Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KMK > Smart Tests > Flashcards

Smart Tests Flashcards

1
Q

Which amino acid is a precursor for heme in RBCs?

A

Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does dorzolamide reduce aqueous production?

A

It is a competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 3 things that may result from vitamin A deficiency?

A

Nyctalopia
Papilledema
Xerophthalmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the ocular striated muscles is last to develop?

A

Levator palpebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glycine is a precursor for what?

A

Porphyrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Km is a measure of affinity between what?

A

An enzyme and its substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a vitamin A deficiency cause nyctalopia?

A

Vitamin A is a component in rhodopsin and iodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Orbital striated muscles are derived from what dermal layer?

A

Mesodermal mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of drug is gentamicin, and what subunit does it work on?

A

Aminoglycoside

30S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of drug are clindamycin and erythromycin?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Macrolides work on which subunit?

A

50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chloramphenicol, acetazolamide, and trimethoprim are all associated with the development of what adverse condition?

A

Aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of acyclovir?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis can be a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with which drugs?

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Fluoroquinolones
Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What will an increase in CO2 levels do to the binding between hemoglobin and oxygen?

A

Decrease the binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the body compensate for blood pH changes during hyperventilation?

A

Increased excretion of HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an extra-focal distance?

A

Distance between the image and the image focal point of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the image created by a convex mirror.

A

Upright

Virtual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the conventional (trabecular) outflow pathway?

A 
Posterior TM
Juxtacanalicular cells
Schlemm's canal
Collector channels
Episcleral veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A biopsy of a squamous cell carcinoma will most likely show a high concentration of what cell type?

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does VDRL test for?

A

Active syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a positive FTA-ABS test indicate?

A

That a person has been infected at some point by syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Parasympathetic fibers that innervate the pelvis viscera originate from which area?

A

Sacral spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The midbrain contains the nuclei for which structures?

A

III
IV
Edinger Westphal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Edinger-Westphal nuclei controls what?

A

Pupillary constriction and accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens to the corneal epithelium with age?

A

It thins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the retina the thickest?

A

Parafovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which corneal layer has the most mitochondria? Why?

A

Endothelium

Na/K pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RPE cell death and breaks in Bruch’s membrane due to the accumulation of lipfuscin increase the risk of development of which things?

A

Subretinal hemorrhage
Pigmented epithelial detachment
Sub-RPE hemorrhage
Serous retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The nacociliary nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What information does the nasociliary nerve carry to/from the cornea?

A

Pain sensation from the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which layers of the cornea are capable of regeneration following partial thickness laceration?

A

Epithelium

Descemet’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is Sjogren’s evaluated?

A

Salivary gland biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which systemic conditions are most often associated with SLK?

A

Thyroid disease - most common

Graft-vs-host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe Posner-Schlossman syndrome.

A

Mild AC reaction with elevated IOP, with open angle

36
Q

Retinal ganglion cell death in POAG occurs primarily via what?

A

Apoptosis

37
Q

What are the initial site of insult in glaucoma?

A

Ganglion cell axons

38
Q

Retinal ganglion cell death in glaucoma is partly due to microvascular ischemia of what?

A

ONH

39
Q

A brownish petaloid cataract is characteristic of which disease?

A

Wilson’s disease

40
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

Abnormal deposition of copper within tissues, including cornea and lens

41
Q

A Vossius ring is generally a sign of what?

A

Trauma

42
Q

What is the most common benign orbital tumor in adults?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

43
Q

What is the most common malignant orbital tumor in kids?

A

Orbital rhabdomyosarcoma

44
Q

What is the typical presentation of cavernous hemangioma?

A

Unilateral, progressive proptosis

Occasionally optic nerve edema and choroidal folds

45
Q

Nutritional optic neuropathy is most commonly seen in those that are deficient in which vitamin?

A

B12

46
Q

What are the common VF defects in nutritional optic neuropathy?

A

Central or centrocecal defects

47
Q

About 50% of NAION cases have an association with what condition?

A

HTN

48
Q

Adie’s tonic pupil is due to a lesion where?

A

Ciliary ganglion - decreasing innervation of the iris sphincter (parasympathetic)

49
Q

Horner’s system involves which nervous system?

A

Sympathetic

50
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil is characterized by what?

A

Miotic pupil

51
Q

What is Terson’s syndrome?

A

Vitreous hemorrhage resulting from sudden elevation of ICP due to a subarachnoid hemorrhage

52
Q

Can CNVM cause a vitreous heme?

A

No

53
Q

Optociliary shunt vessels are most commonly associated with what 2 things?

A

Optic nerve sheath meningioma

CRVO

54
Q

Best’s dystrophy show what inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant

55
Q

Name 3 autosomal recessive retinal dystrophies.

A

Gyrate atrophy
Stargardt’s
Congenital achromatopsia

56
Q

Talc emboli are most often associated with what?

A

IV drug use

57
Q

What do platelet emboli look like?

A

Long, white plugs in retinal arteries/arterioles

58
Q

Describe calcific emboli.

A

Large
White
Non-refractile particles

59
Q

Where do calcific emboli typically originate from?

A

Heart valves or aorta

60
Q

What type of drug is epinastine?

A

Antihistamine/MSC combo

61
Q

What is the MOA of epinastine?

A

Inhibits H1 receptors

Prevents mast cell degranulation

62
Q

Why do prednisolone acetate and dexamethasone alcohol more readily enter the AC than other steroids?

A

They are more lipophilic

63
Q

Which glaucoma med may have the benefit of neuroprotection?

A

Brimonidine (Alphagan)

64
Q

Prostaglandins work on which pathway?

A

Uveoscleral

65
Q

What classification of drug is natamycin?

A

Antifungal

66
Q

Bacitracin and azithromycin work on what kind of bacteria?

A

Gram positive only

67
Q

Which common BP med has a side effect of annoying cough?

A

Lisinopril

68
Q

What classification of drug is lisinopril?

A

ACE inhibitor

69
Q

What is the MOA of moxifloxacin?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

70
Q

What cells migrate to cover a defect following corneal trauma?

A

Epithelial cells

71
Q

What happens to the concentration of crystallins with age?

A

Decreases

72
Q

Which of the crystallins are soluble?

A

All of them

73
Q

What do the crystallins do?

A

Maintain proper spacing of lens fibers to promot destructive interference

74
Q

Which crystallins are chaperones by doing what?

A

Alpha - helping beta and gamma recover from injury

75
Q

What is the primary source of oxygen to the corneal endothelium in open-eye conditions?

A

Tear film

76
Q

The tear film is the primary source of oxygen for which corneal structures when the eye is open?

A

All of them

77
Q

What 4 ions are actively secreted into the posterior chamber?

A

Na+
Cl-
K+
HCO3-

78
Q

What are the 3 rules of pantoscopic tilt?

A

Sphere power increases (same power)
Cyl power increases (same power)
Induced axis is 180

79
Q

Central serous chorioretinopathy is most likely to occur from hyperactivity of sympathetic fibers traveling on which nerve?

A

Short posterior ciliary

80
Q

What is microbial biofilm?

A

A protective mechanism of bacteria against preservatives

81
Q

Inflammation of the superficial temporal artery (temporal arteritis) may lead to irreversible damage to the anterior optic nerve due to communication with which artery?

A

Short posterior ciliary arteries

82
Q

Name the ocular manifestations of TB.

A 
CME
Chronic, bilateral anterior granulomatous uveitis
Unilateral optic disc edema
Keratitis
Phlyctenules
Conj granulomas
Scleritis
83
Q

What is Uthoff’s phenomenon?

A

Reduced vision after increase in body temp (common in MS)

84
Q

What is the primary cause of edema in inflammation?

A

Increased capillary permeability

85
Q

HIV has progressed to AIDS when the CD4 T lymphocyte count is what?

A

200

86
Q

What is the AC/A ratio formula?

A

PD - [(near -distance)*WD]

87
Q

Which vitamin is required to convert procollagen to collagen?

A

Vitamin C

KMK (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions