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Pharmacology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of angina occurs during rest?

A

Variant (prinzmetal, vasospastic) angina

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2
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Its when the heart muscle weakens and enlarges, it loses its ability to pump blood through the heart and into the systemic circulation.

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3
Q

What are commonly used Statin’s?

A

atorvastatin calcium, fluvastatin sodium, lovastatin, pravastatin sodium, rosuvastatin calcium, simvastatin, pitavastatin

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4
Q

Loop diuretic drug

A

Furosemide (lasix)

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5
Q

What labs need to be monitored with calcium channel blockers?

A

Liver enzymes

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6
Q

Define badykinesia

A

slow movement

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7
Q

What type of diuretic is spironolactone?

A

potassium sparing diuretic. Does not deplete potassium!!

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8
Q

What is the most prevalent type of URI?

A

the common cold

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9
Q

Digoxin nursing interventions

A

check apical pulse rate before administering
check for peripheral & pulmonary edema
monitor digoxin levels & potassium

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10
Q

What labs do you monitor for heparin?

A

PTT

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11
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease.
DOPAMINE AGONISTS

A

stimulate dopamine receptors

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12
Q

Define antifungal drugs

A

agents that are used to treat fungal infections

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13
Q

What is Hypercapnia?

A

Increased carbon dioxide in the blood

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14
Q

What is COPD?

A

a restrictive pulmonary disease that is caused by airway obstruction with increased airway resistance of air flow to the lung tissue

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15
Q

What do Beta blocker drug names end in?

A

“LOL”

little old lady needs a beta blocker!

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16
Q

Define central nervous system

A

system that involves the brain and spinal cord that regulates body functions.

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17
Q

Metered-dose inhaler: Do you shake the inhaler before administering dose?

A

YES

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18
Q

What are statins used to treat?

A

High cholesterol

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19
Q

What type of angina occurs frequently with progressive severity unrelated to activity; unpredictable regarding stress/ exertion and intensity?

A

Unstable (preinfarction) angina

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20
Q

Define ADHD

A

thought to be caused by a dysregulation of the transmitters serotonin, epinephrine, and dopamine.

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21
Q

What lab values are monitored with hyperlipidemia?

A

Homocysteine, hsCRPs, LDL, HDL and triglycerides

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22
Q

Define nystagmus

A

constant, involuntary, cyclical movement of the eyeball.

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23
Q

Short acting nitrate drug name?

A

Nitroglycerin

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24
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hypokolemia?

A

Muscle weakness, leg cramps, cardiac dysrhythmias.

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25
Q

Define gingival hyperplasia

A

overgrowth of the gum tissues or reddened gums that bleed easily.

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26
Q

How long does it take to wean off of Beta blockers?

A

1-2 weeks

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27
Q

What can anticholinergic drugs help prevent in LRI?

A

bronchospasm

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28
Q

Which generation of antihistamines are not sedative?

A

second generation

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29
Q

Cardiac Glycoside Drug

A

Digoxin

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30
Q

What are expectorants?

A

agents that loosen bronchial secretions so they can be eliminated by coughing

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31
Q

True/False: Antiparkinsonism drugs can cause dark urine and perspiration to be dark as well.

A

TRUE!

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32
Q

PTT Cation

A

60-70

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33
Q

Define seizure threshold

A

level at which seizure may be induced

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34
Q

Digoxin + quinidine or fecainide or verapamil =

A

increased digoxin serum level

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35
Q

Thiazide side effects include:

A

dizziness, vertigo, weakness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, hyperglycemia, constipation, rash, photo sensitivity, blurred vision

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36
Q

What is sudafed used for?

A

congestion!!

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37
Q

Thiazide adverse reactions include:

A

severe dehydration, hypotension, gout, severe potassium depletion, aplstic anemia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, renal failure

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38
Q

Define restrictive lung disease

A

a decrease in total lung capacity as a result of fluid accumulation or loss of elasticity of the lung

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39
Q

Define convulsion

A

involuntary paroxysmal muscular contractions

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40
Q

pitavastatin brand name is

A

Livalo

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41
Q

Anti parkinsonism side effects

A

Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dysphagia, fatigue, dizziness, headache, dry mouth, bitter taste, twitching, blurred vision, insomnia, dark urine

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42
Q

Explain the effects of stimulants on the central nervous system related to the increased release of specific neurotransmitters.

A

causes euphoria and alertness

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43
Q

What are antianginal drugs used for?

A

To treat angina pectoris

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44
Q

Define opportunistic infections

A

infections that occur in the immunocompromised or debilitated population

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45
Q

What labs should be monitored with ARBs?

A

potassium

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46
Q

Montelukast (singular) – Lower respiratory disorders

ADVERSE REACTIONS

A

Angioedema, bleeding, vasculitis, seizures, edema, anaphylaxis, suicidal ideation, stevens-johnson syndrome

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47
Q

ARB adverse reactions include:

A

Orthostatic hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, renal dysfunction

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48
Q

What is diazapam used for?

A

Seizures!

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49
Q

Determine nursing care for patients receiving prescribed medication that stimulates the central nervous system.

A

Monitoring weight, height and growth (for children).
Observe for withdrawal symptoms
Monitor for side effects

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50
Q

Loop diuretic adverse reactions?

A

severe dehydration, marked hypotension, hyperglycemia, gout, hearing loss, renal failure, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis

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51
Q

Define cluster headaches

A

Headaches that occur 1 to 3 times a day in a period lasting from about 2 weeks to 3 months.

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52
Q

Labs to monitor with ACE inhibitors

A

Potassium

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53
Q

Tiotropium (spiriva) – Lower respiratory disorders

ADVERSE REACTIONS

A

Anaphylaxis, dehydration, hyperglycemia, cardiac dysrhythmias, cardiac arrest, paradoxical bronchocontriction

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54
Q

True/ False: Tolerance to nitroglycerin can occur.

A

TRUE!

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55
Q

How long should you hold your breath for after administering a dose from a Metered-dose inhaler? Whats next?

A

Just a few seconds and exhale slowly through pursed lips.

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56
Q

Is benedryl an antihistamine?

A

YES!

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57
Q

Why diuretics are used to treat hypertension?

A

Because they promote sodium and water loss by blocking sodium and chloride reabsorption.

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58
Q

What is bronchospasm?

A

the result when the lung tissue is exposed to extrinsic or intrinsic factors that stimulate a bronchoconstrictive response.

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59
Q

What vital signs should be closely monitored with antianginals?

A

Blood pressure

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60
Q

What is the difference between cardio-selective and non cardio-selective beta blockers?

A

Cardio selective beta bockers act mainly on beta1 receptors & brochoconstriction is less likely to occur.

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61
Q

Adverse reactions of Nitroglycerin

A

Hypotension, reflex tachycardia, paradoxical bradycardia.

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62
Q

Define myathenia gravis

A

a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that affects approximately 14 in 100000 persons.

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63
Q

How long do you wait if you need to administer a second dose from Metered-dose inhaler?

A

2 minutes

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64
Q

Define antitubercular drugs

A

agents that are used to treat tuberculosis

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65
Q

What are the dietary restrictions for a patient who is on Loop diuretics?

A

Patient needs to avoid licorice because it may increase potassium loss!

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66
Q

What labs do we monitor on patients taking thiazides

A

calcium, glucose, potassium, magnesium, sodium

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67
Q

What is the mode of action of nitrates?

A

Nitrates cause generalized vascular and coronary vasodilation which increases blood flow through the coronary arteries to the myocardial cells.

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68
Q

What are calcium channel blockers used for?

A

Treatment of stable and variant angina pectoris, certain dysrhythmias and hypertension

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69
Q

What is amiodarone used for?

A

Life threatening dysrhythmias

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70
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease
COMT INHIBITORS

A

inhibits the catechol O-methyltransferase enzyme that inactivates dopamine

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71
Q

Loop diuretic mode of action

A

inhibits sodium and water reabsorption from loop of Henle and distal renal tubules; can also excrete potassium, magnesium and calcium

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72
Q

What is alberatrol?

A

A beta blocker used to treat lower respiratory infections

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73
Q

Define muscle relaxants

A

relieve muscular spasms and pain associated with traumatic injuries and spasticity from chronic debilitating disorders

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74
Q

Side effects of Nitroglycerin

A

Nausea, vomiting, headache, blurred vision, dizziness, syncope, weakness, diaphoresis, flushing, confusion, pallor, rash, dry mouth, palpitations, tolerance

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75
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

an autoimmune disorder that attacks the myelin sheath of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord, causing lesions that are called plaques.

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76
Q

ACE inhibitors MAIN mode of action

A

Dilate venules and arterioles which improves renal blood flow and decreases blood fluid volume.

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77
Q

What are the five categories of diuretics that are effective in removing water and sodium?

A

Thiazides, Loop, Osmotic, Carbonic anyhydrase inhibitor, and Potassium sparing.

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78
Q

fluvastatin sodium brand name is

A

Lescol

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79
Q

Digibind onset is

A

30 minutes

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80
Q

Digoxin side effects

A

anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, headache, blurred vision, diplopia, photophobia, drowsiness, dizziness, fatigue, confusion

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81
Q

What is emphysema

A

a progressive lung disease caused by cigarette smoking or atmospheric contaminants.

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82
Q

What are the four classes of antidysrhythmic drugs?

A

Class I: Sodium channel blockers
Class II: Beta Blockers
Class III: Drugs that prolong repolarization
Class IV: Calcium channel blockers

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83
Q

True/ False: Patients can ingest alcohol while taking nitroglycerin.

A

FALSE!

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84
Q

Phenytoin therapeutic levels

A

10-20 mcg/mL

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85
Q

What are some dietary restrictions for a patient of ACE inhibitors

A

Avoid high potassium foods

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86
Q

Anticonvulsants half life

A

7-42 hours average is 24 hours

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87
Q

What are some dietary restrictions for the patient on ACE inhibitor’s?

A

Low sodium diet

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88
Q

What is the difference between beta blockers and anticholinergics used for lower respiratory infections?

A

Beta blockers open brochiole tubes while anticholinergics dry up!

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89
Q

What class of antidysrhthmic drug is amiodarone?

A

Class III

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90
Q

When giving Digoxin via IV what other equipment is important to have at patient bedside?

A

Cardiac monitor

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91
Q

What can ARB adverse reactions mask?

A

Hyperkolemia

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92
Q

Phenytoin side effects

A 
headache
diplopia
confusion
dizziness
sluggish
decreased coordination
ataxia
slurred speech
rash
anorexia
nausea
vomiting
hypotension
pink/red/brown discoloration of urine
93
Q

Define fasciculations

A

involuntary muscle twitching

94
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

a condition of acute cardiac pain caused by inadequate blood flow to the myocardium due to either plaque occlusions within or spasms of the coronary arteries.

95
Q

Digoxin + loop diuretics or thiazide diuretics =

A

increase risk of digoxin toxicity

96
Q

What are side effects of statins?

A

Headache, rash/pruitus, constipation, diarrhea

97
Q

Define HIV

A

virus causing an infection characterized by profound immuno-suppression

98
Q

Montelukast (singular) – Lower respiratory disorders

SIDE EFFECTS

A

fever, headache, drowsiness, dizziness, fatigue, restlessness, insomnia, confusion, depression, nasal congestion, cough, core throat, dental pain, influenza, dyspepsia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, rash

99
Q

atorvastatin calcium brand name is

A

Lipitor

100
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease.
ANTICHOLINERGICS

A

block cholineergic receptors

101
Q

Tiotropium (spiriva) – Lower respiratory disorders

SIDE EFFECTS

A

insomnia, dizziness, depression, headache, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, constipation, urinary retention, hyperglycemia, muscle cramping in extremities, peripheral edema, blurred vision, oral ulceration

102
Q

What lab values should be monitored when on Antiplatelet therapy?

A

Platelets

103
Q

Nursing process for Anticonvulsants

Assessment

A

Health history with current drugs and herbs being used
Check urinary output (needs to be >1500ML)
Determine lab values for BUN and creatinine and liver enzymes

104
Q

Antihistamine mode of action?

A

compete with histamine receptor sites which prevent a histamine response

105
Q

Side effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

Headache, hypotension, dizziness, and flushing of the skin

106
Q

Define rhinorrhea

A

watery nasal discharge

107
Q

What does peripheral refer to?

A

the extremities

108
Q

Nursing process for Anticonvulsants

Patient teaching

A

No driving or performing other hazardous activities
Avoid alcohol
Advise not to abruptly stop but to rather gradually stop under medical supervision

109
Q

Nursing process for Anticonvulsants

Interventions

A

monitor serum drug levels to determine therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL)
monitor CBC for early detection of blood dyscrasias
use precautions (environmental protection from sharp objects) for all patients at risk for seizures
watch nutritional intake
females need to use backup contraceptives

110
Q

True/False: Metered-dose inhaler.

Breathe out through nose. Open mouth wide and hold inhaler 1-2 inches from mouth.

A

FALSE. Breath out through mouth**

111
Q

What are peripheral vasodilators used for?

A

poor circulation, decrease edema

112
Q

Define anticonvulsants

A

drugs that stabilize nerve cell membranes and suppress the abnormal electric impulses in the cerebral cortex.

113
Q

Anti parkinsonism dietary restrictions

A

Administer with low protein foods – high protein foods can interfere with drug transport to CNS

114
Q

What type of diet should patients taking thiazides be on?

A

High potassium

115
Q

True/ False: For Amiodarone, the initial dose is usually greater and then it decreases over time.

A

TRUE!

116
Q

What are some non-pharmacological measure to help the patient with heart failure

A 
Limit salt intake to 2 g/day
Decrease alcohol to one drink a day or completely avoid it
No smoking
Obese patients should diet
Mild exercise
117
Q

Digibind (digoxin antidote) mode of action is

A

binding with digoxin to form complex molecules which prohibits digoxin from attaching to cellular side of action

118
Q

Define cholinergic crisis

A

an acute exacerbation of symptoms

119
Q

If symptoms do not clear up after 3-5 days while on sudafed, what should you do?

A

call the doctor.

120
Q

What medication is use for dysrhythmia?

A

Antidysrhythmias–
Beta1 blocker: cardioselective beta-adrenergic antagonis
Acebutotol HCl

121
Q

What is Diltiazem (cardizem) used for?

A

to increase blood pressure

122
Q

Furosemide (lasix)

ADVERSE REACTIONS

A

severe dehydration, marked hypotension, hyperglycemia, gout, hearing loss, renal failure, thrombocytopenia

123
Q

What do anginal attacks usually lead to?

A

MI (heart attack)

124
Q

Define analeptics

A

CNS stimulants that mostly affect the brain stem and spinal cord and sometimes the cerebral cortex

125
Q

Define narcolepsy

A

falling asleep during normal waking activities such as driving a car or talking with someone.

126
Q

Which generation of antihistamines are very sedative?

A

first generation

127
Q

Adverse reaction of calcium channel blockers?

A

Reflex tachycardia & peripheral edema

128
Q

How long do you wait to administer a steroid after administering a bronchdilater?

A

five minutes

129
Q

Define miosis

A

abnormal pupil constriction

130
Q

True/ False: Patient should take thiazides on an empty stomach.

A

FALSE!

131
Q

How fast is Digoxin administered through IV?

A

give dose over 5 minute time span

132
Q

What labs should be monitored for patients on Anticoagulant therapy?

A

PT, PTT, INR, Platelets

133
Q

Can prednisone be immediately stopped?

A

No, it needs to be tapered and weaned off.

134
Q

pravastatin sodium brand name is

A

Pravachol

135
Q

Define seizure

A

abnormal electric discharges from the cerebral neurons

136
Q

Can mannitol be given to patients who have heart failure or heart disease?

A

NO

137
Q

If a patients heart rate is greater than 100, can you give alberatrol?

A

NO!

138
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Lack of oxygen to body tissues

139
Q

Define migraine headaches

A

headaches that cause severe throbbing pain. Often preceded by an aura (visuals, smells, tingling, vertigo, warning)

140
Q

Digoxin cation

A

0.8-2

141
Q

What are some first generation drugs used to treat URI?

A

Benedryl

142
Q

True/ False: All diuretics are potassium wasters.

A

FALSE!

143
Q

What is Protamine Sulfate used for?

A

Antidote for heparin

144
Q

Digoxin + antacids or colestipol =

A

decrease in digoxin absorption

145
Q

Anti parkinsonism adverse reactions

A

involuntary movements, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, urinary rentention, priapism, psychosis, severe depression with suicidal ideation, hallucinations, agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, cardiac dysrhythmias, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

146
Q

True/False: It is okay for patients to immediately discontinue antiparkinsonism drugs.

A

False; abruptly discontinuing these medications can lease to rebound parkinsonism

147
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Digoxin Toxicity

A

Anorexia, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, bradycardia, premature ventricular contractions, cardiac dysrhythmias, headache, malaise, blurred vision, visual illusions, confusion, and delirium.

148
Q

Define dopamine agonists

A

agent that stimulates dopamine receptors

149
Q

Long acting nitrate drug name?

A

Isosorbide dinitrate

150
Q

What type of medication is commonly used to treat hyperlipidemia?

A

Statins

151
Q

True/false: Metered-dose inhaler.

The medication canister is inserted into plastic mouthpiece

A

TRUE!

152
Q

What are ACE inhibitors used for?

A

Heart failure

153
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease.
MAO-B INHIBITORS

A

inhibits the monoamine oxidase b enzyme that interferes with dopamine

154
Q

When are ARB’s used?

A

When a patient doe not respond to or tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

155
Q

selegiline food restrictions

A

Avoid foods high in tyramine – aged cheese, yogurt, chocolate, bananas, red wine, cream, raisins

156
Q

Hydantoins mode of action

A

reduces motor cortex activity by alerting ion transport

157
Q

What type of angina occurs with predictable stress or exertion

A

Classic (stable) angina

158
Q

What are the three types of Antianginal drugs?

A

Nitrates
Beta Blockers
Calcium channel blockers

159
Q

True/ False: A patient does not need to check their pulse rate before administering digoxin.

A

FALSE!

160
Q

What are 3 vitamins that lower homocysteine?

A

Vit b6, Vit b12, folic acid

161
Q

What do ARB drugs usually end in?

A

“sartans”

162
Q

What position do you place a patient in if hypotension results from SL nitroglycerin?

A

Supine position with legs elevated

163
Q

Anticonvulsants drug name

A

Phenytoin (dilantin)

164
Q

Anticonvulsants excretion

A

Small amounts in urine, moderate amounts in bile and feces

165
Q

What is a sign of peripheral edema and poor circulation?

A

a cap refill greater than 3 seconds

166
Q

Digoxin adverse reactions

A

Bradycardia, visual disturbances

167
Q

What is pseudoparkinsonism?

A

an adverse reaction that occurs with antipsychotic drugs

168
Q

What are adverse reactions of statins?

A

Rhabdomyolusis, myalgia, photosensitivity, hyperglycemia, elevated liver, enzymes.

169
Q

Anticonvulsants adverse reactions

A 
leukopenia
hepatitis
depression
gingival hyperplasia
nystagmus
hirsutism
osteoporosis
aplastic anemia
thrombocytopenia
agranulocytosis
stevens-johnsons syndrome
hypotension
ventricular fibrillation
encephalopathy
suicidal ideation
170
Q

True/ False: It is important to advise the patient to avoid adverse drug interactions with digoxin by not taking OTC drugs without first consulting health care provider

A

TRUE!

171
Q

What do beta blocker drugs usually end in

A

“lol”

172
Q

What type of diuretic is hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

173
Q

What is the antidote for Coumadin?

A

Vitamin K

174
Q

What are side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Nausea, diarrhea, electrolyte imbalances, vertigo, abdominal cramping, constipation, rash, headache, weakness, ECG changes, blurred vision, photo sensitivity, muscle cramping

175
Q

Define dystonic movement

A

involuntary abnormal movement

176
Q

True/False: Continuing to monitor pulse rate while on digoxin is part of the nursing process.

A

TRUE!

177
Q

Furosemide (lasix)

SIDE EFFECTS

A

Nausea, diarrhea, electrolyte imbalances, vertigo, abdominal cramping, constipation, rash, headache, weakness, ECG changes, blurred vision, photosensitivity, muscle cramping

178
Q

Which ACE inhibitors spares potassium?

A

Spironolactone

179
Q

What are signs and symptoms of heart failure?

A

fatigue, shortness of breath, edema, decrease in physical activity

180
Q

Define acute rhinitis

A

acute inflammation of the mucous membranes of the nose

181
Q

What labs do you monitor for coumadin?

A

INR

182
Q

Difference between digoxin & digitoxin

A

digoxin half life is 36 hours while digitoxin half life is 4-9 days,

183
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

low platelet count

184
Q

Define Parkinsonism

A

a chronic neurologic disorder that affects the extrapyramidal motor tract

185
Q

Digoxin therapeutic use

A

Treat heart failure, atrial fibrillation

186
Q

Anticonvulsants excretion

A

Small amounts in urine, moderate amounts in bile and feces

187
Q

What is important to teach patients about regarding transderm nitro patch?

A

Apply once a day, usually in the morning. Rotate skin sites and avoid hairy areas.

188
Q

Furosemide (lasix) labs to monitor

A

potassium & urinary intake & output

189
Q

ACE inhibitors other mode of action

A

Decrease the release of aldosterone which reduces sodium and fluid retention

190
Q

What vital sign should be checked after administering peripheral vasodilators?

A

Assess pain level!!

191
Q

lovastatin brand name is

A

Mevacor

192
Q

What do ace inhibitor drugs usually end in?

A

“prils”

193
Q

What does a vasodilator do?

A

opens up the veins!

194
Q

rosuvastatin calcium brand name is

A

Crestor

195
Q

What is a cardiac dysrhythmia?

A

any deviation from the normal rate or pattern of the heartbeat.

196
Q

Digoxin mode of action

A

Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, promoting increased force of cardiac contraction, cardiac output, and tissue perfusion; decreases ventricular rate.

197
Q

What are some second generation antihistamine drugs?

A

clariton, allegra, zyrtec

198
Q

What type of diet does a patient need to be on while taking digoxin?

A

high potassium diet (fresh and dried fruits, fruit juices, and vegetables, including potatoes)

199
Q

What are the three types of seizures?

A

Grand mal, petit mal, psychomotor

200
Q

What is amicor used for?

A

Help stop bleeding

201
Q

True/False: African Americans have more than twice the rate of heart failure as whites.

A

TRUE!

202
Q

Labs to monitor with Digoxin?

A

Potassium, magnesium, calcium, digoxin toxicity

203
Q

Define EEG (electroencephalogram)

A

a machine that records abnormal electric discharges of the cerebral cortex

204
Q

Define anorexiants

A

appetite suppressants

205
Q

True/false: Do a test spray before administering the metered dose of a new inhaler or when the inhaler has not been used recently.

A

TRUE!

206
Q

Name the three types of angina

A

Classic (stable)
Unstable (preinfarction)
Variant (prinzmetal, vasospastic)

207
Q

Define anoxia

A

absence of oxygen

208
Q

What is dyskinesia

A

Impaired voluntary movement

209
Q

What can albertrol help prevent?

A

Acute asthma

210
Q

What is status epilepticus seizures?

A

rapid succession of epileptic seizures

211
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease

A

a chronic, progressive, neuro degenerative condition with marked cognitive dysfunction.

212
Q

simvastatin brand name is

A

Zocor

213
Q

INR Cation

A

2-3

214
Q

How do we know if antidysrhythmics have been effective?

A

Comparing heart rate to baseline heart rate and assessing patient’s response to drug

215
Q

Define amphetamines

A

Stimulate the release of neurotransmitters (norepinephrine and dopamine) from the brain and symphathetic nervous system

216
Q

Which type of antianginal drugs are non effective against variant (prinzmetal, vasospastic) anginas?

A

Beta Blockers

217
Q

What are some nursing interventions for patients on thiazides?

A

Observe for hypokolemia
Monitor patients weight daily
Watch urine output to determine fluid loss or retention.

218
Q

Define idiopathic

A

of unknown cause

219
Q

Define AIDS

A

immune disorder characterized by opportunistic diseases.

220
Q

Are anticholinergic drugs used for acute asthma?

A

NO!

221
Q

Define tolerance

A

a condition in which larger and larger doses of a drug are needed to reproduce the initial response.

222
Q

Antidote for digoxin

A

Ovine, digibind

223
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease.
DOPAMINE REPLACEMENTS

A

stimulate dopamine receptors

224
Q

Why does an African American need to be given a diuretic with ACE inhibitors?

A

to prevent coughing and angidema (swelling of the face)

225
Q

Digibind duration of action is

A

3-4 days

226
Q

Common side effects of ACE inhibitors

A

constant, irritated cough, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, insomnia, hyperkalemia and tachycardia.

227
Q

What are the therapeutic uses for calcium channel blockers?

A 
Relax peripheral arterioles
Decrease cardiac oxygen demand
Decrease cardiac contractility
Decrease afterload
Decrease peripheral resistance
Reduce the work load for the heart
228
Q

When do we use osmotic diuretics?

A

to prevent kidney failure
to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP)
to decrease intraocular pressure (glaucoma)

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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