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Parasitology > Quiz 1 Pages 5 - 10 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Pages 5 - 10 Flashcards

1
Q

______ is when one partner benefits from the association, but the host is neither helped nor harmed.

A

Commensalism

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2
Q

Explain the difference between facultative and obligate parasites.

A

Obligate parasites cannot survive without a host but facultative parasites can.

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3
Q

Define definitive host and give the definitive host(s) for Leishmania donovani.

A

The definitive host is one on which the parasite reaches sexual maturity. For L. donovani, the definitive hosts are humans and dogs.

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4
Q

What are the 3 signs of infection in African Sleeping Sickness?

A

1) Chancre (at bite spot, infection and inflammation, painful and itchy, forms 1-3 weeks after bite and lasts 1-2 weeks, no scar)
2) Winterbottom Signs (enlargement of the glands in the posterior cervical region, starts about 1 month after infection and lasts for a few weeks)
3) Neurological complications (patients may be immobilized for their safety, they lose interest in things, coma, acute in 2-3 month, but chronic can take up to 2 years to get here)

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5
Q

What are 2 vector genus of Chaga’s disease?

A

Triatoma, Panstongylus, Rhodnius

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6
Q

How can you treat L. brasiliensis?

A

Long courses (30 days) of pentavalent antimonials in a high dose (ex: Stibium)

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7
Q

What is the treatment for parasitization by Hexamita meleagridis?

A

Oxytetracycline and proper flock management.

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8
Q

What is the danger of aggressive treatment of Plasmodium falciparum?

A

Healthy RBCs can be killed too and clog up all the organs.

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9
Q

Which parasitic protist if left untreated can lead to infertility?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis.

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10
Q

Giardiasis is caused by what parasite? What is the mode of infection?

A

Giardia lamblia. Person to person, water borne, venereal. Spread during periods of heavy rain.

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11
Q

What is an indirect parasite?

A

“Preying” on homeostatic mechanisms and reproductive efforts of organisms of lower trophic levels

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12
Q

The trypanosomes are a member of which phylum?

A

Euglenozoa

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13
Q

The trypanosomes are a member of which subphylum?

A

Kinetoplasta

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14
Q

What is a kinetoplast?

A

Disc shaped, DNA containing, organelle within the mitochondrion.

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15
Q

Where is the kinetoplast located?

A

Within the mitochondrion.

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16
Q

How do trypanosoma brucei reproduce?

A

By longitudinal binary fission.

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17
Q

Is Trypanosoma brucei an intracellular or extracellular parasite?

A

Extracellular.

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18
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is responsible for which disease in humans?

A

Chaga’s disease (American trypanosomiasis).

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19
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is endemic to which areas of the globe?

A

South and Central America.

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20
Q

L. donovani causes which form of leishmaniasis?

A

Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar, dum dum fever, black disease)

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21
Q

L. tropica causes which form of leishmaniasis?

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis (Delhi ulcer, oriental sore, Bagdad boil).

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22
Q

L. braziliensis causes which form of leishmaniasis?

A

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (espundia, Uta, chiclero ulcer)

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23
Q

Human contact with ___________ is necessary for infection by schistosomes

A

Water

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24
Q

What animal serves as a reservoir for S. Mekongi?

A

Dogs.

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25
Q

Explain the difference between mutualism, commensalism and parasitism

A 
Mutualism = both benefit
Commensalism = one benefits, one is neither helped nor harmed
Parasitism = one benefits, one is harmed.
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26
Q

How is Trichomoniasis transmitted?

A

Sexual intercourse

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27
Q

What human disease is caused by Naegleria fowleri?

A

Primary amebic meningoencephalitis

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28
Q

What is the definitive structure of Apicomplexa? What are its three key parts?

A

The apical complex. Actually 4: polar ring, conoid, roptry, and micronemes.

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29
Q

What is the diagnostic stage of Plasmodium?

A

When the parasite is in the blood (as immature or mature trophozoite, or gametocytes)

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30
Q

What is the difference between uricotelicand ammonotelic organisms?

A 
Uriotelic = excrete N as uric acid and its salts.
Ammonotelic = excrete N as ammonia
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31
Q

Name 4 methods of reproduction that can be employed by protozoa.

A

Binary fission, sexual reproduction, budding, schizogony.

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32
Q

Name 2 general features of the Trypanosomatidae family.

A

Undulating membrane, heteroxenous, hemoflagellate.

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33
Q

What are three things Epidemiologists need to understand and why? (choose any 3 out of the 8 that we covered)

A

Local traditions, climate, sociological factors, global economics, pharmacology, pathology, biochemistry, clinical medicine

34
Q

What is the difference between Epizootics and Zoonosis?

A 
Epizootics = massive deaths of wild animals due to parasites
Zoonosis = transmission of parasites from animals to humans
35
Q

What are the two groups of parasite and what is the difference? What are the two types of parasites and what is the difference?

A

Obligate cannot survive without the host but facultative can.
Or endo and ectoparasite
Is this what they want??

36
Q

What is a temporary parasite? And what is a temporary parasite also called?

A

Micropredator - drinks blood and transmits disease

37
Q

What kind of parasite is Amoeba Naegleria fowleri (accidental, permanent, temporary, or parasitoids)? and what does it cause?

A

Accidental. PAM

38
Q

What is the difference between female and male mosquitos?

A

Females drink blood (and transmit disease) and live longer, males only eat pollen.

39
Q

List and explain the three types of hosts.

A 
Definitive = is one on which the parasite reaches sexual maturity
Intermediate = one that is required for parasite development but one in which the parasite does not reach sexual maturity
Transport/Paratenic = in which parasite does not undergo any development, but remains alive and infective to another host
40
Q

What is a reservoir host?

A

Animal that harbours an infection (parasite) that can be transmitted to humans

41
Q

What is hyperparasitism?

A

Many parasites host other parasites

42
Q

Explain the difference between direct tropic relationship and indirect trophic relationships?

A 
Direct = parasites that eat the host
Indirect = “preying” on homeostatic mechanisms and reproductive efforts of organisms of lower trophic levels
43
Q

All parasites are heterotrophic, what does this mean?

A

They cannot manufacture their own food and need to get their energy sources from other organisms.

44
Q

Explain infrapopulation, metapopulation and suprapopulation.

A 
Infrapopulation = all parasites of a particular species occurring within the body of a single host individual
Metapopulation = all the infrapopulations within a single host species in the ecosystem
Suprapopulation = all the parasites of the single species, regardless of developmental stages, that occur in the ecosystem
45
Q

What is multiple species infection?

A

Multiple species of parasites infecting one host.

46
Q

There are four types of Parasite reproduction, list and explain all four.

A

Budding = new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud due to cell division at one particular site.
Binary fission = split into two (replication and cytokinesis)
Schizongy = nucleus replicates multiple times before actually splitting the cell (cytokinesis)
Sexual reproduction = fusion of gametes

47
Q

Identify if the following characteristics of Protozoa are true or false and if false, please write the correct answer:
- Protozoa consists of a single cell: T or F
- All species contain only one nucleus during all portions of their life cycle: T or F
- Spores can only be built from one cell: T or F
Protozoa are eukaryotes: T or F

A

T
F - most of them contain more than one nucleus
F - can be built from more than one cell
T

48
Q

List the eight characteristics of Protozoans’ nucleus and cytoplasm.

A

Plasma membrane, pellicle, glycocalyx, alveoli, pellicular microtubules, undulating membrane, Golgi apparatus, microbodies

49
Q

What is the difference between Endoplasm and Ectoplasm?

A 
Endoplasm = inside cell (sol layer, liquid)
Ectoplasm = outside cell (gel layer, semi solid)
50
Q

Explain the difference between encystment and excystation. What is the importance of cysts to parasites?

A

Encystment = forming cysts
Excystation = exiting cysts
Allows the parasite to survive in unfavourable conditions

51
Q

What is the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis?

A

Pinocytosis is small intake (“cell drinking”)

Phagocytosis is taking in large things (“cell eating”)

52
Q

Are Trypanosomatidae (Including genus Trypanosoma) heteroxenous or monoxenous? Explain what it means to be either or.

A

Heteroxenous. Means they have more than one host in their life cycle, monoxenous only have one host.

53
Q

What are the three vectors of Trypanosoma cruzi (American sleeping sickness) and what is American sleeping sickness also known as?

A

Triatoma, Panstongylus, Rhodnius.

Chaga’s disease.

54
Q

American sleeping sickness patients experience Ramana’s sign and megacolon, please explain what the two are.

A

Ramana’s sign = bite on face near eye that gets really swollen
Megacolon = parasite destroys nervous input to the colon and stops peristalsis. Gets enlarged since no food can get through.

55
Q

Name the three species of Leishmania that are pathogenic for man, and explain the difference between the three.

A

L. donovani (visceral), L tropica (cutaneous), L brasilensis (mucocutaneous)

56
Q

Where is Leishmaniasis prevalent worldwide?

A

South East Asia, Indo-Pakistan, Mediterranean, north and central Africa, South and Central America

57
Q

What are the associated symptoms with being infected with Leismania donovani?

A

Fever 1-4 months after infection, enlarged liver and spleen, skin develops hyperpigmented granulomatous areas, susceptibility to infections, death if untreated.

58
Q

What is the most common form of Leishmaniasis?

A

Cutaneous (L tropica)

59
Q

What are the associated symptoms with being infected with Leismania tropica?

A

Papule forms 1-2 weeks after bite and grows to form a painless ulcer. Center of ulcer encrusts while satellite papules are produced at the periphery. Will heal in 2-10 months without treatment but will leave a scar.

60
Q

What are the associated symptoms with being infected with Leismania braziliensis?

A

Initial symptoms are the same as cutaneuos, but then metastasizes to mucoid tissues and causes destructive lesions.

61
Q

How is mucocutaneous leishmaniasis treated?

A

High doses of pentavalent antimonials (ex: Stibium) for long courses (30 days)

62
Q

How does infection by Chilomastix mesnili occur?

A

Ingestion of cysts in contaminated water.

63
Q

What drug is used to help treat galliform birds from Hexamita meleagridis?

A

Oxytetracycline

64
Q

In what way is Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosed? And what is the treatment?

A

Wet mount of vaginal secretions, urine sediment, and prostatic massage.
Treat with Metronidazole.

65
Q

What unites The Amoebas? What do Amoebas lack compared to the previous parasites we have mentioned? Do they have a cyst stage, a trophozoites stage, or both?

A

Pseudopodia.
No flagella or cilia.
Cysts and trophozoites.

66
Q

What does Acanthomaeba spp. Cause?

A

Chronic infection of the skin or CNS

67
Q

Why is it important for us not to disturb the parasites already on our skin?

A

We have an ecosystem living on and in our bodies. If we disrupt that then something will take its place - may be more harmful than what was there previously.

68
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is the major cause of which Amoebiasis?

A

Amoebic Dysentery

69
Q

What are the acute and chronic symptoms of amoebic dysentery?

A

Acute: frequent dysentery with necrotic mucosa and abdominal pain
Chronic: recurrent dysentery with blood and mucus in feces

70
Q

What are the two medications used to treat amebic hepatitis, and how do they differ?

A

1) Iodoquinol (asymptomatic infections)

2) Metronidazole (symptomatic and chronic)

71
Q

How are humans infected by Endolimax nana?

A

By ingesting cysts from food and water contaminated with cysts from host’s feces

72
Q

What are the four Plasmodium species that are responsible for human malaria? Which is the worst?

A

P falciparum (the worst), P vivax, P ovalae, P malariae

73
Q

Why do the medications that we are using for Malaria, not lasting very long?

A

Plasmodium changes its surface proteins very often so can become resistant very easily to our medications.

74
Q

How does P. falciparum differ in morphology compared to other Malaria species?

A

Largest and banana shaped (gametes).

75
Q

Why is difficult to diagnosis someone with Malaria based on the symptoms?

A

Because many other illnesses (like the flu and babesia microti) share very similar symptoms.

76
Q

What are the two disease forms of Malaria? What are the key characteristics of each?

A

Complicated (cerebral malaria, pulmonary adema, severe anemia, cardiovascular shock, and abnormalities in blood coagulation) and Uncomplicated (last 6-10 hours every 2 to 3 days - cold stage, hot stage, sweating stage)

77
Q

What are the two different treatment plans depending on what form of Malaria it is?

A

Treat with oral meds if it is uncomplicated malaria.

Treat with IV or intramuscular meds if it is complicated malaria.

78
Q

What is the only member of the genus that infects man with Babesiosis?

A

Babesia microti

79
Q

What is treatment plan for Babesiosis?

A

Clindamycin and quinine. Can recover spontaneously

80
Q

What are the two phases of the lifecycle of Toxoplasma gondii? What is the primary host? And what are the intermediate hosts?

A

Sexual part (in cats)
Asexual part (any warm blooded animal)
Primary host is cats
Intermediate hosts are any warm blooded animal

81
Q

Why is it very difficult to eradicate cysts of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

The cysts are inside the cells so the hosts immune system cannot detect them.

82
Q

How can infection of Toxoplasma gondii in combination with first time pregnancy be harmful?

A

Can cross the placenta and cause hydroencephalus, intracranical calcification, or spontaneous abortion in the fetus.

Parasitology (18 decks)

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