Révision finale, ccna2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

  • The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
  • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
  • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
  • Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
  • Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
A
  • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

- Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. *

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2
Q

Fill in the blank.

In IPv6, all routes are level ___ ultimate routes.

A

1

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3
Q

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
borderless switching

A

store-and-forward switching *

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4
Q

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0

A

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

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5
Q

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

A

native VLAN ID *

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6
Q

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

A

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

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7
Q

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

A

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

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8
Q

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

A

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*

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9
Q

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

A

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*

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10
Q
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type
destination UDP port number 
destination MAC address
A

ICMP message type*

destination UDP port number *

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11
Q

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

A

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*

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12
Q

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

A

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

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13
Q

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

speed of convergence
scalability
ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
A

speed of convergence*

scalability*

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14
Q

What caused the following error message to appear?

01: 11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01: 11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01: 11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01: 11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

A

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

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15
Q

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

A

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

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16
Q

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na
permit ip any any
deny ip any any

A

permit icmp any any nd-na

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17
Q

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

A

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

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18
Q

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch(config)# no vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

A

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

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19
Q

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

A

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

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20
Q

What is a function of the distribution layer?

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity

A

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

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21
Q

A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

static NAT
dynamic NAT
port address translation
DHCP

A

dynamic NAT*

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22
Q

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The link interface subnet masks must match.
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

A

The link interface subnet masks must match.

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

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23
Q

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the cost of that link
the type of network link
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
A

the cost of that link*
the type of network link*
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

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24
Q

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.

A

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

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25
Q

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

A

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*

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26
Q

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

A

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1

Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*

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27
Q

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.

A

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*

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28
Q

When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration
A

create a public and private key pair*

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29
Q

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the destination MAC address and the incoming port

A

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

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30
Q

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

A

The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.*

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31
Q

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

A

A cable has not been attached to the port.*

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32
Q

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 100 and 199
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
default gateway address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask

A

access list number between 100 and 199*

source address and wildcard mask*

destination address and wildcard mask*

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33
Q

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

  1. 0.0.127
  2. 0.0.255
  3. 0.1.255
  4. 0.255.255
A

0.0.1.255*

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34
Q

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

A

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message*

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35
Q

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They request more information about their databases.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs

A

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs*

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36
Q

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

A

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

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37
Q

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced

A

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*

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38
Q

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip helper-address
ip address dhcp
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp

A

ip address dhcp*

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39
Q

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols

A

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*

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40
Q

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

A

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

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41
Q

Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
show ip route
show running-config
A

show access-lists*

show running-config*

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42
Q

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

IPsec
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
A

IPsec*

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43
Q

Fill in the blank.

Static routes are configured by the use of the _____ global configuration command.

A

ip route

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44
Q

A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses

A

sticky secure MAC addresses*

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45
Q

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

access – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable

access – trunk

dynamic desirable – trunk

A

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

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46
Q

Fill in the blank.

The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ______ packet

A

__hello___

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47
Q

Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance

A

administrative distance*

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48
Q

Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?
flash

NVRAM

RAM

ROM

A

RAM*

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49
Q

Fill in the blank.

The default administrative distance for a static route is

A

1

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50
Q

Fill in the blank.

Static routes are configured by the use of the global configuration command :

A

ip route

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51
Q

Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.

Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

A

Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.*

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52
Q

What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

A

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

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53
Q

The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

-ip access-group 5 out

-access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

  • access-list 5 deny any
  • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
  • ip access-group 5 in
  • access-class 5 in
A
  • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

- access-class 5 in*

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54
Q

While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

A

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

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55
Q

Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

A

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

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56
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.

A

Change the administrative distance to 120.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

A

SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.*

58
Q

Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

A

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

59
Q

What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.

A

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

60
Q

Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
to determine which ports are functioning
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

A

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

61
Q

A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
permit ipv6 any any
deny ipv6 any any
ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
ip access-group NoWeb in

A

deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80*

permit ipv6 any any*

62
Q

An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

A

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0*

63
Q

ipv6 route 2001:0DB8::/32 2001:0DB8:3000::1

 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
fully specified static route
recursive static route
directly attached static route
floating static route
A

recursive static route*

64
Q

Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 255.0.0
  3. 255.255.0
  4. 255.255.224
A

255.255.255.0*

65
Q

Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 128.107.52.27?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 255.0.0
  3. 255.255.0
  4. 255.255.224
A

255.255.0.0*

66
Q

The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

A

RAM*

67
Q

A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

A

protect*

68
Q

A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?

access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

A

access-group 11 in*

69
Q

A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80

permit ipv6 any any

deny ipv6 any any

ip access-group WebFilter in

ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

A

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80*

deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80*

deny ipv6 any any*

70
Q

To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

  1. 168.5.64
  2. 168.5.0
  3. 168.0.0

No address is displayed.

A

192.168.5.0*

71
Q

A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Metric
Colour
Meter
Bread

A

Metric*

72
Q

What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address
Protocol
A

To have only a link-local IPv6 address*

73
Q

Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

A

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.*

Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.*

74
Q

Fill in the blank.
The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

A

__VoIP__

75
Q

Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

A

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*

76
Q
Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?
S1(config-if)# mdix auto
S1# auto-mdix
S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto
S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix
A

S1(config-if)# mdix auto*

77
Q

What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.
All of above
Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

A

It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.*

78
Q

A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

A

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*

79
Q

Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
Configure SSH for remote management.
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

A

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*

Configure SSH for remote management.*

80
Q

Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a collapsed core network design

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

A

a collapsed core network design*

81
Q

A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

routing protocol

outgoing interface

metric

administrative distance

A

administrative distance*

82
Q

Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

administrative distance

metric

outgoing interface

routing protocol

A

administrative distance*

83
Q

The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

  1. 0.0.31
  2. 0.0.255
  3. 0.0.127
  4. 0.0.63
A

0.0.0.127*

84
Q

Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

FF02::5

FF02::6

FF02::A

2001:db8:cafe::1

FF02::1:2

FE80::1

A

FF02::5*

FF02::6*

FE80::1*

85
Q

1
A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

routers that exchange LSAs

routers that reside in the same area

routers that are reachable over a TCP session

A

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

86
Q

Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a collapsed core network design

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer

a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

A

a collapsed core network design

87
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10

A

L’adresse MAC du dernier routeur croisé ainsi que l’adresse source du périphérique intial

88
Q

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

A

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP

89
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

The name of the NAT pool is refCount.

Two types of NAT are enabled.

One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

Address translation is working.

Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.

A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.

A

One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

Address translation is working.

Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.

90
Q

Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

switchport port-security violation shutdown

switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security mac-address sticky mac-address

shutdown

ip dhcp snooping

A

shutdown

91
Q

A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

an ACL to identify the local IPv4 address of the web server

the keyword overload for the ip nat inside source command

an IPv4 address pool

A

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

92
Q

Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

default static route
standard static route
summary static route
floating static route

A

floating static route*

93
Q

What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

LSU, LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSR
Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck
LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSU, LSR
Hello, LSAck, LSU, LSR, DBD

A

Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck

94
Q

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.​

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.​

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.

A

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.*

95
Q

A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

a standard or extended ACL
only a named ACL
only an extended ACL
an extended, named, or numbered ACL
only a standard ACL
A

only a named ACL

96
Q

What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable​
fewer router resource overhead requirements
easier to implement
more secure in controlling routing updates

A

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable​

97
Q

How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?

16
4
2
8

A

8

98
Q

Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

fast-forward
fragment-free
store-and-forward
integrity-checking

A

store-and-forward

99
Q

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

A

It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

100
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​
The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.
The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.
The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​

A

The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.*

101
Q

Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions
a collapsed core network design
a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer

A

a collapsed core network design

102
Q

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

A

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface

103
Q

Refer to the exhibit. In the routing table entry, what is the administrative distance?

120
12
2
24

A

120

104
Q

What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that share the same router ID
routers whose SPF trees are identical
routers that share the same process ID
routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs

A

routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs*

105
Q

Which command will create a static default route on R1 to send all traffic to the Internet and use serial 0/0 as the exit interface?

R1(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 serial 0/0
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

A

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0*

106
Q

What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of collision domains is reduced.
The size of the broadcast domain is increased.
The number of broadcast domains is increased.
The size of the collision domain is increased.

A

The size of the broadcast domain is increased.*

107
Q

Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255
Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0
Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0
Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST

A

DHCPDISCOVER*

108
Q

What is meant by the term “best match” when applied to the routing table lookup process?

exact match
longest match
network match
supernet match

A

longest match*

109
Q

Fill in the blank.

Using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, how many subinterfaces have to be configured to support 10 VLANs?​

A

10

110
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The student on the H1 computer continues to launch an extended ping with expanded packets at the student on the H2 computer. The school network administrator wants to stop this behavior, but still allow both students access to web-based computer assignments. What would be the best plan for the network administrator?

Apply an inbound extended ACL on R1 Gi0/0.
Apply an inbound standard ACL on R1 Gi0/0.
Apply an outbound extended ACL on R1 S0/0/1.
Apply an outbound standard ACL on R2 S0/0/1.
Apply an inbound extended ACL on R2 Gi0/1.

A

Apply an inbound extended ACL on R1 Gi0/0.

111
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)

electrical interference
duplex settings
incorrect cable types
cable lengths
damaged cable termination
A

duplex settings

cable lengths

112
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.
It identifies the subinterface.
It identifies the native VLAN number.
It identifies the VLAN number.
It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

A

It identifies the VLAN number.

113
Q

Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?

show running-config
show vlan​
show startup-config
show ip interface brief

A

show ip interface brief

114
Q

A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

the highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces
the IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address
the loopback interface IP address

A

the loopback interface IP address

115
Q

Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199
source address and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask
A

source address and wildcard mask*

access list number between 1 and 99*

116
Q

What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

A

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

117
Q

A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)

telnet
www
udp
tcp
ftp
icmp
A

udp*
tcp*
icmp*

118
Q

Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

any
some
gt
most
host
all
A

any*

host*

119
Q
STEP1  = DHCPDISCOVER
STEP2 = DHCPOFFER
STEP3 = DHCPRQUEST
STEP4 = DHCPACK
A

apprend ca

120
Q

In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?

child route
level one route
parent route
level two route

A

parent route

121
Q

What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.
The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.
OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.

A

OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.*

122
Q

An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.
These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.
These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.
Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

A

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.*

123
Q

What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

Host IPv4 addressing is complicated.
End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.
The flexibility of connections to the Internet is reduced.
The security of the communication is negatively impacted.

A

End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.*

124
Q

What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

shortest-path first calculations
low processor overhead
split horizon
poison reverse
routing loops
A

shortest-path first calculations*

125
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

The NAT pool has been exhausted.
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.
The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.
The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.

A

The NAT pool has been exhausted.*

126
Q

In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?​

CAM table overflow
DHCP snooping
MAC address flooding
DHCP starvation

A

DHCP starvation

127
Q

When does a switch use frame filtering?

The destination MAC address is for a host with no entry in the MAC address table.
The destination MAC address is for a host on a network supported by a different router.
The destination MAC address is for a host on a different network segment from the source of the traffic.
The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.

A

The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.*

128
Q

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.
It will not perform recursive lookups.
Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

A

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.*

129
Q

An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?

The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic.
The ACL will work as long as it will be applied to all vty lines.​
The ACL will work as desired as long as it is applied to the correct interface.
The ACL will not work because only standard ACLs can be applied to vty lines.​

A

The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic.*

130
Q

An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)

Reboot the router.
Disable and re-enable IPv4 routing.
Shut down and re-enable the loopback interface.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.
A

Reboot the router.*

Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.*

131
Q

When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)

Router-on-a-stick requires multiple physical interfaces on a router.
A dedicated router is required.
Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.
Router-on-a-stick requires subinterfaces to be configured on the same subnets.
Multiple SVIs are needed.

A

A dedicated router is required.*

Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.

132
Q

Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
Configure SSH for remote management.
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.
Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN1
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.

A

Configure SSH for remote management.*

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*

133
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Address translation is working.

Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Two types of NAT are enabled.
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

A

Address translation is working.*

A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.*

Two types of NAT are enabled.*

134
Q

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.

A

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.*

135
Q

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.

A

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*

136
Q

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.

A

The path a static route uses to send data is known.*

Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. *

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. *

137
Q

Which characteristic is unique to EIGRP?

EIGRP supports classless routing.

EIGRP supports loop-free autosummarization.

EIGRP supports both IPv4 and IPv6.

EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing.

A

EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing.*

138
Q

A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

A

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol*

139
Q

Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

A

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan*

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan*

140
Q

full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM

A

A apprendre