parasympathetic effects (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urination)

A

Nicotinic

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

211
Q

α1 receptors at VSMC mediate ___ while β2 receptors mediate ___

A

vasoconstriction; vasodilation

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

212
Q

Renal vasculature contains both ___ and ___ receptors to balance out constriction and dilation

A

α1 and dopamine receptors

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

213
Q

Stimulation of what receptor causes each:

___: Vasoconstriction increases TPR and BP (reflex bradycardia occurs)
___: Increased heart rate and increased force of contraction increases CO and BP
___: Vasodilation decreases TPR and BP (reflex tachycardia occurs)
___: Decrease in SNS outflow (via action in CNS) decreases BP

A

α1
β1
β2
α2

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

214
Q

Activation of baroreceptors ultimately results in ___, a short term compensatory mechanism

A

sympathetic inhibition and thus vasodilation and decreased HR

activation is due to increased arterial pressure

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

215
Q

Relaxation of baroreceptors ultimately results in ___, a short term compensatory mechanism

A

sympathetic activation and thus vasoconstriction and increased HR

relaxation is due to decreased arterial pressure

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

216
Q

RAAS activation is triggered by ___ and ultimately leads to ___, a long term compensatory mechanism

A

a decrease in renal blood flow; retention of Na+ and water to increase vascular volume and thus BP

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

217
Q

___ innervates most everything parasympathetically upwards of the pelvis, save for the eyes and tear and salivary glands

A

Vagus/CN X

The eyes are innervated by CN III
Tear and salivary glands are innervated by VII, IX

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

218
Q

The large intestine, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are innervated parasympathetically by ___

A

S2-S4

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

219
Q

The ___, ___, ___, and ___ organs are innervated parasympathetically by S2-S4

A

large intestine, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs

[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]

220
Q

Most drugs act at the ___ level to either mimic or block neurotransmitter

A

receptor

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

221
Q

Drugs that act indirectly (not at the receptor level) alter ___, ___, or ___ of neurotransmitter

A

synthesis, storage, or inactivation

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

222
Q

Cholinergic agonists produce the same effect as ___ (neurotransmitter) at muscarinic cholinergic receptors

A

ACh

they are known as parasympathomimetics/cholinomimetics

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

223
Q

Cholinergic antagonists block ___ (neurotransmitter) and are thus known as ___

A

ACh

parasympatholytics at parasympathetic end organs/neuromuscular blockers if at NMJ/ganglionic blockers at ganglia

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

224
Q

Adrenergic agonists produce the same effect as ___ at ___

A

NE at sympathetic end organs

known as sympathomimetics

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

225
Q

Adrenergic antagonists block the effects of epi and norepi at ___

A

adrenergic synapse

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

226
Q

___ blocks the reuptake of choline by the high-affinity choline transporter at the presynapse, this is the rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis

A

Hemicholinium/hemicholine

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

227
Q

Choline uptake is dependent on contransport with ___ at the presynapse, this is the rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis

A

Na+

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

228
Q

An acetyl group is removed from acetylCoA and added to choline via ___

A

choline acetyltransferase

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

229
Q

ACh storage into vesicles is inhibited by ___, which thus reduces its release

A

vesamicol

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

230
Q

ACh release is blocked by ___ toxin and increased by ___ toxin, and mostly depends on Ca influx

A

botulinum; black widow spider

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

231
Q

The ___ of AChe attracts acetyl group [CH3-COO] of acetylcholine

A

esteratic site

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

232
Q

At the catalytic site of AChe, ACh’s acetyl group is covalently bound to the ___ of acetylcholinesterase while the choline group is released

A

serine [Ser-OH]

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

233
Q

Acetyl-serine-enzyme bond is hydrolyzed rapidly (microseconds) at the catalytic site to yield ___ and free, active acetylcholinesterase enzyme

A

acetate

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

234
Q

Stimulation of Gq GPCR (muscarinic) yields increased ___ activity

A

phospholipase C

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

235
Q

Stimulation of Gi GPCR (muscarinic) yields decreased ___ activity

A

adenylyl cyclase

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

236
Q

___ is a synthetic analog of acetylcholine and can be structurally modified to provide further selectivity for muscarinic receptors or resistance to AChe

A

Bethanecol

(Pilocarpine is the alkaloid)

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

237
Q

___ is a naturally occurring alkaloid, but not a synthetic analog, that acts predominantly at muscarinic receptors to mimic ACh

A

Pilocarpine

(Bethanecol is the synthetic analog of ACh)

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

238
Q

Nicotine at low doses acts as a PSN and SNS ___, but at higher doses will act as an ___

A

agonist; antagonist due to persistent depolarization rendering the membrane unresponsive

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

239
Q

___ prevent acetylcholine breakdown and allow acetylcholine to accumulate in the synapse and exert increased effects at cholinergic receptors

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (Oximes)

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

240
Q

Antimuscarinics/anticholinergics are classified based on structure and are either ___ such as atropine, scopolamine, or ___ such as propantheline

A

alkaloids; synthetics

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

241
Q

Antinicotinics act at either the ___, or the ___ by blocking the predominant tone at the effector site (symp/parasymp) though these are less useful than the first

A

NMJ; ganglia

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

242
Q

DOPA (dihydroxyphenylalanine) is synthesized from tyrosine by ___, which is inhibited by ___, an analog of tyrosine (shares most of the name)

A

tyrosine hydroxylase; metyrosine

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

243
Q

Dopamine is synthesized from DOPA (dihydroxyphenylalanine) by ___ in the cytosol, which is inhibited by ___, analogs of DOPA

A

1-AAD (L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase)
α-methyl dopa and carbidopa

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

244
Q

phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase, the enzyme converting norepi to epi, is present in highest concentration in ___

A

adrenal medulla

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

245
Q

___ is converted to norepinephrine by dopamine β-hydroxylase (DβH)

A

Dopamine

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

246
Q

All catecholamine neurotransmitters (dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine) have the ___ nucleus and catechol ___ groups in common

A

phenylethylamine; hydroxyl (-OH)

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

247
Q

Catecholamines and serotonin are a group known as ___

A

monoamines/”biogenic agents”

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

248
Q

VMAT is a pump that transports norepi into vesicles, which packages it from release and protects it from degradation by ___, located on the mitochondria

A

monoamine oxidase

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

249
Q

Most of norepinephrine is ___ by the norepinephrine transporter (NET), which is blocked by cocaine and tricyclic antidepressants

A

taken back up into presynaptic nerve terminals

[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]

250
Q

The prosencephalic vesicle segments from a single vesicle into three vesicles at week 5: paired enlargements cranially, the ___ vesicles, which expand off of the single, more caudal ___ vesicle.

A

telencephalic; diencephalic

telencephalic becomes cerebral hemispheres; diencephalic becomes all of the -thalamus shit

[Lecture: Embryology I]

251
Q

At week 3 the neural tube grows enlargements at the ___ end, the primary cerebral vesicles. These are termed the ___ (forebrain), ___ (midbrain), and ___ (hindbrain)

A

rostral; prosencephalon; mesencephalon; rhombencephalon

[Lecture: Embryology I]

252
Q

The Rhombencephalic vesicle segments into the more cranial ___ and the more caudal ___

A

metencephalon; myelencephalon

metencephalon becomes pons and cerebellum, myelencephalon becomes medulla

[Lecture: Embryology I]

253
Q

The telencephalic vesicles correspond to the ___, each with its own lateral ventricle.

A

cerebral hemispheres

[Lecture: Embryology I]

254
Q

The ___ will give rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, and epithalamus, as well as the retina and iris

A

diencephalic vesicle (all -thalamus)

its lumen gives rise to the third ventricle

[Lecture: Embryology I]

255
Q

The ___ will give rise embryologically to the pons and cerebellum, and the ___ gives rise to the medulla

A

metencephalon; myelencephalon

lumen gives rise to the fourth ventricle

[Lecture: Embryology I]

256
Q

The embryonic three-layered germ disc consists of an ___, ___, and ___

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

[Lecture: Embryology I]

257
Q

Portions of the primitive/Hensen’s ___ coalesce beginning just below the ___ and extending cranially to form the rod-like notochordal process, which is initially hollow.

A

mesoderm; primitive node

[Lecture: Embryology I]

258
Q

The ___ is the point at which epiblasts near the amniotic cavity and the hypoblasts near the primitive yolk sac are connected, is the first determinant of rostral caudal orientation

It will become the mouth of the baby.

A

prechordal plate

[Lecture: Embryology I]

259
Q

___ cells start growing towards the primitive streak and primitive/Hensen’s node at the caudal end of the embryo opposite the prechordal plate, and grow towards the prechordal plate to form the ectoblast, the mesoblast (or chorda-mesoblast) and the intraembryonic endoblast.

A

Epiblast

[Lecture: Embryology I]

260
Q

The epiblast cells that migrate down and ventrally from the primitive/Hensen’s node towards the prechordal plate to form the ___

A

notochord

[Lecture: Embryology I]

261
Q

The notochord is in the ___ layer, sandwiched between ___ and endoderm

A

mesoderm; ectoderm

[Lecture: Embryology I]

262
Q

The notochord releases factors to promote ectodermal thickening, forming the ___

A

neural plate

Ectoderm is on the amniotic cavity side

[Lecture: Embryology I]

263
Q

The center of the neural plate begins to depress and the edges start to raise (becoming the neural folds), after which it is referred to as the ___

A

neural groove

[Lecture: Embryology I]

264
Q

The cells in the formation of the neural tube that are removed after neural fold fusion are ___ cells

A

neural crest cells

[Lecture: Embryology I]

265
Q

The adult remnants of the notochord are the ___

A

nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs

[Lecture: Embryology I]

266
Q

Anterior neural pore closes at day ___ due to maternal folic acid - if deficient in folic acid, anencephaly occurs

A

25

recall, folic acid (vitamin B9) in the adult is responsible for proper development of blood cells and a deficiency will cause megaloblastic anemia

[Lecture: Embryology I]

267
Q

Failure of posterior neural pore closure manifests as ___

A

spina bifida

[Lecture: Embryology I]

268
Q

The mesencephalon will become the ___encephalon

A

it remains as mesencephalon you dumbass

[Lecture: Embryology I]

269
Q

Neurons growing into the alar plate, which becomes the dorsal horn, are ___

A

sensory axons

[Lecture: Embryology I]

270
Q

Neurons growing into the basal plate, which becomes the ventral horn, are ___

A

motor axons

[Lecture: Embryology I]

271
Q

In the brain stem, motor nuclei are located ___ while sensory nuclei are located ___

A

centrally; peripherally

[Lecture: Embryology I]

272
Q

___ cells give rise to melanocytes, pia-arachnoid mater, sensory and autonomic ganglia of CN and peripheral spinal nerves, adrenal medulla, odentoblasts, and neuro-cranial bones, aorticopulmonary septum, and Schwann cells

A

Neural crest

[Lecture: Embryology I]

273
Q

Neural crest cells give rise to ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___

A

melanocytes, craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons and glia

[Lecture: Embryology I]

274
Q

The notochord releases ___, a signaling molecule, which induces the neurectoderm to form the neural plate

A

Shh (Sonic Hedgehog)

[Lecture: Embryology I]

275
Q

Incidence of neural tube defects can be reduced by having pregnant women take 400 micrograms (0.4mg) of ___ daily, especially through the first trimester of pregnancy

A

folic acid/vitamin B9

Deficiency in the adult causes a megaloblastic anema

[Lecture: Embryology I]

276
Q

Wnts, FGFs, and retinoic acid are secreted by the primitive node to promote ___ neural tube differentiation, helping give rise to cerebral vesicles

A

caudal

Wnt = butt
Cerebrus and dickkopf are secreted by the anterior visceral endoderm to promote rostral neural tube differention

[Lecture: Embryology I]

277
Q

Cerebrus and dickkopf are secreted by the anterior visceral endoderm to promote ___ neural tube differention, helping give rise to cerebral vesicles

A

rostral

Cerebrus = head
Wnts, FGFs, and retinoic acid are secreted by the primitive node to promote caudal neural tube differentiation

[Lecture: Embryology I]

278
Q

Early on the rhombencephalon consists of 8 morphologically distinct elements called ___, which each have unique combinations of Hox genes, but the boundaries eventually disappear

A

rhombomeres

each rhombomere has distinct cell morphology, NT synthesis and selectivity, other properties…

[Lecture: Embryology I]

279
Q

It is the variation in ___ genes, a transcription factor, that results in the variance among the 8 rhombomeres of the rhombencephalon

A

Hox/Homeobox

[Lecture: Embryology I]

280
Q

The walls of the neural tube are initially lined by pseudostratified ectoderm known as the ___ layer

A

neuroepithelial

[Lecture: Embryology I]

281
Q

The cells of the ___ layer of the neural tube are initially ectoderm and form virtually all of the cellular elements of the CNS - save for ___, which originate from the reticuloendothelial system

A

neuroepithelial; microglia

[Lecture: Embryology I]

282
Q

Primitive neuroepithelial cells migrate away from inner multiplication zone and to the outer edge of the growing wall of the ___, which thickens selectively to resemble the mature nervous system

A

neural tube

[Lecture: Embryology I]

283
Q

As the neural tube becomes longer and thicker, neuroblasts (primitive nerve cells) start to use ___ ___ ___ cells as “rope ladders” to get where they need to go

A

radial glial guide

Chemical messages then signal where they need to get off at

[Lecture: Embryology I]

284
Q

If migrating neuroblasts do not get off of the ___ ___ ___ cells (the “rope ladders”), then the next neuroblasts in line are blocked off and cannot migrate to where they need to go either

A

radial glial guide

[Lecture: Embryology I]

285
Q

In the spinal cord, progenitors closer to the ___ aspect become motor neurons, while progenitors closer to the ___ aspect become sensory neurons - this is due to Shh from the notochord and BMPs

A

ventral; dorsal - just like the adult spine ya dumbass

the dorsal population is on the alar plate
the ventral population is on the basal plate

[Lecture: Embryology I]

286
Q

The neural tube develops a crease - the ___ ___ - which separates the ventral population (THE BASAL PLATE) from the dorsal population (THE ALAR PLATE)

A

sulcus limitans

[Lecture: Embryology I]

287
Q

The lateral surface of the telencephalic vesicle folds over itself to form the Sylvian fissure, which produces the ___ cortex

A

insular

[Lecture: Embryology I]

288
Q

Curare works by blocking ___ receptors

A

ACh

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]

289
Q

Neostigmine works by blocking ___ at the NMJ and is thus a treatment for myasthenia gravis and myasthenic syndrome

A

AChe

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]

290
Q

Most neurogenesis occurs prior to ___

A

birth

[Lecture: Embryo II]

291
Q

The nervous system begins as a flat epithelium known as the ___

A

neurectoderm

[Lecture: Embryo II]

292
Q

Cells in the 3 secondary zones of neurogenesis share 3 characteristics: 1) they arise in a ___ zone; 2) they migrate before exiting the mitotic cycle to a ___ zone; 3) they proliferate postnatally in ___ zones

A

ventricular; non-ventricular; non-ventricular

they become secondary neurogenesis regions: external granulate layer; adult dentate gyrus; subventricular zone are the 3 zones, the latter two continue neurogenesis into adulthood

[Lecture: Embryo II]

293
Q

The three secondary zones of neurogenesis include the ___, ___, and ___ - the latter two continue neurogenesis in adulthood

A

external granule layer; adult dentate gyrus; subventricular zone

however there is still net loss of neurons

[Lecture: Embryo II]

294
Q

Once the first CNS cells exit the mitotic cycle, they migrate to the ___ region, which later separates into the MZ, CP, IZ, SP, and DVZ

A

preplate

[Lecture: Embryo II]

295
Q

In the cerebral cortex, developing neurons use ___ ___ ___ cells, which span the entire cortex, as guides for migration

A

radial glial guide

[Lecture: Embryo II]

296
Q

FilaminA (FLNA) is the gene responsible for the step of ___, mutations in this result in periventricular heterotopia (PH)

A

onset of neuronal migration

FLNA connects neurons to radial glial guide cells

[Lecture: Embryo II]

297
Q

___ is the gene responsible for onset of neuronal migration via connection to radial glial guide cells, mutations in this result in periventricular heterotopia (PH), in which neurons can’t leave the ventricular zone

A

FilaminA (FLNA)

[Lecture: Embryo II]

298
Q

Filamin A (FLNA) is the gene responsible neuronal connections to radial glial guide cells and thus onset of neuronal migration; mutations in this result in ___, in which neurons can’t leave the ventricular zone

A

periventricular heterotopia (PH)

Condition is X-linked dominant

[Lecture: Embryo II]

299
Q

In type I lissencephaly (LIS1 gene) and double cortex syndrome (DCX gene), there is an issue with the ___ process of neurogenesis

A

migration

Both are microtubule genes

[Lecture: Embryo II]

300
Q

In both ___ and ___, there is an issue with the migration process of neurogenesis

A

type I lissencephaly (LIS1 gene, Chr17); double cortex syndrome (DCX gene, XChr)

[Lecture: Embryo II]

301
Q

The extracellular protein reelin from Cajal-Retzius cells is responsible for the step of ___ in neurogenesis

A

stopping migration

[Lecture: Embryo II]

302
Q

Defects in the reelin gene in Cajal-Retzius cells, responsible for stopping migration in neurogenesis, results in ___

A

inversion of the normal inside-out pattern

[Lecture: Embryo II]

303
Q

Neurons born at ___ end up together in the same layer and follow similar programs of differentiation

A

the same time

[Lecture: Embryo II]

304
Q

___ migration, as opposed to tangential migration, accounts for the majority of migration trajectories in the cerebral cortex

A

Radial

Tangential migration accounts for inhibitory GABA-containing neurons

[Lecture: Embryo II]

305
Q

___ migration accounts for a minority of migration trajectories in the cerebral cortex, which sets up inhibitory GABA-containing neurons

A

tangentially

Glutamate-containing neurons (pyrimidal cells) use radial glia (radial migration) to get to their position in the cortex

[Lecture: Embryo II]

306
Q

The three types of migration in neurogenesis are radial, tangential, and ___

A

chain (the rostral migratory system)

[Lecture: Embryo II]

307
Q

___ cells migrate quickly without cellular guides like radial glia to form the PNS, melanocytes, cartilage, sensory ganglia and other tissue based on their cellular location on the neural tube

A

Neural crest

[Lecture: Embryo II]

308
Q

Neural crest cells migrate either ___ly (direction) or ___ly

A

ventrally or dorsally

[Lecture: Embryo II]

309
Q

The ___ stream of neural crest cells give rise to pigment cells, the ___ stream gives rise to everything else it forms including neurons

A

dorsal; ventral

[Lecture: Embryo II]

310
Q

___ is an important step in normal neural development and shapes pattern formation, brain morphogenesis, removal of unnecessary neurons, and matching neuronal populations in target fields

A

Cell death, both apoptosis and necrosis

[Lecture: Embryo II]

311
Q

The ___ hypothesis states that post-synaptic organs provide limiting amounts of nutrient/trophic factors that are taken up by input nerve terminals

A

neurotrophic

[Lecture: Embryo II]

312
Q

The neurotrophic hypothesis states that ___ organs provide limiting amounts of nutrient/trophic factors that are taken up by input nerve terminals

A

post-synaptic

[Lecture: Embryo II]

313
Q

Neurotrophins interact with ___ membrane receptors, such as TrkA, TrkB, and TrkC to recruit intracellular signaling molecules to promote cell survival

A

tropomyosin-related kinase

[Lecture: Embryo II]

314
Q

___ interact with tropomysin-related kinase membrane receptors, such as TrkA, TrkB, and TrkC to recruit intracellular signaling molecules to promote cell survival (by inhibiting apoptosis)

A

Neurotrophins

[Lecture: Embryo II]

315
Q

Neurotrophic factors inhibit ___ pathways

A

apoptotic

[Lecture: Embryo II]

316
Q

In addition to promoting neuron survival, ___, key signaling molecules, also induce programs of differentiation to permit process (read: axon) formation

A

neurotrophins

[Lecture: Embryo II]

317
Q

Oligophrenin-1 is a protein that modulates the activity of an enzyme that regulates the ___, disruption of it leads to incomplete axon outgrowth and mental retardation

A

cytoskeleton

[Lecture: Embryo II]

318
Q

Growth cone guidance molecules can be long-range in which they are ___, or short-range in which they are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive

A

diffusible; contact-dependent

[Lecture: Embryo II]

319
Q

Growth cone guidance molecules that act locally are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive

A

contact-dependent

[Lecture: Embryo II]

320
Q

Growth cone guidance molecules that act at long ranges are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive

A

diffusible

[Lecture: Embryo II]

321
Q

Three factors affecting CNS axonal regeneration include ___, and the presence of molecules that ___ and ___ growth

A

the ability of axons to grow; must have molecules that BOTH promote (NGF, FGF) and inhibit (Nogo) growth

[Lecture: Embryo II]

322
Q

In ___, there is demyelination of CNS axons, with periods of remission with either some remyelination or addition of sodium channels to compensate for myelin loss

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

[Lecture: Embryo II]

323
Q

Most synapses are formed relatively early in life in excess, and are reduced via ___

A

selective synapse inhibition

[Lecture: Embryo II]

324
Q

During embryonic and early postnatal life, each muscle fiber is innervated by ___ motor neuron(s) and will ___ (increase/reduce) after birth

A

several (multiple/polyneural innervation)

[Lecture: Embryo II]

325
Q

Selective synapse elimination involves correlated synapse firing and release of ___ or similar substance

A

neurotrophin

[Lecture: Embryo II]

326
Q

T/F: the nervous system is mostly developed and most neural connections are made by birth

A

F, much of it occurs after birth

[Lecture: Embryo II]

327
Q

Myelination begins during embryonic stages and is first present in the ___

A

periphery, it moves towards the spinal cord and continues after birth

[Lecture: Embryo II]

328
Q

GABA in the embryonic CNS serves a ___ role because of the higher intracellular levels of chloride as compared to the adult cell

A

excitatory/depolarizing. In the adult it is inhibitory.

[Lecture: Embryo II]

329
Q

GABA in the embryonic CNS serves an excitatory/depolarizing role because of the higher intracellular levels of ___ as compared to the adult cell

A

chloride

[Lecture: Embryo II]

330
Q

The subventricular zone gives rise to the ___

A

olfactory bulb

[Lecture: Embryo II]

331
Q

The external granule layer gives rise to the ___ in the cerebellum postnatally

A

the granule neurons

[Lecture: Embryo II]

332
Q

The dentate gyrus is part of the ___, which is involved in learning

A

hippocampus

[Lecture: Embryo II]

333
Q

The microglia originate from the ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk

A

mesoderm

[Lecture: Embryo II]

334
Q

Two fetal proteins measured as surrogates for neural tube defects include ___ and ___

A

acetylcholinesterase and alpha-fetoprotein

[Lecture: Embryo II]

335
Q

The ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk is responsible for development of all non-essential organs such as gut epithelium, pancreas, liver, lungs, etc

A

endoderm

[General Embryology]

336
Q

The ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk is responsible for development of connective tissue such as muscle and bone

A

mesoderm

[General Embryology]

337
Q

In the CNS, myelin is made by ___ while in the PNS, myelin is made by ___

A

oligodendrocytes, many axons per 1; Schwann cells, 1 axon per 1 at a time

[General Embryology]

338
Q

Guillian-Barre syndrome results from autoimmune destruction of ___ after infection (CMV particularly)

A

Schwann cells

[General Embryology]

339
Q

The ___ serves as the permeability membrane of the peripheral nerves due to its high amount of tight junctions and basement membrane

A

perineurium

[General Neuro]

340
Q

When neurons divide ___ to the ventricular zone, this is symmetrical division and the cells remain in the cell cycle; when they divide ___ to the ventricular zone, this is asymmetrical division and the daughter cell differentiates

A

perpendicular; parallel

[Lecture: Embryo II]

341
Q

The first cells to exit mitosis migrate a few cell bodies distance away and accumulate at the ___

A

preplate

[Lecture: Embryo II]

342
Q

The ___ is located between the preplate and ventricular zone and are short-lived “pioneering” neurons that establish neuronal circuitry

A

subplate

[Lecture: Embryo II]

343
Q

The subplate is located between the preplate and ventricular zone and are short-lived “___” neurons that establish neuronal circuitry

A

pioneering

[Lecture: Embryo II]

344
Q

The cerebral cortex develops in an “___” fashion, with the oldest neurons closest to the ventricular surface and the later born ones closer to the outer pial surface

A

inside-out

[Lecture: Embryo II]

345
Q

___ migration is when neurons arise from a ventricular zone immediately deep to where they reside; ___ migration is when neurons arise from a distant, different ventricular zone

A

Radial; tangential

[Lecture: Embryo II]

346
Q

Reelin is produced by ___-___ cells

A

Cajal-Retzius

[Lecture: Embryo II]

347
Q

Neurons express FLNA as well as the proteins ___ and ___, in order to stay connected to radial glial guide cells

A

LISI; DCX

[Lecture: Embryo II]

348
Q

An ___ is a behaviorally defined developmental disorder, distinguished by a constellation of characteristics that reflect a common clinical picture and vary by age, developmental level, gender, and other variables we are still discovering.

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

349
Q

Characteristics of ASDs include QUALITATIVE impairments in ___

A

reciprocal social communication - manifests as repetitive behaviors and restricted interest

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

350
Q

ASDs affect 1 in ___ people, most commonly males

A

110

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

351
Q

Associated conditions in ___ include:

Anxiety/Depression
Attentional problems
Language-based learning disabilities
Motor planning difficulties
Impulsivity
Sleep problems
GI symptoms
“picky” eating/self-restricted diet
A

ASDs

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

352
Q

T/F: Autism spectrum disorders have some known genetic influence including epigenetic factors such as parental age, neonatal complications, fertility treatments, environmental exposures

A

True

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

353
Q

Children with siblings with ASDs, other medical/genetic conditions are at ___ risk for ASDs

A

higher

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

354
Q

In children under 3, red flags of ASDs include lack of numerous things, including: (5 total)

A

Lack of appropriate gaze

Lack of warm, joyful expressions with directed gaze

Lack of sharing interest or enjoyment

Lack of response to name when called

Lack of coordination of gaze, facial expression, gestures and sounds

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

355
Q

In school-age children, red flags of ASDs include: (6 things)

A

Poor social reciprocity

Impaired social-emotional understanding

Difficulty modulating and integrating nonverbal behaviors

If verbal, language is often disordered (overly literal, tangential or associative, difficulty organizing thoughts in a way listener easily understands)

Restricted/repetitive play

Insistence on sameness

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

356
Q

T/F: Symptoms of ASDs are the same across all age groups

A

False, differs between kids under 3, school age children, and adults

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

357
Q

The CDC launched a campaign for ASDs called ___, ___

A

Learn the Signs, Act Early

[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]

358
Q

Sympathetic chain ganglia arise from the spinal level of T1-L2 via the ___ and emerge via the ___

A

lateral horn; ventral root

[Lecture: PNS Anatomy and Physiology]

359
Q

Acetylcholine opens ___ channels in heart cells via the beta-gamma subunit activity of its muscarinic metabotropic GPCR to lower heart rate

A

potassium

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]

360
Q

Odorants open ___ channels in olfactory neurons via the beta-gamma subunit activating adenylyl cyclase to make cAMP

A

NSC

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]

361
Q

Norepi facilitates the opening of ___ channels in heart muscle and neurons via adenylyl cyclase to make cAMP to activation PKA to phosphorylate those channels

A

calcium

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]

362
Q

Abnormal development is characterized on the basis of an individual being unable to achieve developmental ___ for their age group

A

milestones

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

363
Q

Delayed development is classified as being ___s below the mean with regards to developmental milestones

A

2 standard deviations

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

364
Q

Developmental quotient = ___/___

A

developmental age/chronological age

> 85 give reassurance
70-85 close monitoring

365
Q

Five domains of development as scored by an ages and stages questionnaire

A

gross motor, fine motor, language, cognitive, social

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

366
Q

Though cannot measure IQ reliable before age 5, IQ of 70-50 is ___ intellectual disability, 50-35 is ___, 35-20 is ___,

A

mild, moderate, severe, profound

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

367
Q

Cerebral palsy is characterized by ___, and is acquired and non-progressive, split into spastic, athetoid/dyskinetic, and ataxic or can be a mix

A

motor impairment

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

368
Q

Autism is characterized by delays in at least one of the following:

A

social interaction, language, symbolic/imaginative play

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

369
Q

Development delay is an umbrella term that includes ___ disability - all children with ___ disability have developmental delays, but not vice versa.

A

intellectual

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

370
Q

Acquired development disorders could be due to perinatal stroke or TORCH which stands for

A

(T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex, (E)pileptic encephalopathy

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

371
Q

An imprinting issue in which the fathers chromosome 15 is missing/silent would result in ___ syndrome, which presents with wide mouth, prominent chin, microcephaly, hand flapping, ataxia, frequent smiling

A

Angelman

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

372
Q

An expansion in the trinucleotide CGG repeat in FMR1 gene would cause ___ syndrome, presenting with long jaw, high forehead, large ears, hyperextensible joints, big testes

A

Fragile X

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

373
Q

An imprinting issue in which the mothers chromosome 15 is missing/silent would result in ___ syndrome, which presents with overeating, short stature

A

Prader-Willi

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

374
Q

A defect in the X-linked MECP2 gene results in ___ syndrome, presenting with microcephaly, ataxia, stereotypical hand movements and other autistic features

A

Rett

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

375
Q

___ is an example of an environmental neurotoxin that is linked to 10% of developmental delays

A

Lead

[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]

376
Q

Craniorachischisis totalis, the most complete form of craniorachischisis, presents ___ and ___ together and is lethal.

A

anencephaly; total spina bifida

[Lecture: Congenital Pathology]

377
Q

___ describes an injury to neuron usually at level of the axon, with subsequent death of neuron or regrowth of axon, and the nucleus usually migrates to the periphery

A

Chromatolysis

Others include:
• Total necrosis, with loss of neuron and removal (ie
ischemic neuron)
• Acquisition of viral particles within nucleus or cytoplasm
(viral infections)
• Acquisition of abnormal material within cytoplasm
(neurodegenerative processes, storage disorders)

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

378
Q

Neurons can react to injury via 4 ways:

A

chromatolysis, total necrosis, acquire viral particles, or acquire abnormal material in cytoplasm

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

379
Q

Ischemic/axonic neurons (via chromatolysis) results in a shrunken nucleus and loss of Nissl substance, resulting in ___

A

eosinophilia (stains red-dead). Nissl substance is basophilic ( stains blue)

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

380
Q

Transection of an axon results in necrosis of axon distal to the transection, known as ___

A

Wallerian degeneration/anterograde/orthograde

think about it - wants to keep everything near the cell body healthy and sexy

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

381
Q

Transection of an axon results in necrosis of axon ___ to the transection, known as Wallerian/anterograde/orthograde degeneration

A

distal

think about it - wants to keep everything near the cell body healthy and sexy

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

382
Q

In Alzheimer’s disease axons disconnect and clump around ___ material in the brain parenchyma

A

beta-amyloid

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

383
Q

An astrocyte’s full cytoplasmic volume

best highlighted on ___ immunostaining

A

GFAP (Glial fibrillary acidic protein)

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

384
Q

Astrocytes react to tissue injury by ___ of cytoplasmic volume and ___ of intracytoplasmic intermediate glial filaments (GFAP+)

However, they cannot fill in large areas of tissue damage!

A

expansion; synthesis

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

385
Q

___ cells, with ciliation, line ventricular spaces

A

Ependymal

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

386
Q

___ is the process in which a dying neuron is surrounded by microglial cells, it can occur in a variety of degenerative diseases, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, and inflammatory conditions, such as encephalitis.

A

Neuronophagia

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

387
Q

Microglia are replenished by ___ from the blood

A

monocytes

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

388
Q

Myofilaments -> Myofibril -> ___ -> Fasciculus

A

muscle fiber

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

389
Q

Type I red muscle fibers have more ___ enzymes and mitochondria while type II white muscle fibers have more glycolytic enzymes

A

oxidative

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

390
Q

Myopathy vs Denervation

location of weakness and atrophy
CK levels

A 
Myopathy
• Proximal weakness
and atrophy
• Elevated CK
• EMG changes
Denervation
• Distal weakness and
atrophy
• Normal CK
• Different EMG
changes

[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]

391
Q

Neostigmine works by blocking ___ at ___ and is thus a treatment for ____

A

AChe; NMJ; It is thus a treatment for myasthenia gravis and myasthenic syndrome

[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]

My Neuro (7 decks)

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