Biology: Part II Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following in an anabolic process that is endergonic and endothermic?

A) ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi

B) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

C) CO2 + H2O → CH2O + O2

D) FADH2 → FAD + H2

E) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

A

C

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2
Q

What is the relation between exergonic and exothermic reactions?

A) They are typically unrelated, but can be coupled with ATP hydrolysis

B) Every exothermic reaction leads to a subsequent exergonic one

C) Every exergonic reaction is also an exothermic one

D) Both result in a reduction of entropy in the universe

E) Exothermic reactions may be endergonic or exergonic processes

A

E

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3
Q

Melting of an ice at room temperature results in the following changes in free energy, enthalpy and entropy.

A) +ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS

B) +ΔG, -ΔH, +ΔS

C) +ΔG, -ΔH, -ΔS

D) -ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS

E) -ΔG, +ΔH, -ΔS

A

D

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4
Q

ATP Hydrolysis yields -7.3 Kcal/mol free energy and it is coupled with many enzyme reactions that would not otherwise happen. Which of the following reaction can be coupled with ATP hydrolysis to become a favorable or spontaneous reaction. A reaction with a ΔG value of _______ Kcal/mol.

A) -5.8

B) 4.3

C) 10.5

D) -5.3

E) 7.3

A

B

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5
Q

Given the same concentration of substrate as Km, which of the following will yield the maximum amount of products?

A) Enzyme alone

B) Enzyme + substrate alone

C) Enzyme + substrate + competitive inhibitor

D) Enzyme + substrate + non-competitive inhibitor

E) Enzyme + Substrate + Activator

A

E

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6
Q

An enzyme was tested with two different substrates A and B resulting in products X and Y. The Km for substrate A was 10 mM and the Km for substrate B was 100 mM. Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Substrate A is less effective than substrate B to have same amount of products formed.

B) Substrate B is less effective than substrate A to have same amount of products formed.

C) There is no difference between A and B in terms of products formed.

D) X is produced less than Y with same amount of substrate used.

E) Y is produced at same level as X with same amount of substrate used.

A

B

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7
Q

The energy is stored in the form of ________ in the food we eat.

A) citrate

B) fructose

C) NAD+

D) ATP

E) covalent bonds

A

E

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8
Q

Overall, respiration is a/an____________________process that is also _______________________

A) oxidative……..endergonic

B) oxidative…..exergonic

C) reductive…..endergonic

D) reductive….exergonic

E) endergonic…..redox process

A

B

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9
Q

The reaction as shown below, with reference to FAD, is a __________________ process and ___________ is the ______________(oxidizing or reducing) agent.

FAD + X-H2 –> FADH2 + X

A) reduction…. X-H2 …oxidizing

B) oxidation…..FAD….reducing

C) reduction… X-H2 …reducing

D) oxidation…. FAD …oxidizing

E) oxidation…. X-H2 …oxidizing

A

C

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10
Q

The reaction shown below is a/an ___________________ and it is catalyzed by _______.

Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP –> Pyruate + ATP

A) reduction…. kinase

B) photophosphorylation…..phosphatase

C) oxidative phosphorylation…….ATP synthase

D) substrate level phosphorylation…….ATP synthase

E) substrate level phosphorylation…….kinase

A

E

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11
Q

The energy to make ATP in oxidative phosphorylation comes from food via ___________.

A) FAD and NAD+.

B) ADP and Pi.

C) NADH and FADH2.

D) ATP and GTP.

E) Water and O2.

A

C

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12
Q

Which of the following statement is not true of glycolysis?

A) ATP is used to prime the process

B) ATP is made in this process.

C) Acetyl CoA is an output made in cytoplasm

D) NADH is produced

E) Pi from cytoplasm is used to make ATP

A

C

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13
Q

When mice were fed with radioactive carbon in glucose (C6H12O6) all the 6 CO2 molecules will be released during which of the following process

A) Krebs cycle and Oxidative phosphorylation

B) Glycolysis and acetyl CoA formation

C) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle

D) Acetyl CoA formation and Krebs cycle

E) Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation

A

D

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14
Q

More free energy is released during the Krebs cycle than during glycolysis, but only 2 moles of ATP is produced for each mole of glucose undergoing glycolysis. Most of the remaining free energy that is produced during the Krebs cycle is used to

A) synthesize GTP.

B) reduce NAD+ and FAD.

C) release as heat.

D) oxidize pyruvate.

E) make ethanol.

A

B

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15
Q

When one consumes excess amounts of carbohydrates, they gain weight and store excess energy as fat. Conversion of carbohydrates to fat will involve the intermediate _________.

A) ATP.

B) Starch.

C) Citrate.

D) NADH.

E) Acetyl CoA.

A

E

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16
Q

Which of the following poison can inhibit the generation of Δ [H+]?

A) A poison that would inhibit ATP synthase

B) A chemical that would inhibit citrate synthase

C) A chemical that would block the substrate level phosphorylation

D) A chemical that would make the inner mitochondrial membrane leaky to ions

E) A chemical that mimics glucose but is not metabolized by hexokinase

A

D

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17
Q

Which of the following is an exergonic process that directly helps the endergonic process of ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation?

A) Acetyl CoA formation

B) Ethanol fermentation

C) Chemiosmosis

D) Glycolysis

E) Substrate level phosphorylation

A

C

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18
Q

Migratory birds store or carry limited amounts of stored energy or food but fly over long distances. Which of the following process is most utilized in such situations to make the most amount of ATP for their flying?

A) Glycolysis

B) Ethanol fermentation

C) Lactate fermentation

D) Krebs cycle

E) Oxidative phosphorylation

A

E

19
Q

How does the reduction of pyruvate to lactate during fermentation allow glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen?

A) Water is formed during this reaction.

B) This reaction is an endergonic reaction.

C) This reaction is coupled to the oxidation of NADH to NAD+.

D) This reaction is coupled to the formation of ADP and Pi.

E) This reaction is coupled to the reduction of NAD+ to NADH.

A

C

20
Q

When we exercise for a long time without rest, the muscle cells become deprived of oxygen. Which of the following is not produced in a muscle cell under such conditions?

A) NADH

B) Ethanol

C) ATP

D) Pyruvate

E) Lactate

A

B

21
Q

When is cyclic electron flow (at Photosystem I) more important for photosynthesis than non-cyclic electron flow?

A) When there is abundant ATP.

B) When there is shortage of NADPH.

C) When there is shortage of ATP.

D) When there is abundance of NADPH.

E) When there is equal amount of ATP and NADPH.

A

D

22
Q

Suppose a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?

A) The absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

B) The splitting of water

C) The flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I

D) The reduction of NADP+

E) The synthesis of ATP

A

E

23
Q

When the photophosphorylation is happening during light reactions, the pH of stroma will ______________ compared to the equilibrium state during night time.

A) decrease as the protons are pumped back from thylakoid.

B) increase as the protons are pumped into thylakoid.

C) stay neutral as the protons will balance the influx and efflux

D) decrease first and then increase gradually.

E) stay neutral as the photophosphorylation will not affect the pH in stroma.

A

B

24
Q

When a suspension of algae is incubated in a flask in the presence of light and CO2 and then transferred to the dark, the reduction of 3-phosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is blocked. This reaction stops when the algae are placed in the dark because

A) the reaction requires CO2.

B) the reaction is exergonic.

C) the reaction requires ATP and NADPH

D) the reaction requires O2.

E) chlorophyll is not synthesized in the dark.

A

C

25
Q

CAM plants can keep stomata closed in daytime, reducing water loss. This is possible because they __________.

A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night by PEP carboxylase

B) use photosystems I and II during day and night.

C) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, to fix CO2 more effectively

D) fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells.

E) fix CO2 into pyruvic acid in the mesophyll cells.

A

A

26
Q

When RuBisCO enzyme was modified to reduce the binding of oxygen to minimize photorespiration, the enzyme activity to fix CO2 to carbohydrate was also decreased. A possible explanation to this result is _______________.

A) carbon fixation reaction requires O2.

B) modified enzyme prefers O2 and not CO2.

C) modified enzyme prefers CO2 and not O2.

D) modified enzyme lost the binding to both O2 and CO2.

E) carbon fixation reaction requires light and water.

A

D

27
Q

Bacteria typically have _______, whereas eukaryotes have _______.

A) one chromosome that is linear; many chromosomes that are circular.

B) several chromosomes that are circular; many chromosomes that are linear.

C) one chromosome that is circular; many chromosomes that are linear.

D) two chromosomes that are circular; eight chromosomes that are linear.

E) many chromosomes that are linear; one chromosome that is circular.

A

C

28
Q

Which of the following statements about mitosis is true?

A) The chromosome number in the resulting cells is halved.

B) DNA replication is completed in prophase.

C) Crossing over occurs during prophase.

D) Two genetically identical daughter cells are formed.

E) It consists of two nuclear divisions.

A

D

29
Q

Centrosomes are made up of _________ and they ______________.

A) microfilaments….are the region where the membrane constricts during cytokinesis.

B) centrioles….are constricted regions of metaphase chromosomes.

C) actins….are the central region of the cell.

D) centrioles….determine the plane of cell division.

E) microtubules…are part of cilia.

A

D

30
Q

A microtubule polymerization inhibitor, Colchicine is added to actively growing cells. Most of the cells would be found with their ____ phase arrested.

A) G1

B) S

C) G0

D) G2

E) M

A

E

31
Q

The initiation of the S phase and the M phase of the cell cycle depends on _______ and _______ to make _______.

A) actin; myosin; fibers.

B) Cdk; cyclin; MPF.

C) ligand; enzyme; complex.

D) insulin; receptor; G-protein.

E) ADP; Pi; ATP.

A

B

32
Q

What is the stage most of the specialized red blood cells are found in?

A) G0

B) S

C) G1

D) G2

E) M

A

A

33
Q

Why is it important to reduce the chromosome numbers in half for sexual reproduction of humans?

A) We do not need that many chromosomes and less is better.

B) Skin cells and liver cells are sensitive to increased chromosome number.

C) The sperm and egg cells start with double the chromosome number before fertilization.

D) The sperm and egg cells fertilize and double the chromosome number.

E) If we continue to half the chromosome number in meiosis then we will need a small set of chromosomes after evolution.

A

D

34
Q

How does the chromosome number of each daughter cell is reduced to half the original amount during meiosis?

A) Chromosomes do not replicate during the interphase I preceding prophase I.

B) Chromosomes replicate only once before meiosis I but the cell divides twice.

C) Half of the chromosomes from each gamete are lost during fertilization.

D) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase I but not in anaphase II of meiosis.

E) Chromosome numbers are reduced to half during crossing over in prophase I.

A

B

35
Q

The homologous chromosomes separate during ____________________ and their sister chromatids separate during _____________ phase of meiosis.

A) Anaphase I and Telophase I

B) Prophase I and Anaphase II

C) Metaphase I and Metaphase II

D) Anaphase I and Anaphase II

E) Telophase I and Telophase II

A

D

36
Q

The phases of meiosis that cause the most variation in the four daughter cells are

A) prophase I and telophase II.

B) prophase II and anaphase II.

C) metaphase I and telophase II.

D) anaphase I and prophase II.

E) prophase I and metaphase I.

A

E

37
Q

The daughter cells become haploid with one set of chromosomes immediately after ____________________ phase of meiosis.

A) Anaphase I

B) Prophase I

C) Telophase I

D) Anaphase II

E) Telophase II

A

C

38
Q

Two black guinea pigs were mated and they produced 14 black and 6 white offspring. Based on the results what are the genotypes of the parent pigs?

A) Homozygous dominant

B) Heterozygous dominant

C) Homozygous recessive

D) Heterozygous recessive

E) Hemizygous dominant

A

B

39
Q

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short trait. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with another heterozygous (tall) plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

A) 1/2

B) 1/4

C) 0

D) 1

E) 1/6

A

B

40
Q

A cross between pea plants with red flowers and plants with white flowers resulted in all offspring with pink flowers. This experimental result demonstrates

A) True-breeding.

B) Blending model of genetics.

C) Dominance.

D) Incomplete dominance

E) Epistasis

A

D

41
Q

A couple without any cystic fibrosis symptoms have their first child showing symptoms of cystic fibrosis.

What is the probability that their next child will be a carrier for cystic fibrosis ?

A) 0%

B) 50%

C) 25%

D) 100%

E) 75%

A

B

42
Q

In crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous dominant?

A) 0%

B) 75%

C) 25%

D) 100%

E) 50%

A

A

43
Q

Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t).

What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?

A) 1/16

B) 3/16

C) 3/8

D) 1/2

E) 9/16

A

D