Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2016 SOP > Operations > Flashcards

Operations Flashcards

1
Q

EMS: OKCFD is certified by OSDH EMS division as an _____.

A

Emergency Medical Response Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

As an EMRA, OKCFD provides medical care under the supervision of ____.

A

Physician Medical Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who provides medical care protocols to OKCFD?

A

Physician Medical Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

There are how many medical priority dispatch system priority classifications?

A

Alpha
Bravo
Charlie - possible life threatening
Delta - Life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When hazards exist at a crime scene or traffic safety hazards exist, who will be accountable for the safety of patients and rescue personnel?

A

The ranking Law Enforcement Officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who makes up the contact team in an active threat response?

A

Police officer(s) whose primary mission is to stop the active threat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who makes up the rescue team in an active threat response?

A

A group of fire and police personnel assigned to enter areas cleared by the Contact Team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the inner perimeter in an active threat response?

A

Encompasses the danger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the outer perimeter defined as in an active threat response?

A

encompasses the danger zone and staging areas for first responders and protects the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a safe reception center used to provide info and assistance about missing or unaccounted for persons and the deceased in an active threat response?

A

Family Assistance Center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Active threat response OKCFD will monitor what channel?

A

OCPD Dispatch channel 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the OKCFD response to an “active assailant”?

A

2 Engines
1 RL
Hazmat 5
District Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who assumes the role of staging manager on an active threat response?

A

The first Fire Company officer at staging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who organizes and maintains a list of incoming Fire Police Ambulance resources on an active threat response?

A

The staging manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Active threat: The first arriving law enforcement teams will establish contact teams of how many people?

A

2-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The initial Contact Team will designate a radio officer to communicate what?

A

Entry point, direction of travel, suspect info, location of injured victims, and location of barricades or explosives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rescue teams will consist of a minimum of how many FF’s?

A

minimum 2 preferably 4 and a minimum one police officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rescue teams will evacuate casualties to where?

A

Casualty Collection Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who staffs and manages the primary CCP?

A

The EMS transport agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Rehab Officer will typically report to whom in the framework of IMS?

A

Logistics Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What will mark the entry/exit of rehab?

A

two traffic cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rehab should be divided into how many areas?

A

Immediate Rehab
Staged and Ready
Medical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What three things should occur before a FF returns to duty from rehab?

A

Medical Eval
Hydration for 10 minutes
Cleared by Rehab Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is required of the medical kit in rehab?

A

Trauma kit, O2, defic, Rad-57 or defib with CO monitoring capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Employees will hydrate how much when SCBA’s are being refilled?

A

8 oz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During heat stress, each employee should consume at least ___oz per hour.

A

32 oz per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

American Red Cross assists when incidents last longer than ___ hours.

A

Three or more hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rehab rest should not be less than ____ and may be more than ____.

A

10 minutes

an hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rehab pulse should be measured for ___ seconds.

Pulse shouldn’t exceed ____. If it does a temp should be taken, if it is less than ___ rehab time should be increased.

A

30 seconds
110 bpm
100.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vitals in rehab will be taken every ____

A

5-10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In rehab if an employee’s SpO2% is less than ___ they should be moved to medical.

A

94%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If SpCO% is greater than ___, treat for CO Poisoning.

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who approves ATMR event coverage?

A

Deputy Chief of Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ATMR post-deployment will remove what?

A

Pannier bags, top rack bag, and AED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ordering of EMS supplies will be completed by the Blue Shift on what day?

A

Last Blue shift of the month by 1200. Submitted via EMS inventory database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Expired EMS supplies will be delivered to ____ how often?

A

District Officers stations
quarterly: March, June, September, and November
Ms.NJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long are the plastic sleeve caps on O2 cylinders?

A

Green and three inches long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

O2 cylinders should be hydrostatically tested how often/

A

Every Five years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

To schedule CPR training, contact a Coordinator or EMS office ___ days in advance.

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Students in CPR must complete the written test with a score of ____

A

84%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Only a ___ or ____ can renew an instructor’s status.

A

TCF or RF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

BLS instructors must teach a minimum of ___ clasess in ____ years

A

4 classes in 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BLS instructors must complete all course roster forms within ___ days of class instructed.

A

7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A copy of rosters and course completion cards will be kept on record by EMS Office for ___ years.

A

three years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

District CPR Coordinator should be notified of card expiration date no later than ___ days

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Shift coordinators and District CPR coordinators will review CPR expiration reports how often?

A

monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Corrective Action by Training Center Coordinators for Instructors includes:

A
  1. Remediation
  2. Written Warning
  3. Termination Review (No action, 6 mos probation, Revoke alignment for a year, Permanent termination)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Citizen CPR training should be requested ___ days in advance.

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

EMT’s and Paramedics licensed after ____ will maintain both state and national registry licensure.

A

April 1, 2010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Flashing blue light on the carefusion clippers means?

A

5 minutes of runtime remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many wrapped razor heads per clipper?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Initial credentialing of OMD academy requires a score of ____

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Personnel absent from work for greater than ___ days but less than ____ will be required to complete a protocol exam and complete ___ supervised shifts with a preceptor.

A

90 days
180 days
4 supervised shifts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Annual training is determined and established by whom?

A

Fire Department Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CO Monitors will be calibrated on what day?

A

The second day of the month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Low pressure natural gas is approximately how much pressure?

A

5.3 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A medium pressure gas line ranges from ___ to ___.

A

1 - 60 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ONG surveys include:

A

Bar-hole
Flame-Ionization Equipment
Soapsuds
Vegetation and pressure drop observations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Breathing concentrations of ___% natural gas causes no ill effects.

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Natural gas is only about ___% as heavy as air.

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Odorant in natural gas is noticeable at ___% present in volume of air.

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The limits of flammability for natural gas is ___ to ___

A

5-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Burning natural gas produces what type of heat?

A

radiant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The ignition point of natural gas is ___

A

1,100 - 1,200 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hazmat incident priorities are ___ ____ ___

A

Life
Property
Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

OKC Emergency Management assumes a ____ role in ICS on a Hazmat scene.

A

Logistics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hazmat: Scene Management Icludes:

A
  1. Coordinating a multi-agency response
  2. Implementing proper actions
  3. Ensuring that appropriate resources are timely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Setting Zones for Hazmat:
Solid
Liquid
Gas

A

Solid 75’
Liquid 150’
Gas 330’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

For any unknown, isolate how far?

A

330’

1/2 mile if product is involved in fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Isolating the hazard consists of :

A

Diking
Digging
Damming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The Cold Zone contains:

A

Support Zone
Staging
IC
EMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which zone has the contamination reduction corridor (Decon)?

A

Warm Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Hazmat: The First In Companies establish what?

A

Control Zone/Line
Basic Decon
Area of Refuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Hazmat Monitoring helps evaluate and or detect proper what?

A

Zones
PPE
Discover IDLH conditions
Insure site safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Eight areas monitored by Hazmat Unit.

A
  1. Background
  2. Command Post
  3. Contamination Reduction Corridor
  4. Area of Refuge
  5. Exposures
  6. Hot Zone
  7. Exclusion Zone
  8. Downwind/Perimeter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When must an EMS Hazmat Worksheet be completed?

A

Before entry and after leaving Hot and Warm zones, completed by EMS personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Personnel in chem suits are expected to work no longer than ___ minutes.

A

20 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Personnel not allowed to wear semi-permeable or impermeable clothing if oral temp is greater than ___.

A

100.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The average distance between IC and the hazmat unit is ____ feet.

A

100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

____ is a great area for the command post.

A

The Access Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hazmat response of an Engine and District Chief if the release is less than ___ gallons of liquid or ____ pounds of solid.

A

10 gallons liquid
20 lbs solid

No Chief if less than 10 gallons of motor fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Small private airplanes can carry up to ___ gallons of fuel.

A

119

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Techniques of decon :

A

Dilution
Absorption
Chemical Degradation
Isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Basic/Emergency Decon consists of ____.

A

60 second flush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where are contaminated personnel assembled?

A

Area of Refuge following Basic Decon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Decontamination Checklist:

A
  1. Est an entry point
  2. Primary Decon
  3. SCBA Removal
  4. PPE Removal
  5. Personal Clothing Removal
  6. Decon the Body
  7. Dry Off and Clean Clothing
  8. Medical Eval
  9. Transportation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The contamination reduction zone is how long?

A

80’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Personnel will be trained in First Responder Awareness and Operations level training within how many days?

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Awareness level training is ___ hours.

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Operations level training is ___ hours.

A

40 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Confined Space meets what three requirements:

A
  1. Large enough that an employee can enter and perform duties.
  2. Limited means for entry/exit as needing to use all you limbs to enter the confined space.
  3. Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Hazards in a confined space are divided into two groups:

A
  1. atmospheric

2. non-atmospheric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

OSHA identified ___ hazards as the leading cause of deaths/injuries in confined spaces.

A

atmospheric hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Confined Space: If a hazardous material is involved follow _____.

A

O/SPO - 206

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the five phases of rescue operations at collapse incidents?

A
  1. Survey (evaluate stability, search for possible victims)
  2. Removal of all surface victims
  3. All voids searched for viable victims (audible call out/canine)
  4. Selected debris removal (special tools)
  5. General debris removal (No known survivors, heavy tools)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

One cubic foot of dirt weighs ___

One cubic yard of dirt weighs ___

A

100 lbs

2,700-3,500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Trench rescue: position all rigs at least ___ ft away
staging ___ ft away
Outer circle scene survey ____ ft around the scene
Inner circle survey ____ ft around the trench

A

150’
100’
100’
50’

98
Q

Walk boards that may be used at a trench:

A

2x10

3/4” plywood

99
Q

How big of a zone should be established if flammable liquids are leaking from a highway cargo tank?

A

150’ zone

100
Q

Who completes the site safety and health plan on a hazmat scene?

A

The Hazmat Branch Director/Group Supervisor

101
Q

The Special Operations Officer establishes, standardizes, specifies, and coordinates:

A 
Training
Equipment 
Operation Procedures
Preplanning Procedures
Vehicles
(Acronym - POET Vehicles)
102
Q

What is the prime responsibility of the Hazmat Safety Officer?

A

Safety of the Entry Team entering the Hot Zone/Exclusion Zone.

103
Q

Who recommends PPE on Hazmat Scene?

A

Science Officer

104
Q

Whose documentation will be used to fill out Exposure Reports on Hazmat scenes?

A

Entry/Exit Monitor

105
Q

Hazmat Medical Group/Team members will be found where?

A

Dressing Area

Rehabilitation Area

106
Q

What six items are furnished to the examining physician on hazmat scene personnel?

A
  1. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120
  2. Employees Duties
  3. Exposure Levels
  4. PPE
  5. Previous Medical Exams
  6. Chp 5 of Occupational and Safety Health Guidance Manual for Hazardous Waste Site Activities
107
Q

Hazmat records are to be kept on file how long?

A

30 years after retirement

108
Q

Drivers licenses will be checked how often?

A

semi-annually

109
Q

What is used to request office supplies needed between quarters?

A

pink memo to deputy chief of ops

110
Q

What concept allows for more direct contact between the fire station personnel and the public?

A

fire district management concept

111
Q

Building survey consists of how many pages?

A
  1. Quick CAD drawing
  2. Word Document (Building Type, Size, Hazards, Sprinkler, Special Considerations, Emergency Contact)
  3. More detailed drawing
112
Q

When is hose inventoried?

A

First Monday JAJO

113
Q

What are handlines lubricated with?

Supply lines?

A

graphite on the couplings

lubricated on the rubber gasket

114
Q

All hose is tested when?

A

annually in September

115
Q

The Company Officer conducts a rig inventory when?

A

The first day of each month.

116
Q

How does a company officer request heavy equipment?

A

District Officer is dispatched to the scene and if approves, will contact OKCFD Emergency Management. The DO will then contact the Deputy Chief of Ops.

117
Q

Who does the district officer notify if a stations power is out for more than 30 seconds?

A

Dep Chief of Ops

Facilities Coordinator

118
Q

Who does the district officer notify if a stations power is out greater than 4 hours?

A

Emergency Management Liaison for a portable generator.

Facilities Coordinator to notify of use of portable generator.

119
Q

The contents of a high rise fire generate ___ the BTU’s from which current codes were derived.

A

2 1/2 x the BTU’s

120
Q

High Rise: capable of flashover in ____ minutes

Typical response time of ____ minutes

A

10

20

121
Q

High Rise: What size nozzle is on a high rise pack?

A

1 1/8” nozzle

122
Q

High Rise:Who sets up Lobby Control?

A

4th Engine

123
Q

High Rise:Who establishes the back up line?

A

5th Engine

124
Q

High Rise:Where is staging on a high rise?

A

3 Floors below the fire

125
Q

High Rise:Who acts as the Fire-Attack Stairwell Search Team?

A

3rd Ladder

126
Q

High Rise:Who acts as the Evac Stairwell Search Team?

A

4th Ladder

127
Q

High Rise:Who coordinates primary search of the fire floor with Fire Floor Division Officer?

A

2nd Ladder

128
Q

High Rise:Who provides salvage covers for diking across elevator hoistway doors?

A

2nd Ladder

129
Q

High Rise:Who initiates primary search on the floor above the fire floor?

A

Rescue 8

130
Q

High Rise:Span of Control - Ops contains:

A

Fire Floor Division
USE
RIT
Staging

131
Q

High Rise:Span of Control - Logistics contains:

A

Lobby Control
Stairwell Support
Base Officer

132
Q

High Rise:Span of Control - Planning

A

Sit Stat/ReStat
VCS
Technical Specialist

133
Q

High Rise:The Operations post is est by the Ops Chief where?

A

Two floors below fire floor

134
Q

High Rise:Where is the initial Search and Rescue Post located?

A

Two floors below fire floor away from Ops Post; relocates to a floor above the fire once feasible.

135
Q

High Rise:Base should be est how far away?

A

minimum 200’

136
Q

High Rise: Who confers with Lobby Control and tracks resources committed to the operation inside the building?

A

SitStat/ReStat Unit

137
Q

High Rise: What is the code enforcement specialty?

A

Water Supply Specialist

138
Q

High Rise:Typical FD centrifugal pumps operate at their highest GPM flow at ___psi

A

150 psi

139
Q

High Rise:What is next to search after having searched the floor directly above the fire floor?

A

The floor below the fire floor.

140
Q

High Rise:What does a blinking fire hat in an elevator mean?

A

FAID as been activated, exit immediately.

141
Q

High Rise:What % of personnel will succumb to fatigue, injury, or serious medical problem during their first assignment?

A

20%

142
Q

High Rise Alarm is equivalent to a ___ alarm.

A

5th alarm

143
Q

High Rise:What is the “Ready Reserve” Crew?

A

one floor below the “On Deck” crew

third in the rotation on the three crew relief method

144
Q

What are the two types of elevators?

A

Electric/traction

Mechanical/hydraulic

145
Q

Maximum height of a hydraulic elevator.

A

6-7 floors

146
Q

What types of braking systems are on each type of elevator?

A

electric - automatic mechanical machine break

hydraulic - doesn’t have a break

147
Q

Large elevator weight

Small elevator weight

A

5,000 lbs

3,500 lbs

148
Q

“On” position of Phase 1 lobby key switch does what?

A

Returns all elevators

149
Q

“Bypass” position on Phase 1 lobby key switch does what?

A

Shunts out the sensing device circuit when heat or smoke initiated the return of the elevators

150
Q

There is an identical three position key switch on the operation panel inside each elevator that travels more than ____ feet.

A

70 feet

151
Q

The span for a side emergency elevator exit cannot exceed ___ distance.

A

30 inches

152
Q

If an evacuation bridge isn’t available, use a ____.

A

6 foot plank

153
Q

What are the two types of manual elevator controls?

A

Independent Service

Fire Service

154
Q

Which elevator service mode requires a FF present at all times?

A

Independent service mode.

155
Q

What is used to put out a fire in an elevator machine room?

A

Class C Extinguisher

156
Q

Elevator Counterweight equals what?

A

weight of car plus 40% of cars carrying capacity

157
Q

Drum Type Elevators seldom exceed ___ feet.

A

150 feet

158
Q

_______ are gearless machines who have slow speed motors on a shaft mounted on a traction sheave grooved for hoisting cables; generally used in units moving at more than 400 feet per minute.

A

Electric Traction Elevator

159
Q

Mechanical device used to limit the car speed; generally the fly ball type.

A

Governor

160
Q

Brake type shoes used instead or rollers or wheels; operate as roller guides.

A

Guide Shoes

161
Q

What is the location of the hoistway switch?

A

72” above and 12” to the side

162
Q

Not used for lifts over 65’ or speeds over 200 fpm.

A

Hydraulic Elevator

163
Q

Elevator Landing Zone has a space of ____.

A

18-30 inches up or down

164
Q

Oil pressure type brake on older elevators.

A

Oil Pot

165
Q

Elevator safeties are usually activated when car speed exceeds ____% of their rated speeds.

A

15-20%

166
Q

Elevator side emergency exits are found when hoistway doors are ___ apart; must be at least ____ high and ____ wide.

A

30” apart
60” high
14” wide

167
Q

Top emergency exit size.

A

20” x 20”

168
Q

Cars traveling over ___ floors must be in a vented hoistway.

A

3 floors; cars with doors must be vented top and bottom, all ventilation must be mechanical.

169
Q

What color is :
Safety Banner Guard
Hazmat Banner Guard
Crowd Control Banner Guard

A

Safety - White
Hazmat - Orange
Crowd Control - Yellow

170
Q

For specific tactics and methods used to control wild land fire refer to _____.

A

IFSTA manual “Fundamentals of Wild Land Firefighting”

171
Q

Who decides during grass fire season if we will provde a task force response?

A

Deputy Chief of Operations

172
Q

What are the dimensions and flow of a whip line?

A

1” whip line with 1/2” nozzle can flow up to 80gpm

173
Q

Tankers are equipped with turrets that flow _____.

A

120-300 gpm

174
Q

What is the minimum amount of brush pumpers required on a 1st alarm on medium or large grass fires?

A

Three brush pumpers

175
Q

What are the important factors to be considered for successful tanker operations?

A

Shuttle Turn Time

Shuttle GPM Flow

176
Q

Fold-a-tanks will at least need to be connected with ____ to siphon.

A

2 - 5” hard suction hoses to siphon

177
Q

When nurse feeding, if the fire will require more than ____ gallons, the engine will most likely run out of water.

A

3,000 gallons

178
Q

Relay pumping from a draft, the tanker will drop what equipment and for whom?

A

Tank with hard suction hose, jet siphon, 1 section of 3” hosed and 1 section of 1 3/4” hose.
The equipment is for the second arriving engine company to draft with.

179
Q

Notify ____ is water level falls to ____ when drafting.

A

Water Supply Officer

Half

180
Q

What percentages of Class A foam are used to:

  1. Penetrate
  2. Fire Attack
  3. Pretreat a structure
A
  1. .3%
  2. .5%
  3. 1%
181
Q

When building a fire line with Class A foam, it needs to be ____ times the height of the the flames.

A

1.5 x height of flames

182
Q

Brush Pumpers carry how much water?

A

300 gallons

183
Q

Portable Tanks hold how much water?

A

2,500 gallons

184
Q

Tankers have at least ____ gallons of water.

OKCFD tankers have _____.

A

1,000 gallons

2,500 - 3,000 gallons

185
Q

Grass Fire Task Force consists of what?

A

One Engine and Two BP

186
Q

Recommended guidelines for a safe work zone of a traffic incident.

A 
25mph - 55'
35mph - 120
45mph - 220'
55mph - 335'
65mph - 485'
187
Q

When a mayday is transmitted, the IC will do what?

A
  1. Acknowledge the Mayday
  2. Activate RIT
  3. Start another alarm and amabulance
  4. Request an additional TAC channel
  5. Gather info for RIT team (LUNAR)
  6. Assign a RIT Ops
  7. Call for a PAR
188
Q

When is a PAR called?

A
  1. Mayday
  2. Conditions change
  3. Operations mode change
  4. Deemed necessary by IC
189
Q

Dimensions of a Company Board:

A

3” x 6”

190
Q

Company Board Name Tag Dimension:

A

.75” x 2.5”

191
Q

Chiefs cars will contain how many extra name tags?

extra company boards?

A

20 name tags

5 company boards

192
Q

Helicopter landing zone is how large?

A

100’ x 100’

193
Q

What does TOWW stand for in helicopter procedures?

A

Terrain
Obstacles
Wind
Wires

194
Q

What is the maximum slope in helicopter procedures?

A

5 degree

195
Q

Helicopter LZ can be illuminated with lights in what direction?

A

Into the wind

196
Q

There should be no obstructions how far from LZ?

A

100-150 feet up and downwind

197
Q

If possible, land the helicopter how far away from scene?

A

No more than 50 yards

198
Q

No smoking or running within how many feet of the helicopter?

A

50’

199
Q

Civilians must be kept how far back from helicopter?

A

150’

200
Q

During any ___ alarm or greater, the command post will be dispatched.

A

4th alarm or greater

201
Q

The Mobile Command Center should be utilized when?

A

If an incident will extend beyond the first operational period.

202
Q

Low voltage installations, less than ____ Volts exist in practically every building a FF enters.

A

600v

203
Q

How is fire flow calculated?

A

[(L x W) / 3 ] x & involvement

204
Q

At what stage of a fire does rollover occur?

A

Growth stage

205
Q

The rate at which energy is generated by the burning of a fuel and oxygen mixture

A

Heat release rate

206
Q

____ is also known as thermal decomposition

A

Pyrolysis

207
Q

What poisonous gases are found in smoke from a house fire?

A

Carbon Monoxide
Hydrogen Cyanide
Phosgene

208
Q

What are the coolant specifications on the Almand Light Tower Generator?

A

40% mix of antifreeze with water

Maintained 1/2” from top of radiator

209
Q

Almand Light Tower Generator takes what type of oil?

Changed how often?

A

Crankcase oil should be 15w-40

Changed after 100 hours for the first time and then at 250 hour intervals or annually.

210
Q

Almand Light Tower Generator testing consists of what?

A

Weekly: inspected and ran for one hour
Monthly: turn on the lights

211
Q

Almand Light Tower Generator holds how many gallons and runs for how long?

A

50 gallons

48 hours

212
Q

Almand Light Tower Generator: where is the generator plug and how big?

A

50 Amp on the rear panel

213
Q

NIMS:Studies have shown that response problems were far more likely to result from ____ than any other reason.

A

inadequate management

214
Q

NIMS: What flexibility does the ICS need?

A

Interdisciplinary and Organizational

215
Q

NIMS: ICS consists of procedures for controlling what?

A

Personnel
Facilities
Equipment
Communications

216
Q

NIMS: ____ is an approach used to communicate functional actions throughout the entire ICS organization.

A

Management by objectives

217
Q

NIMS: The incident action planning process includes what?

A
  1. Understand OKCFD policy and direction
  2. Assess incident situation
  3. Est incident objectives
  4. Select appropriate strategies
  5. Perform tactical direction
  6. Provide follow-up
218
Q

NIMS: _____ include measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an Operational Period.

A

IAP’s

219
Q

NIMS: What are the four elements at the simplest level of an IAP?

A
  1. What do we want to do
  2. Who is responsible for doing it
  3. How do we communicated
  4. What is the procedure if someone is injured
220
Q

NIMS: What are the names and functions of the principal ICS facilities?

A
  1. ICP -
  2. Staging - Temporary locations where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments. Resources in staging are in “available? status
  3. Base - Primary Logistics and Administrative functions. Resources in the Base are OOS.
  4. Camp - Where resources are kept if a Base is unavailable.
  5. Helibase - Helicopter centered air ops
  6. Helispot - Temporary land/take off locations
221
Q

NIMS: ICS resources can be factored into what two categories?

A

Tactical - available to Ops

Support - Food, Comm, Tents, etc…

222
Q

NIMS: Tactical resources are always classified as one of the three things:

A
  1. Assigned
  2. Available
  3. OOS
223
Q

NIMS: Resource Management icludes:

A 
Categorizing
Ordering
Dispatching
Tracking
Recovering
Reimbursement
224
Q

NIMS: Effective ICS communication includes what three things?

A

Modes: Hardware
Planning: Plan for use of all available comm resources
Networks: Procedures and processes for transferring information internally and externally.

225
Q

NIMS: ______ must be used when receiving or giving works assignments, requesting support, or reporting progress.

A

Formal communication

226
Q

NIMS: ______ is used to exchange incident or event information only.

A

Informal communication

227
Q

NIMS: ___ is how you value your job.

A

Duty

228
Q

NIMS: What are the three portions of briefing elements?

A
  1. Task
  2. Purpose
  3. End-State
229
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Incident Command?

A

Incident Commander

Deputy

230
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Command Staff

A

Officer

Assistant

231
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of General Staff (Section)

A

Chief

Deputy

232
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Branch

A

Director

Deputy

233
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Division/Group

A

Supervisor

N/A

234
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Unit

A

Leader

Manager

235
Q

NIMS: What are the Title and Support Position of Strike Team/Task Force

A

Leader

Single Resource Boss

236
Q

NIMS: ____ is defined as an agency or organization providing personnel, services, or other resources to the agency with direct responsibility for incident management.

A

Assisting Agency

237
Q

NIMS: ____ is an agency supplying assistance other than direct operation or support functions or resources to the incident management effort.

A

Cooperating Agency

238
Q

NIMS: Staging reports to ___ and is on a ____ minute available basis.

A

Operations

three minute

239
Q

NIMS: ____ can help identify resource requirements and determine if the existing management structure is appropriate.

A

Complexity Analysis

240
Q

Equipment, video tapes, and training materials should not be loaned out more than ___ days.

A

Three days.

241
Q

What is the age limit in the weight room?

A

No persons under 14.

2016 SOP (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions