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hammer34 Flashcards

1
Q

How does metronidazole cause flushing?

A

Blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase and leads to buildup of acetaldehyde causing a disulfiram reaction.

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2
Q

When is the recommended screening for breast cancer?

A

> 40 anually or biannually

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3
Q

When is the recommended lipid panel screening?

A

20-45 if CAD risk factors are present or >45 if CAD risk factors are present

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4
Q

What is acute promyelocytic leukemia associated with?

A

DIC with elevated D-dimer

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5
Q

What is the presentation of autoimmune hepatitis type 1?

A

Anti smooth muscle antibodies. Most common type of the disease. It can occur at any age. About half the people with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis have other autoimmune disorders, such as celiac disease, rheumatoid arthritis or ulcerative colitis.

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6
Q

What is the presentation of autoimmune hepatitis type 2?

A

Anti liver/kidney microsomes. Most common in children and young people.

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7
Q

What is the treatment for unstable vs stable torsade de pointes?

A

FOr stable - Magnesium sulfate IV, for unstable, unsynchronized cardioversion

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8
Q

What are fundoscopic findings in MS?

A

1/3 Papillitis and 2/3 normal

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9
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for UC?

A

Topical mesalamine (5ASA) if not, topical /oral corticosteroids, oral azithioprine, IV corticosteroids and TNF inhibitors

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10
Q

What is management for pregnant woman who was in a car accident but with normal signs nad normal fetal HR?

A

Have to do electronic fetal monitoring

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11
Q

What is the treatment for acute cocaine induced chest pain?

A

IV nitroglycerin aspirin and IV benzodiazepines such as diazepam,

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12
Q

Which complements are associated with recurrent gonorrhea infection? SLE? Recurrent encapsulated bacteria infections?

A

C5 - C9 (MAC).
SLE - C1q
C2 or C3

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13
Q

What steps have to be taken for pregnant patients with mitral stenosis during the second stage of labor?

A

Use forcep or vaccum assisted delivery to prevent excessive maternal valsalva and tachycardia

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14
Q

Why is buproprion contraindicated in anorexia nervosa?

A

Decreases seizure threshold

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15
Q

What is the best way to screen for scoliosis?

A

Forward bending or Adams test

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16
Q

Lab values in gallstone pancreatitis?

A

Elevated ALT, acute pancreatitis, elevated lipase

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17
Q

Which vessel is occluded when pure motor or pure sensory defect is present?

A

Posterior limb of internal capsule 2/2 lacunar infarct

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18
Q

What are the findings in vitamin D resistant rickets?

A

Rickets, low phosphate, slow growth, normal Ca, elevated PTH, vitamin D and alk phos

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19
Q

What is DLCO in emphysema vs chronic bronchitis?

A

Emphysema has low DLCO and chronic bronchitis has normal DLCO

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20
Q

What structure is compressed in Cushing’s triad?

A

Brainstem

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21
Q

What is the presentation of neonatal listeriosis?

A

Neonatal amnionitis, Granuloma with central necrosis, mothers have flu like symptoms. Gram positive bacilli

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22
Q

What is the treatment for pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine to block alpha receptors and beta blockers in that order.

23
Q

What is the most specific test for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Secretin stimulation test will show no bicarb rich pancreatic fluid

24
Q

What is RTA Type 2 associated with?

A

Lytic bone lesions such as from multiple myeloma and carbonic acid anhydrase inhibitor (acetazolamide) use

25
Q

What is the presentation of Dubin Johnson? What are T-bili and conjugated bili levels?

A

Jaundice with infections, pregnancy and birth control pills. Associated with defect in secretion of conjugated bilirubin into bile. Total bili is 2 -5 with half being conjugated.

26
Q

At what levels of fetal scalp pH is repeating indicated and immediate delivery indicated?

A

7.2 - 7.25 repeating indicated in 15-30 mins

< 7.2 - immediate delivery indicated

27
Q

What is the most likely outcome of periventricular necrosis 2/2 bleeding of choroid plexus?

A

Spastic di/quadri plegia

28
Q

What is the MRI findings of MS? What is transverse myelitis?

A

Periventricular hyperintensity in T2 weighted images. Total loss of power and reflex below the level of the lesion

29
Q

What is the treatment for PSGN? What are the EM findings?

A

Supportive treatment. Subepithelial humps.

30
Q

What are sideeffects of prochloroperazine and treamtnet?

A

Extrapyramidal effects caused by this anti emetic med. Parkinson meds such as Benztropine

31
Q

What is the presentation of brain stem gliomas?

A

Neck stiffness proceeding to torticollis

32
Q

What is the presentation of Yersinia entercolitis?

A

RLQ pain plus diarrhea

33
Q

What is the difference in managemenet between mentus anterior vs posterior in normal pregnant contraction patient?

A

Mentus posterior needs c section while anterior can have regular vaginal delivery.

34
Q

What is the interpretation of the booster effect in TB?

A

Happens in people who have had prior TB infections so that when PPD is repeated, the induration gets larger and the second PPD is the true result.

35
Q

What is needed to see oocysts in cryptosporidum diarrhea?

A

Acid fast stain. Bx shows spores on the tips of the infected villi.

36
Q

What is the rate of vertical transmissionin untreated mothers, antiretroviral therapy alone, or antiretroviral therapy plus scheduled c-section?

A

25%, 8 %, 2 %

37
Q

What is the most common complication of mumps in prepubertal children?

A

Meningioencephalomyelitis

38
Q

What vessels cause hemorrhage in diverticulosis?

A

Single arteriole weakened by outpouchings of colon

39
Q

What nerve is damaged if there is decreased sensation of lower chin and jaw?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve (branch of third trigeminal nerve) that passes through the mandibular foramen

40
Q

What are common causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

DM, Lupus, Hepatitis, toxins, amyloidosis

41
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Kallman syndrome?

A

Congenital gonadotropin releasing hormone deficiency

42
Q

When is immediate cholecystectomy required vs cholecystectomy in 24-48 hours?

A

IF fever is progressive fever, intractable pain, perforation, suspected gangrene or perforation

43
Q

What are Right side EKG findings in R sided infarcts

A

ST elevation in V4 so give IV fluids

44
Q

What is the major cause of morbidity and death in PV?

A

Acute thrombosis

45
Q

Describe pyogenic granuloma

A

Rapidly enlarging, red, vascular papule with collarette of scale that is benign and bleeds easily

46
Q

What is the age to screen for diabetes?

A

> 45

47
Q

How do NSAIDS induce bronchospasm?

A

Increasing the production of leukotrienes and blocking prostaglandin and prostacyclin production by inhibiting cyclooxygenase

48
Q

What is the most common valvular disease?

A

MVP

49
Q

What is the treatment of infantile spasms 2/2 Tuberous sclerosis?

A

ACTH

50
Q

What are the hematologic parameters in Glanzman thrombasthenia?Bernard Soulier?

A

Increased bleeding time. Normal response to risoctecin but decreased response to ADP and epinephrine. Opposite of GT

51
Q

What tests should you do in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hepatitis

52
Q

What is the difference in Na levels in DI vs psychogenic polydipsia/

A

Na is high in DI and low in psychogenic polydipsia.

53
Q

Which antibody presence is helpful in Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Positive ANA

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