Paeds Flashcards

1
Q
Normal resp rate for:
Term-3 mo
4-12mo
1-4yrs
5-12yrs
12yrs+
A
Term-3 mo: 30-60
4-12mo: 30-40
1-4yrs: 20
5-12yr: 16
12yrs+: 16
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2
Q
HR MET criteria for: 
Term-3 mo
4-12mo
1-4yrs
5-12yrs
12yrs+
A
Term-3 mo: <100 >180
4-12mo: <100 >180
1-4yrs: <90 >160
5-12yrs: <80 >140
12yrs+: <60 >130
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3
Q

Normal signs of respiration in young children (4)

A

Chest in-drawing
Periodic respiration (not constant rate) BUT NO APNOEA
Incr rates of resp

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4
Q

Definition of apnoea in newborns

A

No respiratory effort for greater than 20 seconds.
No respiratory effort for shorter periods of time may also be classified as apnoea if accompanied by cyanosis or bradycardia

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5
Q

Causes of the following types of tachypnoea:
• Expiratory wheeze (lower airway obstruction with asthma, bronchiolitis)
• Exhaling with a closed glottis (pneumonia)
• Stridor (upper airway obstruction)
• Effortless (DKA)

other

A
  • Expiratory wheeze (lower airway obstruction with asthma, bronchiolitis)
  • Exhaling with a closed glottis (pneumonia)
  • Stridor (upper airway obstruction)
  • Effortless (DKA)

Other: anaemia, fever, cardiac failure, CNS pathology

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6
Q

Most common causes of bradycardia

A

Hypoxia MOST COMMON
Bradyarrhythmia
Drugs

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7
Q

Causes tachycardia

A
Fever
Pain, Anxiety
Hypoxia, hypercarbia, Hypovolaemia
Anaemia
Arrhythmia, cardiac failure
Seizures
Drugs
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8
Q

Causes of hypotension with

  1. Wide PP
  2. Narrow PP
A
  1. Wide PP (120/20)
    - PDA
    - AR
    - Thyrotoxicosis
    - Anaemia
    - Sepsis
  2. Narrow PP (70/50, weak thready pulse)
    - Hypovolaemia
    - Haemmhoragic shock
    - Severe dehydration
    - AS, coarctation of aorta
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9
Q

24 hours of fever, lethargy and vomiting in child.

- primary diagnosis and management

A

Bacterial sepsis until proven otherwise!

  • A: Protect airway (sit up/safety position;; NG tube; yankee sucker)
  • B: Give O2 >5L/min
  • C: Give Hartmann’s or saline
  • BSLs
  • Reassess
  • ORder: Blood cultures, blood gas
  • Prophylactic antibiotics
  • Call reg and PET service
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10
Q

Lump in children - what are the 3 main differential categories?

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Inflammatory
  3. Cancer
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11
Q

What is exomphalos?

What about this kills babies?

A

Exomphalosis a weakness of the baby’s abdominal wall where the umbilical cord joins it. This weakness allows the abdominal contents, mainly the bowel and the liver to protrude outside the abdominal cavity where they are contained in a loose sac that surrounds the umbilical cord.

It is the evaporative heat loss leading to hypothermia that kills babies

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12
Q

What is the most common DDX for a lump on the eyebrow at birth
Treatment

A

Exoid dermoid cyst (developmental remnant)

Treatment is surgical excision

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13
Q

How do you treat strawberry naevi

A

Propranolol accelerates their complete regression (would go away on their own by ~5 years)

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14
Q

What are the signs of hydrocephalous in infants?

A

Macrocephaly
Sun setting eyes (can only see upper half of iris)
Bulging fontanelle
Seizures

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15
Q

Causes of hydrocephalous in infants - what is the most common?

A

Congenital

Acquired

  • Most common is medullary blastoma in 4th ventricle
  • intraventricular haemmhorage
  • SA haemmhorage
  • meningitis
  • SC lesion/tumour
  • Traumatic head injury
  • premature birth
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16
Q

What are you worried about when you see an absent anal cleft?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma -> tumor on coccyx that eventually grows to fill out the anal cleft and can grow larger than the baby. Turns malignant peri-natally

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17
Q

What is the functional consequence of cleft palate in babies?

A

Swallowing and sucking difficulties (can usually swallow but not suck)

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18
Q

What is the significance of an enlarged Virchow’s node in children? What does it drain?
What differentials you think of ?

A

Virchow’s node only enlarged with cancers, not inflame conditions. Drains the thoracic duct.

Hodgkins (10-15 year olds) or Neuroblastoma (very young children)

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19
Q

What is the most common anorectal malformation in females?

Symptoms

A

REctovestibular fistula. Abnormal connection between vagina and the rectum.

Symptoms: Gas, faeces, pus passing through vagina

  • Vulvar irritation, inflammation
  • Gross smelling vaginal discharge
  • Frequent UTIs
  • Pain during sex if older
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20
Q

Clinical features of malrotation

A

Early signs

  • Bilious vomiting (flour green)
  • Poor feeding

Late signs include: PR bleeding, abdominal distention and tenderness

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21
Q

What causes malrotation?

A

Anatomical variation where base of mesentery is narrow which means DJ flexure and Ileocaecal flexure are next to each other, in RUQ which results in SHORT BASE OF MESENTERY and predisposes the mesentery to volvulus

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22
Q

With malrotation, at what point does venous and arterial supply become compromised and when is best to intervene?

A
  • If mesentery twists 360deg, venous and lymphatic supply are compromised resulting in bile-stained vomiting. Surgical intervention here has good outcome.
  • If gut rotates further, arterial supply can become compromised -> intestinal ischaemia and infarction
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23
Q

How do you diagnose malrotation?

What is the treatment?

A

Upper GI contrast study is gold standard - look for LOSS OF C-shaped duodenum to indicate malrotation

Or AXR changes: double bubble, gastric and proximal duodenal dilatation…

Urgent surgical referral and laparotomy -> LAdd’s procedure + appendicectomy

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24
Q

Child with bile stained vomiting - diagnosis

A

Malrotation +/- volvulus until proven otherwise

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25
Q

Non-bilious vomiting in neonates - differentials

A

Pyloric stenosis
Infection - Sepsis, Meningitis, UTI
Reflux
Overfeeding

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26
Q

Typical presentation of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

PYLORIC STENSOSIS: Typically first born boys, with non-bilious projectile vomiting (vomit past their feet) after each feed who are HUNGRY after!
- family history of HPS
- visible gastric peristalsis
+/- palpable pyloric tumour (‘olive’) if stomach isn’t too distended

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27
Q

When does pyloric stenosis typically present?

A

Peak 3-6 weeks old

But can occur 10 days-11 weeks

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28
Q

What metabolic derangements do you see in pyloric stenosis and why?

A

Due to profuse vomiting -> losing water, HCL, NACL, K

Metabolic alkalosis
Hypochloraemia
Hypokalaemia
Normal serum na

Acidic urine (paradoxical change - kidneys conserve Na as compensation)

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29
Q

What is intussception and what generally causes it?

A

Invagination of proximal into distal bowel

  • Peaks at 5-11 months
  • Physiological/idiopathic cause is most common (hypothesised that as babies wean, new antigen exposure causes payer’s patches in terminal ileum to swell from inflammation and cause intussception)

Less commonly can be due to pathological lead points

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30
Q

Classic presentation of intussception

A

Crampy (intermittent, also known as colicky) Abdominal pain (infant pulls legs into stomach to relax abdo wall)
Vomiting
Bloody ‘red currant jelly’ stools (LATE sign)

Sausage shaped mass in RUQ and emptiness in RLQ.

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31
Q

What are ‘anatomic’ or ‘pathological’ lead points of intussception

A

Merkel’s diverticulum
Polyp
Vascular malformation
lymphoma

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32
Q

Complications of intussception if not treated early

A

Bowel obstruction,

Ischaemia, perforation, shock

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33
Q

How do you diagnose intussception?

A

Clinical suspicion -> US (‘target sign’) is first choice

or AXR (?soft tissue mass ?absence of gas in caecal region)

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34
Q

Treatment intussception

A

<48 hour history in otherwise stable child = air enema reduction

> 48 history or peritonitic/septic child = laparotomy

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35
Q

Treatment pyloric stenosis

A

Fluid rehydration therapy and electrolyte replacement

  • 0.45% saline with 5% dextrose
  • Add K when baby is urinating

Non-urgent surgical referral

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36
Q

Treatment exompathalous

A

Place baby in humidicrib wrapped in glad wrap (ensure blood supply of exposed bowel isn’t twisted/compromised)

NGT for GI decompression
Fluid resus

Urgent T/F to tertiary centre

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37
Q

DDX for acute scrotum (red, painful, tender scrotum)

Immediate management

A
  • testicular torsion
  • torsion of appendix testies
  • epididymo orchitis
  • idiopathic scrotal oedema

Urgent surgical referral ?surgical exploration

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38
Q

Classic presentation of appendicitis

A

Colicky periumbilical pain migrating to RLQ and becoming constant

Assoc w :

  • anorexia
  • fever
  • nausea
  • d&v
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39
Q

What are warning signs for appendicitis in kids?

A

abdo pain >24 hours
diarrhoea >24 hours
Infant preferring to lie still
Suspected peritonitis if child doesn’t allow abdo exam

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40
Q

What group most commonly have atypical presentations of appendicitis and how do you diagnose it?

A

Kids <5 yo
Adolescent girls

Need U/S diagnosis
- May need to do bloods (CRP, WCC), but bloods are NOT ROUTINE in kids.

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41
Q

Long term effects of diptheria infection

A

Toxin causes nerve and heart damage

Mortality 1/15

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42
Q

Long term effects of tetanus infection

A

Toxin causes nerve and muscle changes resulting in paralysis, convulsions
Mortality 1/10

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43
Q

Pertussis - effects of infection

A

Whooping cough. M&M highest in infants

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44
Q

Poliomyelitis - effects on infection

A

Febrile illness followed by paralysis in many (may become permanent)
Mortality 1/20

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45
Q

HIB - effects of infection

A

Systemic infection - meningitis, epiglottitis, bone and joint infections
Mortality 1/20

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46
Q

MMR

A

Measles encephalitis 1/2000, mumps encephalitis 1/200

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47
Q

Where to give vaccines to children?

A

• Children under 1
○ Anterolateral thigh (if 3 vaccines given at once, space injections 2.5 cm apart with third vaccine in other thigh)

• Children >1
○ Mid-deltoid region of upper arm

• NOT BUTTOCKS -> risk damage to sciatic nerve

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48
Q

Side effects of vaccines

A
  • Local superficial inflammatory response -> redness, swelling at injection site
    • Mild transient systemic SX (crying, irritability, mild fever, febrile seizures)
    • Measles may be followed by mild, transient measles like illness (fever and brief rash 7-10s post immunisation)
    • anaphylaxis is v rare
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49
Q

What extra vaccines what an aboriginal/torres straight islander child receive?

A

BCG

Hep A vaccine

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50
Q

Vaccines given at 2,4,6 months

A

DTPa (Diptheria, tetanus, whooping cough)

HIB

IPV (inactive polio vaccine)

HBV

PCV (13v pneumococcal conjucate)

RV (Rotavirus)

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51
Q

Vaccines given at 12 months

A

MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
HIB
MenCCV

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52
Q

Vaccines given at 18mo

A

VZV (chickenpox)
MMR (measles mumps rubella)
DTP

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53
Q

Vaccines given at 4 years

A

DTPa (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis)

Polio

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54
Q

Vaccines given at 10-15years

A

DTPa (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis)
VZV (chickenpox #2)
HPV

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55
Q

Vaccines given at birth

A

HBV

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56
Q

Pattern of generalised seizure vs focal seizure

A

Generalised: wide spread all over brain, symmetric activity bilaterally

Focal: starts in localised area of brain, unilateral

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57
Q

What is another term for focal seizure that is commonly used and how is this further classified based on consciousness?

A

Partial seizure

  • Simple partial seizure: consciousness intact (motor, somatosensory, visual/auditoary, autonomic, dysphasic)

-Complex partial seizure
(consciousness not intact)

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58
Q

How are generalised seizures further classified?

A

Tonic clonic
Absence
Myoclonic
Atonic, Tonic etc

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59
Q

Do generalised seizures affect consciousness? Motor systems?

A

Yes, always involve consciousness AND motor manifestations!

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60
Q

What is the definition of a seizure vs of epilepsy

A

Seizure:
Transient occurrence of signs and/or SX due to abnormal, excessive or hypersynchronous neuronal activity in cerebral cortex

Epilepsy:
Tendency to have recurrent unprovoked seizures (2 or more AFEBRILE seizures)

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61
Q

What types of seizures aren’t included in the definition of epilepsies?

A
  1. Single seizure events
  2. Neonatal seizure
  3. Febrile seizures
  4. Acute symptomatic seizure (systemic illness, acute neurological insults)
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62
Q

Investigations for seizures in children

A

EEG (+/- video monitoring)

MRI if…
◊ Suspected underlying cerebral abnormality
◊ Significant developmental delay
◊ Abnormal neurological findings on exam
◊ History of prior ne◊ Poorly controlled seizures

CT only if suspected stroke, increased ICP, traumatic brain injury (never perform in otherwise well child)

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63
Q

Seizure mimics

A

○ Normal phenomenon
§ Sleep jerks
§ Tantrums
§ Inattention, day dreaming

○ Syncope and related episodes
§ Vasovagal
§ Breath-holding spells
§ Long QT syndrome

○ Parasomnias and related sleep disturbances
§ Night terrors, sleep walking, cataplexy, confusional arousals

○ Movement disorders
§ Tics, clonus, chorea, tremor

○ Behavioural and psychiatric disturbances
§ Mannerisms, psychogenic seizures, rage attacks

○ Migraine variants and NV episodes
§ TIA, complicated migraine, benign paroxysmal vertigo

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64
Q

How can absence seizures be provoked?

A

hyperventilation

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65
Q

what are febrile seizures often associated with?

What ARENT they associated with?

A

Mostly assoc w URTI/UTI/viral exanthema

Family history of seizures (30%) - same mutation in neuronal ion channel gene

Age-limited predisposition to seizures (mostly 5mo-2yrs)

NOT ASSOC W: CNS illness, prev afebrile seizure, incr mortality or later intellectual impairment

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66
Q

Medications for epilepsy

A

Sodium valproate
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Ethosuximide

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67
Q

DDX for generalised tonic clonic seizure (and what you would expect for each on history)

A

Focal seizure becoming generalised
□ Preceding aura (note: NO aura with generalised TC)
□ Todd’s paresis (transient unilateral postictal weakness)
□ Focal neurological deficits on exam
□ HX of prior CNS illness/cerebral trauma

Syncope
□ Vasovagal setting
□ Brief duration with rapid recovery

Psychogenic seizure
□ Eye closure during seizure
□ Resistance to passive eye opening
□ Intermittent or waxing and waning motor activity

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68
Q

what broad category of seizure if there is limb jerking/head turning/stiffening that is UNILATERAL?

A

Focal seizure! Not generalised because must be in one hemisphere only.

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69
Q

What type (lobe?) of focal seizure often gets confused for absence seizure?

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

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70
Q

What type of (lobe?) focal seizure features hyperkinetic autisms (tapping, cycling, running in place)

A

Focal lobe epilepsy

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71
Q

Treatment of generalised vs focal epilepsies

A

Generalised seizures: Sodium valproate

Focal: Carbamazepine

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72
Q

What is the best method of measuring temp in children and what is the upper limit of normal (degC)

A

Electronic thermometer in axilla

Axillary > 37.2C

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73
Q

What is the definition of PUO?

A

Fever without focus for >2 weeks

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74
Q

What are the 3 main causes of PUO

A
  1. infection (?encapsulated bacteria)
  2. autoimmune
  3. malignancy
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75
Q

What 3 main encapsulated bacteria infect kids

A

HIB
Strep pneumonia
Neisseria meningiditis

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76
Q

What do you do if a child comes in with a fever?

A
If child is :
> 3months 
non toxic  
fever <14 days
It is likely viral so DON'T do septic screen (possibly check urine ex: if <6 months) and review to ensure they don't deteriorate.

Otherwise they get a septic screen

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77
Q

What comprises a septic screen?

A

FBE, blood film
Blood and urine cultures
LP +/- CXR (if resp SX/signs)

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78
Q

What questions to ask on HX when a child comes in with fever

A
Localising symptoms: 
cough
coryza
headache
photophobia
diarrhoea, vomiting
abdominal pain
joint symptoms

Travel history
Sick contacts
Immunisation hx

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79
Q

SX, signs suggestive of a ‘toxic’ or unwell child

A
Lethargic
Poor interaction
Inconsolability
Tachycardia, tachypnoea, 
Cyanosis, poor peripheral perfusion
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80
Q

Presentation of meningococcus

A

Rapid onset
Fever
Flu-like SX (malaise, lethargy, vomiting, headache, myalgia, arthralgia)
Confusion

Rash (petechial/purpura)
Photophobia
Neck pain/stiffness

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81
Q

Differentials for child presenting with fever and petechial rash (previously well, onset this am)

A

Meningococcus if unwell/shocked/toxic

Viral infection (enterovirus, influenza)
HSP
ITP

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82
Q

15 month old presents with a non-itchy blanching erythematous rash (not on face) following 3 days of sudden-onset high-grade fever and a single febrile seizure.

What’s your top differential? Treatment?

A

HHV6 (roseola)

No treatment required - self limiting.

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83
Q

Child presents with ‘slapped cheek’ rash on face and lacy rash on trunk and limbs following low-grade fever, malaise, or a “cold” a few days before the rash broke out.

Differential? Treatment?

A

Parvovirus B19

No treatment required bc is viral
+/- Paracetamol to bring down fever

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84
Q

What is a rare complication of parvovirus B19 infection in pregnant women?

How common is this?

A

If exposed to ParvovirusB19 in first half of pregnancy, baby can get fetal anaemia hydrops fetalis and fetal death (miscarriage)

Occurs in 5% of pregnant women infected with parvovirus

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85
Q

What are the clinical features of measles?

A

4 day infectious prodrome (3 Cs) preceding rash:

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
Fever
Koplik’s spots

Rash (red, blotchy, starts on the head and then spreads to the rest of the body) - lasts ~7d

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86
Q

2 year old with incomplete immunisations at creche with fever and cough, coryza, conjunctivitis progressing to descending, blotchy raised (papular) rash
- diagnosis

A

Measles

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87
Q

Management for measles

A

MMR vaccine (2 doses) within 72 hours of exposure if >9mo

IVIG if <9mo or >9mo but >72 hours post exposure

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88
Q

Differentials for diffuse erythematous rash (sunburn-like) in child

A
Toxic shock syndrome (Staph or strep)
Scarlet fever/Invasive GAS 
Kawasaki disease
Enteroviral infection
Antibiotics
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89
Q

what is the most severe complication of measles?

A

Encephalitis -> fatal in 15%

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90
Q

What causes Scarlet fever?

A

Exotoxins from Group A Strep (pyogenies)

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91
Q

What infections does GAS cause?

A
Scarlet Fever
Pharyngitis 
Toxic shock
Necrotising fasciitis
Acute rheumatic fever
GN
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92
Q

Clinical presentation of scarlet fever

A

Exudative tonsillitis +/- pharyngitis
Confluent erythematous sunburn-like rash
Strawberry tongue
Circumoral pallor

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93
Q

Treatment of scarlet fever

A

Penicillin (oral) - to treat GAS

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94
Q

What infectious agents cause toxic shock syndrome?

A

Exotoxins from staph aureus and strep pneumonia and strep progenies

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95
Q

Features of Kawasaki disease

A

Fever>5 days (unresponsive to antibiotics)
Polymorphous rash
Bilateral non-exudative conjunctivitis
Mucus membrane changes (oropharynx injected, strawberry tongue, swollen lips)
Swollen erythematous hands and feet with eventual desquamation
Unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy >1cm

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96
Q

Treatment of kawasaki disease

A

IVIG and low-dose aspirin

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97
Q

Complication of kawasaki disease

A

Coronary artery disease (aneurysm)

Higher risk of IHD

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98
Q

Features of infectious mononucleosis (glandular)

A
FEVER
Exudative pharyngitis
Tonsillitis 
Lymphadenopathy
Splenomegaly
Palatal petechiae
Rash
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99
Q

Management of mono

A

None

Steroids only if airway obstructed due to tonsillar enlargement

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100
Q

What is TTN?

RF?

A

Tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) = wet lung
retention of fetal long fluid

□ C-section without labour -> ‘Cold’ c-section = no maternal hormone surge hasn’t caused resorption of fluid yet

□ Breech delivery
□ Male sex
□ Birth asphyxiation
□ Heavy maternal analgesia

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101
Q

characteristic CXR for TTN

A

Coarse streaking w fluid in fissures

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102
Q

Mx TTN

A

most babies settle in 24-48 hours with minimal handling and cot O2.
CPAP if acidotic, low sats, working hard to breathe.

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103
Q

Signs of resp distress in a newborn

A

○ Tachypnoea (>60breaths/min)
§ In response to incr CO2 in order to breathe out and decr the CO2

○ Expiratory grunt
§ Produced by exhalation against a partially closed glottis in order to increase PEEP and therefore keep alveoli open
§ May be interpreted as crying or moaning

○ Recession of intercostal spaces and suprasternum; in drawing of subcostal margin
§ Due to the increased resp effort generating more negative intrapleural pressure which sucks in the softer/more compliant chest wall during inspiration

○ Nasal flare
§ Flare during inspiration decreases airway resistance

○ Central cyanosis
§ Note - polycythaemic babies will appear cyanosed at relatively high O2 sats but babies with low Hb will not appear cyanosed until saO2 is v low.

○ Deranged temperature control
○ Low O2 saturation

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104
Q

Ix for resp distress in a neonate

A
BSL
CXR
FBE, blood film, UEC 
Blood culture
VBG
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105
Q

What is infant RDS? Another name for it?

Who gets it (RF)?

Treatment?

A

= hyaline membrane disease

§ Occurs in pre-term infants due to surfactant deficiency in the alveoli

Mx:
Empirical abx because looks similar to sepsis!
CPAP
If need more, intubate and give surfactant (need intubation).

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106
Q

Characteristic CXR appearance of RDS/HMD

A

Hypo aeration, diffuse ground-glass appearance, air bronchograms

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107
Q

RF for meconium aspiration?

A

Post-term (>40 weeks)

Births involving fetal distress

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108
Q

what is the pathophys behind meconium aspiration syndrome?

A

Aspiration of substances leads to obstruction, atelectasis and chemical and mechanical pneumonitis

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109
Q

RF for neonate sepsis

A

Maternal GBS positive
Maternal fever
Prolonged rupture of membrane (>=18 hours)

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110
Q

Signs of pneumothorax

A
Most sensitive is transilluminator 
Tracheal deviation
Chest asymmetry 
Unequal expansion
Decr breath sounds unilaterally 
Resp distress
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111
Q

Abx coverage for neonatal sepsis (what bugs are you worried about?)

A

Gentamicin (listeria, e coli, HIB)

Benzyl-penicillin (GBS)

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112
Q

Differentials for resp distress

A
TTN/wet lung
HMD/RDS
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Sepsis
pneumothorax
congenital pneumonia
Cardiac (VSD, PDA, transposition, pulm HTN)
Anatomical - although not usually in neonatal period (laryngomalacia etc)
Drugs ?
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113
Q

RF for pneumothorax in neonates

A

Being on CPAP

Resp distress

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114
Q

Mx for MDS

A

NO evidence for suctioning airways
(UNLESS baby is floppy or has no/inadequate respirations then it is reasonable to suction under direct vision using laryngoscope)

Septic workup
CPAP if needed/intubation

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115
Q

metabolic disturbances causing apnoeic episodes in premmies

A

Hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypo/hypermagnesaemia

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116
Q

Define apnoea in neonates

A

§ No air flow occurs for >=20sec

§ No air flow for >=10sec + bradycardia or desat

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117
Q

General management of Respiratory distress in neonates

A

Observation - admit to neonatal nursery, incubator

Monitor vital (HR, RR, saO2)

Septic workup (FBE, blood film, blood cultures, CXR, vBG)

Empiric antibiotics (gent and benpen)

IV fluids (10% dextrose at 60ml/kg daily)

Advice from senior physician!

Additional resp support (CPAP, intubation)

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118
Q

Definitions for

  • term
  • pre term
  • post term
A
  • term: ≥ 37 completed weeks’ gestation
  • preterm: < 37 completed weeks’ gestation
  • post-term: > 42 completed weeks’ gestation
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119
Q

Definitions for

  • LBW
  • VLBW
  • appropriate weight for gestational age
A

• low birth weight (LBW): < 2500 g
• very low birth weight (VLBW): < 1500 g
- appropriate weight for gestational age; between 10th and 90th percentiles

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120
Q

3 things to look for on GI when examining a baby

A
  1. pink (well perfused)
  2. no incr WOB (resp effort)
  3. active, good tone
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121
Q

when is bronchiolitis most common?

A

Up to 2 years of age

In winter/rainy season

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122
Q

Risk factors for bronchiolitis

A

Maternal smoking, pre-term delivery, chronic lung disease of prematurity, allergy, CHD, immunodeficiency

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123
Q

common causative agents of bronchiolitis

A
VIRAL always 
Rhinovirus #1 cause of mild bronchiolitis 
RSV #1 cause of SeVere bronchiolitis
HRV 
Parainfluenza, influenza A/B
Adenovirus
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124
Q

SX and signs of Bronchiolitis

A
Low grade fever 
§ Tachypnoea
§ Mild dry cough
§ Expiratory wheezing
§ Hyperinflation 
§ WOB
§ Fine inspiratory crackles
§ Difficulty feeding if severe
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125
Q

Mx of bronchiolitis

A

○ Mx - supportive (O2, fluids, nutrition)

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126
Q

What is the most common cause of wheeze in the first 2 years of life?

A

Viral bronchiolitis

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127
Q

Complications of Pertussis (whooping cough)

who is most at risk?

A

Apnoea, severe pneumonia, encephalopathy, death

Most at risk is <6mo

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128
Q

Clinical signs and investigations : Pertussis

A

§ Prodrome of a few days: nasal discharge and mild dry cough
§ Cough becomes more pronounced and characteristically ‘whoop’ing
§ +/- severe vomiting and subconjunctival haemorrhages
§ Apnoea in young infants

Ix: nasopharyngeal specimen: immunofluorescent Ab, culture

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129
Q

Treatment of pertussis

A

§ Admission for supportive therapy
§ Macrolide antibiotics if early in course of disease or v severe Sx
§ Treat household contacts
§ Contact precaution (until 5 days of antibiotics or illness for 3 weeks)

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130
Q

Most common causes of viral pneumonia in kids

A
parainfluenza
influenza
RSV
Human metapneumovirus (HMV)
Adenovirus
Human rhinovirus
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131
Q

What does an x ray of viral pneumonia look like?

A

CXR: patchy, widespread bilateral infiltrates rather than lobar involvement

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132
Q

Clinical présentation of viral pneumonia

A

Dry cough
Fever
LOA

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133
Q

Complications of HIB

A

Epiglottitis

Meningitis

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134
Q

Risk factors for HIB

A
Age <5yo
Indigenous
Lower SES
Male sex
Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency
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135
Q

Causative agents of bacterial pneumonia

A
  1. Strep pneumonia most common by far!
  2. Staph aureus
  3. Mycoplasma pneumonia
  4. HIB
    Less common causes:
    - Group A beta haemolytic strep (pyogenies)
    - Klebsiella
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136
Q

Presentation of pneumococcal pneumonia

Typical CXR findings

A
fever
sob
pleuritic CP
wet cough 
tachypnoea
grunting
nasal flaring 
Reduced expansion, dull to percussion, reduced breath sounds, bronchial breathing on affected side

CXR: lobal opacification although can be patchy

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137
Q

What antibiotics to use for pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

Penicillin and third gen cephalosporin

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138
Q

lung complications of pneumonia

what clinical features are the same, and what are different?

A

Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax

same - tracheal deviation
and reduced breath sounds

different - stony dull percussion and bronchial breathing above effusions.

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139
Q

what is the typical CXR appearance of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Central peribronchial opacification
Extensive opacification of 1+ lobes
Air bronchograms

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140
Q

Presentation of staph pneumonia

A
□ Shorter acute HX than other forms of pneumonia  (acute onset, rapid course)
□ Appears more toxic
□ High fever
□ Marked tachypnoea
□ Significant resp distress
□ Non-specific chest signs
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141
Q

Complications of staph pneumonia

A
LARGE pleural effusions
Empyema
Tracheal deviation
Abscesses
Air leaks (pneumothorax)
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142
Q

Antibiotics for staph pneumoniae

A

IV flucloxacillin and third generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime)

Vancomycin if MRSA suspected

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143
Q

RF for staph pneumonaie

A

Low SES

Indigenous b/g

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144
Q

Examples of ACYANOTIC heart defects

A
1. L->R shunt
VSD
PDA
ASD
AVSD
2. Obstructive heart defects
Pulmonary stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Coarctation of aorta 
Hypoplastic L heart syndrome
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145
Q

Presentation of a VSD

A

Depends on the size
1. Small: pan systolic murmur @ L sternal edge rad to axilla BUT ASYMPTOMATIC at birth bc pressures between L and R heart are equal

  1. Large: left heart dilatation leads to displaced apex, parasternal heave
    - SX of HF occur after lungs open up and L sided pressures > R.
    (poor feeding, FTT, tachypnoea, incr WOB, hepatomegaly)

Note: L heart dilatation occurs because L heart has to work harder to generate the same CO w shunt present.

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146
Q

what are the 2 most common types of CHD in kids?

A
  1. VSD

2. PDA

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147
Q

What are SX of heart failure in a newborn?

A

tachypnoea
SOB and sweating when feeding
Failure to thrive
Incr WOB

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148
Q

Long-term complications of VSD

A

® Progressive AR if shunt is located close to aortic valve (aortic leaflets sucked/prolapses into defet due to high-velocity L->R flow)
Pulmonary HTN due to Increased pulmonary pressures (L-> R shunt)

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149
Q

What causes the ductus arterioles to close? when does this occur?

A

Closes in first 1-7 days post birth due to decreased circulating PGE2 and increased paO2, as well as muscle contraction

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150
Q

What can cause the ductus arteriosus to fail to close?

A

Prematurity

Congenital malformation

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151
Q

What is the treatment for a PDA in a premature infant?

A

Indomethacin or other NSAIDs (inhibit PGE2 to promote ductal constriction and closure)

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152
Q

Why do you treat small PDAs and how? How does this differ from treatment of large PDAs?

A

Small PDAs are treated to prevent endocarditis rather than to treat symptoms or complications. Via transcatheter duct occlusion.

Large PDAs need surgical ligation .

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153
Q

How do PDAs present?

A

Small PDAs generally asymptomatic. May have continuous murmur at upper L sternal edge.

Large PDAs present with L heart dilatation (displaced apex beat, parasternal heave) and progressive SX of heart failure.
+ Bounding pulses
+ Apical mid-diastolic murmur

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154
Q

What investigations do you do if you hear a murmur in a baby?

A

CXR
ECG
ECHO is diagnostic

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155
Q

Where do most ASDs occur?

A

fossa ovale (central part of atrial septum)

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156
Q

How do ASDs present?

A

Small ASDs go undetected (low pressure gradient across atria)

Large ASDs rarely symptomatic in childhood
-may cause Atrial arrhythmias in adulthood, and reduced exercise capacity

Because L->R shunt causes R heart enlargement ->

  • parasternal heave
  • ES murmur in pulmonary region with fixed splitting of A2 and P2
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157
Q

What might an ECG of ASD show?

A

partial RBBB

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158
Q

What is the treatment for ASD and when is it indicated?

A

Indicated if patient has RH enlargement

Transcatheter or surgical closure

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159
Q

Which congenital heart defect is most assoc w down syndrome?

A

AVSD

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160
Q

How does AVSD present?

A

Partial AVSD - behaves physiologically and symptomatically like ASD

Complete AVSD - presents like severe VSD (FTT, feeding difficulties, tachypnoea, WOB)

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161
Q

Treatment of AVSD

A

almost always needs surgical closure

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162
Q

What is the most common type of Acyanotic obstructive heart defect?

What type of murmur is associated?

A

Pulmonary Stenosis

Ejection systolic @ L upper sternal edge
Radiating to back
Ejection click earlier than with AS
A2 and P2 widely split

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163
Q

how does pulmonary stenosis present?

A

usually asymptomatic in children and infants
Mild is benign, non-progressive finding
Severe can lead to heart-failure

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164
Q

What causes AS in children usually.

What type of murmur?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

ES murmur over aortic area + radiation to carotids
Ejection click later than PS
Less splitting of A2 and P2 than PS

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165
Q

How might AS present in kids

A

ES murmur
Apical heave due to LV hypertrophy

Gradual progression of SX (syncope, angina, dizziness on exertion, sudden death)

Severe cases, HF evident at birth

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166
Q

When do you treat AS in kids? How?

A

If symptomatic or ECG changes w exercise

Balloon valvuloplasty (trans-acth)
or aortic valvotomy (surgical)
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167
Q

what is coarctation of the aorta?

What can it result in?

A

Stricture at distal part of aortic arch (max obstruction site close to aortic end of Ductus arteriosus)

Can lead to severe cardiac failure in newborns with oliguria and acidosis

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168
Q

When does cardiac failure onset in newborns with coarctation of aorta?
How might this present on exam?

A

When ductus arteriosus closes because then there is NO blood flow to the rest of the body.

Diminished/absent femoral pulses
unequal BPs between L and R arm

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169
Q

Treatment of coarctation of aorta

A

surgical repair as early as possible!!

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170
Q

CXR findings of severe coarctation of aorta

A

Cardiomegaly
Pulmonary congestion
Abnormal appearance of aortic knuckle
Rib notching (due to enlarged IC arteries bypassing obstructed segment of aorta)

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171
Q

If a newborn has coarctation, what else might you expect?

A

other congenital heart defects such as :
VSD
PDA
valvular abnormalities

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172
Q

How does hypo plastic L heart syndrome present?

What is it?

A

§ Infants present w severe cardiac failure or shock within first few days of life
□ All periph pulses diminished or absent

Small left ventricle (hypoplasia) - Underdevelopment of left heart + valves (often assoc w severe MS and AS)

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173
Q

What is hypo plastic left heart syndrome always associated with

A

always assoc w PDA otherwise they would have died. Necessary to keep systemic circulation maintained
(R->L shunt due to R ventricular blood shunting via PDA into aorta )

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174
Q

Complications of Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

95% die within first few weeks of life if untreated

Neurodevelopment impairment if children survive due to marked hypoxia and cyanosis in early days of life

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175
Q

Treatment for Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

A

Immediate: PGE1 keeps PDA patient initially, until
SURGERY can be performed.

If untreated 95% die in first few weeks of life.

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176
Q

Examples of cyanotic heart defects

A

The 4 Ts:

  1. Tetralogy of ballot
  2. Transposition of great arteries
  3. Tricuspid atresia
  4. Truncus arteriosus
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177
Q

what is the most common cyanotic heart defect? What is it commonly assoc with?

A

tetralogy of fallot?

Syndromes -down syndrome

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178
Q

What is the tetralogy of fallot and what 4 things comprise it?

A

Obstruction to RV outlfow tract + septal defect below obstruction such that blood can flow from RV to LV (R->L shunting)

§ 4 anatomical defects:
	□ Overriding aorta
	□ RV hypertrophy
	□ Pulmonary stenosis
	□ VSD
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179
Q

Clinical picture of tetralogy of fallot

A

Kids:
Gradual, delayed development of cyanosis

Delayed exercise tolerance, finger clubbing, growth retardation

Development of compensatory polycythaemia

Babies:
‘tet’ spells: cyanosis more obvious when baby is upset, crying
(Baby may go floppy, lose consciousness)

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180
Q

What do you suspect if a baby becomes cyanosed only when upset and crying, and on one occasion goes floppy and loses consciousness during such an episode?

What do you do to manage this?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

Treatment - soothe the baby

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181
Q

Treatment for tetralogy of fallot in kids?

A

get older kids to squat to incr systemic vasc resistance and reduce R->L shunting

Surgical closure of VSD and repair of PS

182
Q

what type of murmur do you hear, if any, in tetralogy of fallot and what is this due to?

A

Ejection systolic murmur over pulmonary region due to PS (not VSD)

183
Q

What changes would you see on CXR with tetralogy of fallot?

A

Normal heart size; ‘boot shape’ (upturned apex), reduced lung vascularity (fields look blacker)

184
Q

What is transposition of great arterities?

A

§ Aorta and pulmonary arterty connected to wrong side of heart and as a result venous blood is directed straight through into systemic circulation

§ 2 parallel circulations result with
® Systemic venous deoxy blood flowing through R heart back into aorta
® Pulmonary venous oxy blood flowing through L heart back into pulm circulation

185
Q

What does survival depend on with transposition of great arteriess?

A

§ Survival depends on mixing of blood between circuits via foramen ovale, ductus arterosus or septal defect

186
Q

Clinical presentation of transposition of great arteriess?

A

® Cyanosis present at birth and generally progresses gradually
® +/- metabolic acidosis from tissue hypoxia
® No murmur

187
Q

CXR findings for transposition of great arteriess?

A

mildly hypertrophied heart w contour ‘egg on its side’, increased pulmonary vascular markings

188
Q

Treatment for transposition of great arteriess?

A

® Balloon atrial septostomy (intra-cath) to forcefully create an ASD as an emergency procedure to improve systemic arterial O2 sat

® Surgical correction = arterial switch (transection and re-anastamosis of great arteries to appropriate ventricle)
® Perform within first few weeks of life so you don’t get atrophy of LV

189
Q

Complications of kawasaki disease

A

risk of coronary artery aneurysms, myocardial ischemia or infarction

190
Q

What is myocarditis caused by and what are potential complication(s)?
Treatment?

A

Triggered by common viral infection, is immune-mediated

Compl: CCF, arrhythmias

Treatment: supportive +/- IV IG or immunosuppressives

191
Q

What is the risk with long QT syndrome?

A

At risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias (VT or VF) with sudden urges in adrenergic drive (exercise, morning alarm), which can lead to sudden death.

Runs in family. ask about fam HX of sudden death

Treatment: anti arrhythmic drugs, auto defib. implant

192
Q

Treatment for heart block

A

® Positive chronotropic agent (isoprenaline)
® OR Positive Inotropes
® Implantation of temporary or permanent pacemaker

193
Q

What are shockable rhythms?

A

VT and VF?

194
Q

How might SVT present? What do you see on ECG?

A

Babies - mild distress w tachypnoea and poor feeding.
Kids - complain of palpitations

ECG shows Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome (rapid regular tachycardia 200-300bpm with narrow QRS)

195
Q

Treatment for SVT

A

Vagal manoeuvres (valsalva) or IV adenosine to terminate an acute episode

DC cardioversion if haemodynamically compromised

196
Q

When might you pick up heart block in a baby?

A

Uncommon but may pick it up on routine antenatal assessment (monitoring /ECG) w fetal bradycardia <60bpm

197
Q

pathophys of RHD

What can it lead to?

A

Autoimmune: host immune response to strep Ag -> attacks heart, synovial membranes, other tissues (mainly damages heart VALVES)

Can cause myocarditis, pericarditis leading to reduced ventricular function (CCF) and arrhythmias, and mitral and aortic stenosis/incompetence

198
Q

How does RHD present?

A

Follows acute rheumatic fever (strep infection of throat or tonsils)

  • Polyarthtiris, large joints
  • Carditis - NEW ONSET MURMUR
  • Sydenham chorea
  • Transient truncal skin rash (erythema marginatum)
  • Skin nodules over bony prominences
  • Fever
199
Q

Causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Idiopathic (90%)

  • minimal change disease (85%)
  • FSGS (15%)

Non-idiopathic (10%)

  • HSP
  • SLE
  • Membranoproliferazive GN
  • Membranous nephritis
  • Congenital nephrotic syndrome
200
Q

What are the key features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Heavy proteinaemia
Oedema
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hyperlipidaemia

Note: may get some haematuria and FSGS can cause HTN.
Don’t generally get renal impairment

201
Q

Key features of nephritic syndrome

A

Haematuria
Acute fluid overload
Hypertension
Renal impairment

202
Q

Complications of nephrotic syndrome

A

Hypovolaemia
Infections
Thrombosis (haemoconcentration and loss of antithrombin in urine)

203
Q

Signs of renal impairment

A

Oliguria
Increased plasma creatinine
Deranged UECs

204
Q

Potential results of acute fluid overload

A

oedema
pulmonary oedema
CCF

205
Q

When do you investigate isolated haematuria?

A

isolated haematuria is common and usually benign when there is no history of kidney disease.

Further investigations only if it occurs in 3 diff specimens over period of 2-3 weeks

206
Q

Causes of nephritic syndrome

A

Idiopathic hypercalciuria ( excessive urinary calcium excretion)

Thin basement membrane disease (benign familial haematuria)

Proliferative glomerulonephritis (IgA nephropathy, post-strep GN, SLE, HSP)

207
Q

What is post-strep glomerulonephritis caused by and what is the typical presentation?

A

Group A beta haemolytic strep (progenies)

○ Follows 7-14 days after group A beta haemolytic strep throat infection or 3-6 weeks following strep skin infection

Presents w:
MACROSCOPIC haematuria
acute fluid overload (facial and leg oedema +/- papilloedema)
HTN
Lassitude, fever, loin pain
208
Q

Mx of post-strep GN

A

Oral penicillin for 10 days
If fluid overloaded: fluid restrict, low salt diet, frusemide
Dialysis if urea >50-60mmol/L, or hyperkalaemia or pulmonary oedema not controlled by diuretics and fluid restriction

209
Q

electrolyte changes in renal failure

A

Incr: K, phosphate, Mg, urea, creatinine, H

Decr: Na, Ca

Metabolic acidosis

210
Q

What is the clinical picture of IgA nephropathy

A
Macroscopic haematuria 
(haematuria often occurs at same time as intercurrent viral infections)

May present as acute renal failure with gross oedema and HTN

May be asymptomatic

211
Q

Changes expected on positive SLE bloods

A

§ Serum C3 low

§ ANA, anti-dsDNA positive

212
Q

Protein in urine can be normal in many kids. At what time doing a alb: creatinine spot test would you expect to see abnormally elevated results.

A

First morning void (Should be negligible if normal).

In normal kids with no pathology, incr protein secretion occurs during the day, NOT overnight

213
Q

How does minimal change disease typically present

A
Children <10
Generalised oedema (facial puffiness, peripheral oedema, ascites)

NORMAL BP and renal function

30% have microscopic haematuria

Normal C’ levels

214
Q

Treatment for nephrotic syndrome

A

Steroids

Fluid restriction and low salt diet if fluid overloaded +/- albumin

215
Q

Complication of ascites

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (infection with encapsulated bacteria such as klebsiella, pseudomonas, e coli, staph aureus, strep pneumonia)

216
Q

When would you suspect FSGS in a kid with nephrotic syndrome

What is the prognosis?

A

If they are steroid and/or immunosuppressant resistant

If they have multiple relapses

Prognosis is poor - 60% progress to ESKD over 10 years.

217
Q

Investigations for atopy

A

Skin prick testing is first line (needs specialist referral)

Serological testing (lower specificity and sensitivity)

218
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder common in caucasian population caused by defect in CF transmembrane conductance regulator gene which codes for a Cl channel present on epithelial cells of the conductive airways and GIT

219
Q

How might cystic fibrosis be diagnosed?

A

Neonatal screening
Meconium ileus
Positive sweat test ([Cl]>40)

In adulthood, presentation with pseudomonas pneumonia or male infertility (due to bilateral absence of vas deferens)

220
Q

What is the pathophys behind cystic fibrosis

A

Defective or absent Cl channel means that Cl is not getting pumped into secretions which would normally draw water in to thin secretions out, so as a result secretions are abnormally viscous.

Thick meconium can get stuck and lead to meconium ileum (emergency!

Ciliary dysfunction and damage due to thick mucus build up

Leads to mucus buildup and inflammation and recurrent infection in lungs initially.
Recurrent infections and mucus buildup lead to bronchiectasis

Leads to thickened pancreatic secretions that block exocrine secretion from pancreas. protein and fat aren’t absorbed -> poor weight gain, FTT, Steatthorea.
Over time pancreas is damaged from backed up enzymes and can lead to acute or chronic pancreatitis. Eventually leads to pancreatic endocrine dysfunction leading to insulin-dependent diabetes

221
Q

Bugs that kids with cystic fibrosis are particularly prone to

A

Staph aureus (GP) and pseudomonas (GN)

222
Q

Chronic complications of Cystic fibrosis

A

Bronchiectasis from recurrent/chronic lung infections.

Respiratory failure and death

Nasal polyps

Digital clubbing

Infertility in men due to bilateral absence of vas deference

Pancreatic failure
Liver disease

Growth delay

Osteoporosis

Urinary incontinence

223
Q

4 domains of development

A

○ Gross motor
○ vision and Fine motor
○ Social, emotional, daily living
○ Communication, language, hearing

224
Q

What are the 3 common features of all kids with cerebral palsy

A

□ Deformity, contracture, hip dislocation
□ Tone and/or movement disorder
□ Spasticity, dystonia, chorea etc

NOT all kids w CP have intellectual disability!

225
Q

What should all kids w possible developmental delay/behavioural and attention difficulties get done (Inx-wise)?

A

Formal hearing and vision testing

speech assessment

226
Q

What does HEADSS stand for?

A
Home
Education
Activities (hobbies etc)
Alcohol
	• A lot of kids your age start experimenting w drugs and alcohol - have you ever tried any alcohol, or drugs?

Drugs
Sex/sexuality
• Are you involved in a romantic relationship??
Suicide

227
Q

when do solids get introduced?

A

between 4 and 6 months

228
Q

when should babies be sleeping through the night by?

A

3-6 months .

229
Q

When to refer to speech and audiology assessment for a child with ‘language’ delay?

A

<50 words at 2yo or no 2 word combinations at 2yo

Doesn’t understand simple instructions without gesture

230
Q

When to refer to speech and audiology assessment for a child with ‘language’ delay?

A

<50 words at 2yo or no 2 word combinations at 2yo

Doesn’t understand simple instructions without gesture

231
Q

What are the 3 realms of problems that kids w Autism have?

A
  1. problems w socialisation
  2. problems w communication
  3. repetitive or obsessive behaviours
232
Q

What is the mean IQ ?

A

IQ: mean 100 w SD of 15

233
Q

Differentials for developmental delay

A

○ Deprivation/abuse
○ Neurodegenerative disorder
○ Unrecognised epilepsy
○ Severe sensory or developmental disorders (ASD, ADHD, cerebral palsy)
○ Cultural differences, mental health disorders, ill health, refusal to participate
○ Movement difficulties

234
Q

what is the screening for down syndrome?

A

§ 1st and 2nd trimester serum markers
□ Low alpha-fetoprotein and pregnancy associated plasma protein A
□ High chorionic gonadotrophin levels
□ Low blood oestriol levels
§ US findings - nuchal thickening, characteristic malformations

235
Q

characteristic dysmorphic features of down syndrome

A

§ Hypotonia
§ Eyes slated, epicanthic folds, brushfield spots
§ Tongue appears large
§ Ears small and poorly formed
§ Hands broad, simian crease (single palmar crease)
Gap between first and second toes

236
Q

Diagnosis of down syndrome

A

Microarray or FISH (genetic testing showing trisomy 21)

237
Q

Common co-occurring malformations with Down syndrome

A

§ Congenital heart disease (tetralogy of fallot, AVSD etc)

§ GI malformation (duodenal atresia, imperforate anus, Hirschsprung disease)

238
Q

Pathological Causes of constipation in kids

A
SC lesions
Spina Bifida 
Intestinal neuropathy (Hirschsprung's)
Cow milk protein intolerance
Coeliac disease
Cystic fibrosis
Metabolic (hypothyroid, hypercalcaemia)
Pyloric stenosis, malrotation +/- volvulus, incarcerated inguinal hernia
Cerebral palsy
Drugs
239
Q

Causes of delayed passage of meconium

A
Cystic fibrosis
Malrotation +/- volvululus 
Fistula
Imperforate anus
Down Syndrome 
Hirschsprung's
240
Q

Functional causes of constipation in kids

A

Physiological/functional

  • withholding behaviour
  • pain
  • anxiety
  • diet
  • dehydration
  • change in lifestyle (weaning onto solids, toilet training, starting school)
241
Q

What is fecal incontinence associated with?

A
  • Painful or frightening event assoc w defecation in early childhood
  • Limited attention or learning disability
  • Nocturnal enuresis/urinary incontinence
  • Constipation (overflow)
242
Q

Management of constipation in kids

A
  1. Change behaviour (toilet sits, position on toilet, stool diary)
  2. Diet - incr fluid and fibre, healthy diet
  3. Education
  4. Disimpaction if there is significant impaction that they are unlikely to pass
  5. Laxatives

Regular review and monitoring

243
Q

What are the mechanisms of action of the following laxatives:

  1. Paraffin oil
  2. Senna
  3. Coloxyl
  4. Movicol
  5. Osmolax
  6. Colonlytely
A
  1. Paraffin oil - lubricant/softener
  2. Senna - stimulant
  3. Coloxyl - Softener
  4. Movicol - osmotic
  5. Osmolax - osmotic
  6. Colonlytely - osmotic
244
Q

Exam and Ix for constipation

A

Exam

  • Neurological lower limb motor and sensory (neurological/spinal abnormalities)
  • Abdominal exam (faecal masses?)
  • Height, weight (FTT)
  • Spine and external exam of anal region (sacral teratoma, spina bifida, imperforate anus)

Ix - none unless SX continue despite behavioural modifications and laxative therapy, then look into pathological causes

245
Q

what is the most common cause of constipation in kids?

A

Functional at >95% cases

246
Q

Causes of vomiting in neonates

A

Systemic infx/sepsis
Bowel obstruction (anal atresia, duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung, meconium ileus w CF, incarcerated inguinal hernia)
Hypoglycaemia
Malrotation +/- volvulus
UTI/renal disease
Adrenal insufficiency (congenital adrenal hyperplasia, w ambiguous genitalia in females)

247
Q

Causes of vomiting in infants

A
infection
lesions of GIT (malrotation, strangulated inguional hernia, pyloric stenosis)
GORD
Coeliac
Gastroenteritis
Intussception (3-12mo)
248
Q

Causes of vomiting in older kids

A

Migraine headache
Sepsis
Intracranial neoplasm (morning vomiting and headaches)
Acute appendicitis and peritonitis (>5yo)
Poisoning
Psychological (anxiety, stress)

249
Q

SX and Treatment of overactive bladder

A

SX - frequency, incontinence, bed wetting, HOCKERING posturing
+/- fecal incontinence
often resistant to alarms and desmopressin, persisting beyond 10yo

Treatment - regular toiling program + anticholinergic (oxybutynin)

250
Q

Investigations for urinary incontinence

A

U/S KUB (?Structural abnormality)
Uroflow (filling or emptying problem?)
Post-void U/S (?Residual volume)

251
Q

Treatment of monosymptomaatic NE

A

Alarms worn at night
Wetting diary
Desmopressin (synthetic ADH/vasopressin analogue) - used for those who ave not responded or are unsuitable for alarm. Child should NOT drink overnight (risk hyponatraemia)

252
Q

Treatment of polysymptomatic NE

A

Alarms
Treat constipation/fecal incontinence and exclude UTI
Anticholinergics (oxybutynin)
Frequent, regular voiding

253
Q

Causes of daytime wetting without NE

A
Urge incontinence (overactive detrusor muscle) 
- urgency, freq, posturing, wetting
Dysfunctional voiding (lack of coordination between detrusor and bladder neck activity w poor relaxation of external sphincter during voiding) 
ASsoc w high residual volumes, upper tract dilatation 
MX- teach pelvic floor/sphincter relaxation and optimal voiding techniques 
Neurological - neurogenic bladder (large of expressible bladders +/- NE )
Urological pathology (fistula, ectopic ureter) - constant rather than episodic bladders, may have NE too
254
Q

Risk factors for DDH

A

Female
○ Breech presentation
○ Positive family history of DDH
Oligohydramnios

255
Q

Detection of DDH

O/E and Inx

A

§ Ortolani - detects dislocated hip reducing during exam
§ Barlow - detects dislocating or subluxing during exam
§ Positive tests are ones in which ‘clunk’ is felt (click/popping)
§ Other signs to look for:
□ Discrepancy in leg length
□ Asymmetrical thigh skin folds (also present in 25% normal babies)

○ Ix: ultrasound <6months
X-rays > 6 months

256
Q

Treatment for DDH

What happens if not treated early?

A

Tx: Pavlik harness.

If not treated early, hip joint develops abnormally and open or closed surgical reduction is required

257
Q

What is DDH?

A

spectrum of disorders of hip instability producing subluxation or dislocation and imaging features of poor acetabular development

258
Q

Commonest organisms for meningitis

A

<2 years old
§ Group B strep (pyogenes)
§ E coli and other GNB
§ Listeria monocytogenes

>2 years old
§ above 
§ Strep pneumoniae
§ Neisseria meningitis
§ HIB (in unimmunised children)
259
Q

Commonest organisms for encephalitis

A

Viruses

  • Enterovirus
  • HSV
  • Other herpes (EBV, CMV, HHV6, VZV)
  • Arbovirus

Bacteria, fungal, parasite causes RARE

260
Q

Exam features of meningitis

A

Full fontanelle
+/- neck stiffness

Purpuric rash suggests meningococcal septicaemia

261
Q

Signs of encephalitis

A

Altered conscious state, focal neurological signs

262
Q

interpretation of CSF

for viral vs bacterial meningitis

A
Bacterial
Neutr=100-10000 (higher)
Lymph<100 (lower)
protein >1g/L (higher)
glucose <0.4
Viral
Neutr<100 (lower)
Lymph 10-1000 (higher)
Protein 0.4-1g/L (lower)
Glucose normal
263
Q

MX of meningitis

  • encephalitis
A

Meningitis
-Bacterial
<2mo: IV Cefotaxime and benpen

> 2mo: IV ceftriaxone +/- dexamethasone (reduces risk of hearing loss)

Enceph:
viral -> acyclovir

Analgesia
Admission if bacterial meningitis or IV hydration required (bolus if shocked -> 2/3 maintenance)
Monitor:
- Neurological obs
- BP readings
- Weight and HC
- UEC to monitor for electrolyte abnormalities whilst on IV fluids

264
Q

what does AVPU stand for?

A
A Alert
V Responds to voice
P Responds to pain    
- Purposefully
- Non-purposefully    
- Withdrawal/flexor response
- Extensor response
U Unresponsive
265
Q

age range for epidiymitis

A

1) Only occurs immediately after birth (times when you have surges of androgens which open the vas) or in 14 + year olds

266
Q

what is the anatomical variant that predisposes boys to testicular torsion?

A

‘Bell-clapper testes’ - anatomical variant where the testes hangs on longer mesentary than usual so more prone to twisting (within tunica)

267
Q

How long do you have to save the testes from infarct with testicular torsion?

A

Have 6 hours with testicular torsion to save the testes from infarct

268
Q

What is another name for idiopathic scrotal oedema and what is it’s typical presentation?

A

Allergic cellulitis

Bilaterally red swollen skin w surrounding skin also red (inflammation not contained by tunica vaginalis)
Often caused by flea bite on groin
Often presents in middle of night, quick onset (<4-6h)

269
Q

MX of idiopathic scrotal oedema

A

Conservative - self limiting within 1-2 days

270
Q

DDX

Left hemiscrotum is enlarged and blue - painless hard lump within scotum of a baby

Ix?

A

Most commonly due to torsion of testes in utero

DDX: testicular tumour

Ix: Inguinal exploration to distinguish

271
Q

Enlarged non-erythematous right scrotal mass

DDX

How else might this present?

A

Cancer - probably rhabdomyosarcoma of cremaster muscle (cancer of spermatic cord)

May also present as lower urinary tract SX -haematuria +/-urinary retention

272
Q

Primary vs secondary head injuries

A

Primary:

  • Contusion vs contre-coup
  • Axonal shearing
  • Injury to intracranial blood vessels (extradural/subdural/SA haematoma/intraventricular bleed etc)
  • Recognise patterns of injuries and blows to consciousness

Secondary

  • Seizures
  • Hypoglycaemic state
  • Brain hypoxia, hypercarbia
  • Cerebral oedema -> Raised ICP
273
Q

Assessing a burns victim

A

ABCDE
Airway
- cervical spine needs demobilisation
- ensure patent airway (+/- adjuncts +/- intubation)

Breathing

  • O2 via mask, highest flow possible
  • RR and SaO2
  • Expose chest for chest trauma/burns, observe chest movement (if burns are restricting chest expansion, consider escharotomy)

Circulation + haemorrhage control

  • Pulses, CRT
  • IV fluid resusc
  • Elevate limbs if there are circumferential burns (may restrict perfusion) +/- escharotomy

Disability

  • AVPU
  • Pupil size, symmetry, response

Exposure

  • Minimise heat loss (warm room, blankets, cover wound, Baer hugger)
  • Expose fully, remove everything
  • Burn assessment (depth, % TBSA)
274
Q

Management of a burns victim

A
Dressing (clingfilm/paraffin/acticoat)
Tetanus status
Fluids (use TBSA% as guide)
Analgesia
Tubes (NGT +/- IDC if TBSA >10% +/- intubation)
275
Q

What is the most common cause of newborn jaundice? Why?

A

Physiological jaundice
- As a foetus, unconjugated bilirubin is excreted by placenta. During transition to hepatic conjugation and excretion, all infants have raised bilirubin to some degree.

276
Q

When is newborn jaundice always pathological

A

If it occurs within first 24 hours after birth (suspect haemolysis or sepsis)

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

277
Q

Why does physiological newborn jaundice occur?

A
  1. Incr RBC turnover (t1/2 less) - incr unconj bilirubin load
  2. Defective hepatic uptake
  3. Decr efficiency of conjugation (lower UDPG levels)
  4. Breast milk jaundice (factors in milk cause incr enteric absorption of bilirubin)
278
Q

Mx of newborn jaundice

A
  1. Observe/watch
  2. Blue light phototherapy (converts bilirubin into water-soluble form that can be excreted in bile and urine)
  3. Exchange transfusion (replace baby’s blood w donor blood to decr bilirubin levels rapidly)

SBR Levels at which these are performed are determined using standard hospital monogram

Abi if sepsis suspected

279
Q

When do you use a lower SBR threshold for phototherapy and exchange transfusion?

A

Premature
Asphyxiated infant
Ill or haemolysing infant

280
Q

How long should physiological jaundice last?

A

~1 week, with peak SBR levels at 3 days in term babies.

Peak at 1 week in preterm babies

281
Q

Causes of pathological jaundice

A
  1. Haemolytic
  2. Incr Haem load (haemorrhage, polycythaemia, swallowed blood)
  3. Impaired hepatic uptake and conjugation (Gilbert, hypothyroid, drugs etc)
  4. Mixed (prematurity, sepsis, infants of diabetic mothers, asphyxia)
282
Q

Complication of jaundice

A

kernicterus (neuronal death caused by toxic unconjugated bilirubin crossing the BBB) -> manifests as bilirubin encephalopathy

Can lead to death or survival with cerebral palsy (neurodevelopment impairment)

283
Q

Haemolytic causes of jaundice

A

Immune

  • ABO and Rh blood group incompatibility
  • Drug-induced

Acquired

  • bacterial sepsis
  • congenital intrauterine info

Hereditary

  • G6PD deficiency
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
284
Q

What is the genetic underpinnings (at risk group) for G6PD deficiency

A

X linked
Mediterranean
Asian ethnic groups

285
Q

DDX - asymmetrical scrotum

When is this most obvious?

A
  1. Varicocoeal if bag of worms appearance (Most obvious when patient is vertical rather than horizontal)
  2. Undecended testes
  3. Cancer
  4. torsion of testes or appendix testis
  5. Hydrocoeal (although may be bilaterally swollen, giving dumbbell appearance)
286
Q

What side are variocoeals more common and why is this?

A

Left side

Because pampiniform plexus in scrotum becomes enlarged due to impaired drainage

287
Q

How do you diagnose a hydrocoeal?

Tx?

A

Transilluminates

No treatment required

288
Q

Sx of benzo poisoning

A

CNS depression (drowsy, coma)
REsp depression
Hypotension

289
Q

Mx benzo poisoning

A

Observation - vitals, sats, RR (intubation, IV fluids, inotropes if necessary)

Call POISONS, get help from consultant, ICU

Urine drug screen (benzos)

Antidote - flumazenil - not generally used. only under discussion from specialist.

+/- Social work/department of Human Services referral

290
Q

DDX depressed conscious state in a 2.5 year old

A

Ingestion/poisoning (drugs/alchohl/pesticides/poisons/medications such as benzos, opioids)

Head trauma

Sepsis/meningitis

291
Q

How do you evaluate paracetamol levels?

A

Serum paracetamol levels at 4 hours post ingestion (testing any earlier doesn’t help)

292
Q

Pain management in kids (and what is the pain score)

  1. mild
  2. moderate
  3. severe
A
  1. mild (pain score 1-3)
    - Oral panadol (20mg/kg loading dose then oraly 15mg/kg q4h as req)
    - Oral panadeine (15mg/kg/dose q4h paracetamol and codeine)
    - Oral ibuprofin (helps bring down swelling, use if they are eating and drinking)
    - distraction/bheavioural techniques
  2. Moderate (pain score 4-7)
    - Intranasal fentanyl and midaz (helps w anxiety)
    - Codeine once pain has settled to mild/moderate
  3. Severe (pain score 8-10)
    - SC Morphine 0.15mg/kg/dose q4h
    - IV morphine, titrated 4 hourly
293
Q

What does bilirubin bind in the blood?

A

Albumin

294
Q

Things to ask on HX when assessing a jaundiced baby

A

Family history:

  • spherocytosis
  • G6PD/ethnicity
  • Previously jaundiced children
  • splenectomy
  • haemolytic anaemia

Antenatal HX:

  • blood group
  • maternal diabetes

Birth HX
Trauma - bruises/cephalhaematoma/ventouse extraction

295
Q

What is the blood volume of a newborn baby?

A

10ml/kg

so around a can of coke’s worth in a term 3.5kg baby!

296
Q

What is breast milk jaundice?

A

Hormones in breast milk (+ added affect of constipation) result in increased enterohepatic circulation so more bilirubin is absorbed back into blood rather than being excreted.
Normal and physiological

297
Q

What is the most common haemolytic cause of newborn jaundice?

What is the most severe cause?

A

ABO incompatibility
Mother is usually type O with baby type A

Rh disease is more severe

298
Q

How do you test for blood group incompatibility in jaundiced babies?

A

Direct coombs test

  • strongly pos in Rh disease
  • negative or weakly pos in ABO incompatibility
299
Q

What is

A

Gal-1-P UT deficiency leads to build up of Galactose which is toxic

300
Q

Newborn baby is jaundiced and has pale poos. what do you suspect and how do you investigate this?

why is it important to treat early?

A

Biliary atresia

US of liver/biliary tree to investigate for obstructive causes

Investigate within 6 weeks otherwise results in irreversible liver damage

301
Q

Risks associated with ABO incompatibility

A

Fetal hydrops

Jaundice -> kernicterus/bilirubin encephalopathy

302
Q

Causes of short stature (3) and how is bone age related to chronological age in each?

is the growth velocity normal or abnormal in each?

A
  1. Familial Short Stature (bone age = chronological age)
    Normal growth vel.
  2. Congenital Delayed Growth (bone age < chronological age)
    Normal growth vel.
  3. Pathological (endocrine PICNICS)
    Abnormal growth vel.
303
Q

Pathological causes of delayed growth

A

Endocrine PICNICS

Endocrine - hypothyroid, GH deficiency, Cushing’s disease, adrenal insufficiency

Psychosocial

Iatrogenic - exogenous steroids, spinal

Chronic disease - GI (coeliac, IBD); renal (CKD, RTA), cardiac (CHD), JIA, tumour

Nutritional disease

Intrauterine growth restriction

Chromosomal - Turner syndrome, Down syndrome, Prader Willi

Skeletal abnormalities

304
Q

Types of allergies

A

IgE mediated

Non-IgE mediated

305
Q

HX for allergies

A

Quality - specific symptoms experienced

Severity of SX

  • medical req to control SX
  • medical visits and hospitalisation
  • ICU admissions
  • interference w sleep, sport, play

Timing: seasonal, perennial, episodic; immediate onset or delayed?

Context: triggers

Any HX of anaphylaxis

306
Q

SX of anaphylaxis (Severe allergic reactions)

Children vs young kids

A

MUST have resp involvement or involvement of 2+ body systems

  • difficult/noisy breathing
  • Drooling
  • SOB, resp distress, cough, wheeze, hoarse voice, clearing throat, swelling/feeling of tightness in throat
  • Dizziness or collapse

+/- drooling, Angio-edema/swelling of lips, tongue, hives/urticaria

  • Young kids: pale and floppy
307
Q

SX of mild to moderate allergic rxn

A

Swelling of lips, face, eyes
Hives/welts
Tingling mouth
Abdo pain, vomiting

308
Q

Action plan for mild to moderate allergic Rxn

A

Mild to moderate:

  • Stay with person and call for help
  • Locate epicene adrenaline autoinjector
  • Give other medications if prescribed (+/- H2 antag for SX relief of pruritus +/- oral steroid tablets for bronchospasm)
  • phone family/emergency contact
  • watch for any ONE of the signs of anaphylaxis indicating resp involvement
309
Q

Action plan for severe allergic Rxn

A

Severe
- Lay person flat
- Give epicene adrenaline auto injector (pull of blue safety cap, place orange end against mid-thigh and push down hard until you hear a click -> hold for ten sec, then remove epipen and massage the spot). Can be given through clothing.
- Phone ambulance 000
phone family/emergency contact
- Further adrenaline doses can be given if no response after 5 min if you have another auto injector available

WHEN IN DOUBT GIVE ADRENALINE (and always give adrenaline before inhaler if in doubt as to whether it is anaphylaxis or asthma)

310
Q

What are the investigations for allergy?

A

Ig E mediated:

Skin prick testing: positive if welt >3mm

Serology: measure allergen-specific Ig-E levels (more expensive and lower sensitivity and specitifiy but widely available)

Both in conjunction with clinical history

Non-IgE mediated and/or IgE mediated:

Food challenge is gold standard but only perform at RCH (controlled environment)

311
Q

When is immunotherapy indicated as treatment for allergies?

A

For IgE-mediated inhalant or venom allergic disease only

Rhinoconjunctivitis as main indication

312
Q

Atopic diseases

A

Eczema (Allergic dermatitis)
Asthma
Allergic rhinoconjunctivitis (hayfever)
Anaphylaxis

313
Q

What might you see on exam of someone with allergic rhino conjunctivitis?

A
  • Mouth breathing
  • Inferior nasal turbinates pale and swollen
  • Clear nasal discharge
  • Conjunctivitis -itchy, red eyes w incr lacrimation
314
Q

Causes of failure to thrive (5)

A
  1. MAY BE PSYCHOSOCIAL so take thorough social hX
    - blunts GH response
  2. Inadequate intake
    - Neglect
    - Low SES
    - Poor diet - micronutrient deficiencies
    - inability to suck/swallow
  3. Inadequate digestion, absorption
    - coeliac
    - CMPA
    - CF
    - pancreatic, cholestatic issue
    - Giardiasis
    - Diabetes
  4. Incr metabolism
    - Carcinoma
    - Hyperthyroid
    - Chronic disease (resp, cardiac, renal, GI)
  5. Prenatal issues
    - prematurity
    - maternal illness/drugs/smoking
    - IUGR
    - chromosomal abnormalities
315
Q

Investigations for short stature/FTT

A

Bone scan
Bloods: FBE, UEC, LFTs
- TFT, coeliac serology
- Nutrition: CMP, Fe, vit D, B12, folate, IGF

316
Q

MX for short stature

A
  1. education/reassurance
  2. change diet
  3. treat any underlying pathology
  4. +/- GH therapy
  5. psychosocial support
317
Q

How might pain present in a neonate? vs young child

A
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Restless/writhing/squirming
Irritable
Poor feeding

Young child: miserable, crying/screaming, lack of function, can verbalise pain

318
Q

What is a smegma?

A

Combination of desquamated skin cells, skin oils and moisture collects around the clitorus or under the foreskin of males.

Looks like localised collection of pus but there are no signs of inflammation and it is normal in toddlers due to the foreskin separating gradually from penis between ages of 2 and 5!

319
Q

Ballinitis presentation

Aetiology?

A
  • Red, swollen, painful penis, often presenting in middle of night.
  • Common in 1-3 year old during period of separation of foreskin
  • Infection by e. coli or candida in pockets between inner layer of foreskin and penis (where smegma form)
320
Q

Treatment and prevention Ballinitis

A

Treatment: high dose topical antibiotics (eye ointment) squirted under foreskin every 2 hours until it’s fixed (clears in 4-6 hours)

Prevention: wash regularly in salt water (cooking salt in bath)

321
Q

What is parafimosis?

Treatment

A

Foreskin trapped behind corona forming tight band of constricting tissue which causes venous obstruction and swelling of glans

Treatment: urological emergency! Manipulation of glans within foreskin under laughing gas

322
Q

What is phimosis?

When is treatment warranted and what is treatment?

What are complications if not treated?

A

Inability to retract the skin covering the head (glans) of the penis
May appear as a tight ring or ‘rubber hand’ of foreskin around tip of penis, preventing full retraction.

Can be physiological (self-resolves around 5-7 years of age) or pathological (due to scarring, infection, inflammation).

If there is ballooning of foreskin during urination/difficulty urinating, or infection, treatment (topical steroids +/- circumcision) may be warranted.

Complications: renal failure due to complete obstruction of urinary tract

323
Q

What is hypospadias?

What is treatment?

A

Developmental condition where the meatus isn’t at the tip of the penis. Instead, the hole may be any place along the underside of the penis.

The meatus (hole) is most often found near the end of the penis (“distal” position) (80%), often occurring with dorsal hood of foreskin and chordee

Tx: urological surgery within 6 weeks

324
Q

What is chord

What is associated with?

Tx?

A

Penis curves up or down at junction of head and shaft of penis, most obvious during erection
Can be assoc w hypospadias

Tx: surgery in infancy

325
Q

What is epispadius?

What is it associated with?

A

URethra opens in top of penis rather than the tip

Assoc w dorsal chordee (penis curves up) and rarely with bladder exstrophy

326
Q

When do you intervene surgically in an umbilical hernia

A

If it persists beyond 2 years of age (under 2 years it should resolve spontaneously)

327
Q

What is the most common cause for boys needing renal transplant in childhood?

A

Posterior urethral valve (developmental abnormality)

Leads to urinary obstruction -> renal failure

328
Q

Systemic effets of anorexia

A

Hypotension
Arrhythmias
Long QT

Decr grey matter (reversible)

Decr bone density - growth delay/arrest

Hypothermia

Delayed/interrupted puberty
Long term effects on sexual/reproductive health

329
Q

Treatment anorexia

A

CBT

Maudsley family based treatment

330
Q

Features of ADHD

A

Developmental problem w deficits in:

  1. Inattention
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Overactivity

Tx:

  • Stimulant medication (ritalin)
  • Psychosocial/behavioral strategies involving positive parenting, teachers, counselling
331
Q

When does ODD typically present and what os the risk of not treating it?

Tx?

A

Typically surfaces at primary school but can be younger

May progress to conduct disorder if untreated

Tx: psychological strategies

  1. Assess current motivation to change
  2. CBT
  3. Family interventions
332
Q

IgE vs non-IgE mediated allergies

A

IgE mediated:

  • Sx appear within 1-2hrs but typically within min
  • Sx: hives, urticaria, angeioedema, resp distress
    ex: tree nuts, raw egg

Non-IgE mediated

  • T cell mediated
  • Sx appear >2 hours after ingestion
  • Sx: GI and skin related (vomiting, diarrhoea)
  • ex: cow’s milk allergy, soy milk, rice, FPIES
333
Q

How is a skin prick test conducted?

A

Allergen introduced under epidermis
Measure wheel at 15min
Controls: histamine (expect pos) and saline (expect neg)

Wheal => 3mm above saline control is positive result

334
Q

Indications for food challenge

A

– Non-IgE mediated
– IgE mediated BUT low suspicion of allergy
w uncertain history w +ve SPT/RAST (serum specific IgE)
w OR good history w -ve SPT/RAST

335
Q

High risk groups for anaphylaxis

A

□ HX anaphylaxis
□ Multiple food and drug allergies
□ Poorly controlled asthma
□ Underlying lung disease

336
Q

What is FPIES

A

Type of non-IgE mediated food allergy

Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome

  • occurs in infants and young children
  • profuse vomiting and diarrhoea 2-4 hours after first exposure to allergen
337
Q

Mx of allergic rhinitis

A

Avoidance/ reduction measures
Drugs: oral antihistamines (end gen), intranasal corticosteroids (fluticasone)

Allergy immunotherapy

338
Q

What are the 4 types of child abuse?

A
Physical
Emotional
Neglect
Sexual 
\+/- family violence witnessing
339
Q

What do you do if you suspect child abuse?

A

Mantatory reporting if you have reasonable grounds to suspect it is causing harm to child and parents have failed or are unlikely to protect them.

Look up number to call on child protection website.
‘Child FIRST’ referral

340
Q

What sort of injuries might indicate child abuse?

A

Bruising (esp on buttox, ears and peri-orbital)

Posterior rib fractures and epicondylar fractures from shaking

341
Q

DDX midline neck lump in a child

A
  1. thyroglossal cyst (will elevate on protrusion of tongue and swallowing)
  2. Thyroid lump
  3. Thymus lump
342
Q

Features of psoriasis in children

  • Appearance
  • Location
  • Complication(s)
A

□ Deep salmon red colour, silver scaly plaques

Commonly on extensor surfaces, scalp, nails, umbilicus

In childhood get more post-strep guttate pattern on trunk

Complications: arthritis (1/10)

343
Q

What is tinea and what is it’s typical appearance?

A

Tinea is ringworm. fungal infection.

Typical appearance is spreading ring rash

344
Q

What virus causes roseola?

A

Human Herpes Virus 6 and 7

345
Q

Systemic complications of port-wine stain birth

A

CCF
Brain PHACES
Hypothyroid

346
Q

Possible causes of hair loss in kids

A

Alopecia Areata (autoimmune hair loss in patches)

Tinea Wapitis (focal hair loss w underlying scaly erythematous lesions)

347
Q

Treatment of atopic eczema

A

Face - topical hydrocortisone and steroid-sparing medications (weaker)

Body - topical methylprednisilone (stronger)

Regular emollients

Treat secondary infection (ex: staph)

Identify and remove any potential allergens and irritants

348
Q

Treatment of psoriasis (3)

A
  1. Topical
    - Keratolytics (salicylic acid) if scaly
    - Steroids
    - Emollients
    - Vitamin D and A (retinoids)
  2. Phototherapy in older kids not responding to steroids
  3. Systemic (difficult, severe, resistant cases)
    - Retinoids (vit A)
    - Methotrexate
349
Q

ABCs of a paediatric behavioural history

  • red flags of each
A

Antecedent (trigger)
- Red flags: no clear/reasonable trigger, occurring in multiple environments

Behaviour

  • Red flags: developmentally inappropriate, regression, multiple concerning behaviours
  • ASK SPECIFICALLY ABOUT: eat, sleep, play*

Consequences (what happens after; how does this affect the child and those around them and functioning)
- Red flags: harmful to self and others, affecting functioning of child and/or family

350
Q

What do you suspect if a baby has a massively distended abdomen AT BIRTH

  • hasn’t passed meconium
  • vomiting bile

What if they were only distended a day or 2 after birth?

A

Distended at birth: think meconium ileum in a child w F

Distended a day or 2 after birth: think

  • distal bowel obstruction (anorectal anomalies/imperf anus)
  • hershsprung’s disease (rectal stimulation will give sudden gush of merconium)
351
Q

What condition is duodenal atresia associated with? How would this present?

A

30% risk of down syndrome w duodenal atresia

Bowel obstruction WITHOUT distended abdomen (empty hypogastrium with distended epigastrium dye to duodenal/jejunal obstruction)
in a nutritionally deficient baby (thin, pale, ribs visible)

352
Q

Classic x-ray finding of duodenal atresia

A

Double bubble sign
- distended stomach and duodenum separated by pyloric valve

(Have complete closure of portion of lumen of duodenal so get ballooning of lumen proximal to this)

353
Q

What is hirschsprung’s disease?

A

A form of megacolon occurring when part or all of large intestine have no ganglion cells therefore are in constant state of contraction, causing distal bowel obstruction

Presentation: failure to pass meconium within 48 hours od devilry
+/- abdo distension, vomiting, explosive stools following rectal stimulation, bloody diarrhoea

354
Q

What do you suspect in a baby who is unable to swallow and is constantly dribbling/drooling saliva?

How do you examine for this?

A

Oesophageal atresia
(drooling baby until proven otherwise)

Passing catheter through mouth and seeing how far it travels will establish whether oesophagus is non-patent or not

355
Q

What BMI percentile cut off qualifies as FTT?
Overweight?
Obese?

A

<5th centile: FTT

85-95th centiles: overweight

> 95th centile: obese

356
Q

Features of turner syndrome

A

XO karyotype

  • Short girl relative to family
  • Pubertal failure
  • Webbed beck
  • hearing, renal defects
  • CHD, HTN
357
Q

Endocrine causes of short stature

A

Hypothyroid most commonly (elevated BMI, constipation, sluggish behaviour etc)

Cushing’s disease (GC excess) - elevated BMI

GH deficiency

358
Q

What is a form of skeletal dysplasia and how is this generally picked up?

A

Achondroplasia (dwarfism)

  • Autosomal dominent, picked up antenatally on ultrasound
359
Q

Red flags for investigating short stature

A

abnormal growth velocity

signs of chronic disease on systems review/exam

abnormally short for family

<1st centile

Obvious dysmorphic/syndromic features

360
Q

What is the definition of failure to thrive?

A

Failure to thrive is being <3% for weight or dropping 2 or more percentile tracks

361
Q

what are the three main complications in kids of renal failure?

A

Anaemia
Metabolic bone disease (renal osteodystrophy and hyperparathyroidism)
Poor growth

362
Q

what is haemolytic uraemia syndrome?

A

microangiopathic

363
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI?

A

Pre-renal cause (hypo perfusion due to septic shock, hypovolaemia, haemmhorage, severe dehydration etc)

364
Q

Which electrolyte reflects water balance in the body?

A

[Na] w normal range 135-145mmol/L

[Na] high: dehydrated
[Na] low: over-hydrated

365
Q

What is a severe complication of SiADH?

Around what [Na] does this occur?

A

Water retention from ADH release -> Cerebral oedema -> raised ICP -> hyponatraemic encephalopathy and brainstem herniation

Occurs around [Na] 120 in kids

366
Q

What are the clinical signs of dehydration and what % body weight of fluid is lost with each?

  • Mild
  • Moderate
  • Severe
A

Mild (<4%)
-none

Moderate (4-6%)

  • delayed cap refill
  • increased RR
  • mildly decr tissue turgor
  • sunken eyes and fontanelles
  • oliguria/decr wet nappies

Severe (>=7%)

  • cap refill >3sec
  • mottled skin
  • irritable, decr conscious state, hypotensive
  • deep, acidotic breathing
  • decr tissue turgor
367
Q

How do you evaluate fluid status in a child?

A

Daily weights (Loss of body weight in g = estimated fluid deficit in ml)

Fluid charts (daily intake and losses)

Daily UEC and BSL monitoring

Clinical signs

368
Q

When replacing a fluid deficit, over how long should you replace that deficit?

A

Over 24 hours

UNLESS they are hypo or hypernatraemic, then replace over 24-72 hours

369
Q

Why is NGT preferred over IV rehydration in kids?

A

Less likely to cause electrolyte imbalances

370
Q

What fluid do we use for rehydration in children and neonates?

A

Children: normal saline with 5% dextrose

Neonates: normal saline with 10% dextrose

371
Q

What is the 4/2/1 rule of fluid resus?

When might you stray from this and why?

A

First 10kg body weight: 4ml/kg/hr

Second 10kg: 2ml/kg/hr

Over 20kg: 1ml/kg/hr

1/2 or 2/3 maintenance for kids w severe illness due to SiADH causing fluid retention (meningitis, encephalitis, head trauma, surgery, resp issues)

372
Q

What can happen if serum [Na] changes too rapidly?

A

Cerebral oedema, seizures and permanent brain damage

Central pontine myelinosis occurs as a consequence of a rapid rise in serum tonicity following treatment in individuals with chronic, severe hyponatremia

373
Q

What referral(s), if any, would you give a chid w school-based learning and behaviour problems?

A

Educational psychologist to test:

  • Vision
  • Hearing
  • Cognitiion
374
Q

When do you refer for speech therapy and audiology assessment?

A

<50 words at 2yo
No 2 word combinations at 2.5yo
No understanding of simple instructions without gesture

375
Q

Differentials for an irritable baby who is sleeping poorly

A

Colic
GORD/physiological reflux
Poor maternal/child relationship
Cow’s milk protein allergy

376
Q

Features of colic

A
PURPLE CRYING
Peaks at 6-8 weeks
Unexpected
Resists soothing
Pain-like face 
Long-lasting (crying for >5 hours a day at times)
Evening (sleep deficit is at peak)
377
Q

When might a child have lactose intolerance?

A

Never BORN with lactose intolerance - all kids under 3 have high levels of lactase.

They may only have it secondary to coeliac, IBD, giardiasis, CMPA which destroy the intestinal brush border which attaches to lactase

378
Q

What may the presentation of CMPA be?

What are the rates of resolution?

A

Regurgitation, vomiting after feeds
Stool changes (diarrhoea/constipation, blood)
Skin/eczematous rash
FHX atopy

50% resolve by 1yo; 80% by 3yo

379
Q

Management of physiological reflux in infants

A

Raise head of head
Thicken formula

Omeprazole is just a bandaid - decreases acidity but doesn’t prevent reflux.

380
Q

What is the character and location of a pulmonary flow murmur?

A

Pulmonary area +/- radiation to axilla

Soft blowing ejection systolic murmur

381
Q

Systolic murmurs in kids

ejection vs pan systolic

A

Ejection:

  • innocent pulmonary flow murmur
  • AS
  • PS
  • Bicuspid aortic valve

Pan systolic:

  • MR
  • VSD
382
Q

Diastolic murmurs in kids

Early
Mid
Late

A

Early:

  • AR
  • Pulmonary Regurg

Mid

  • MS
  • Large VSD

Late
- MS (with atrial contraction)

383
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A

Appearance (colour) - pale or blue/body pink extremities blue/pink

Pulse rate - absent/<100/>100

Grimace (reflex irritability) - none/some/vigorous, cry

Activity (tone) - floppy/some flexion/good flexion

Respiratory rate - apnoeic/irregular/active crying

384
Q

Where do you place the SaO2 probe on neonates and what does this represent?

A

R hand or wrist

= pre ductal pulse oximetry

385
Q

When is peak surfactant produced in babies and below what age is it not enough to keep alveoli patent?

A

Peak at 37 weeks (term)

Not enough surfactant to keep alveoli open below 32 weeks

386
Q

risk factors for hypoglycaemia in neonates

A

Maternal/gestational diabetes
Delay in feeding
Preterm
Growth retarded and sick infants

387
Q

What affect does prematurity have on the kidneys?

A

Kidneys are unable to reabsorb phosphate which results in demineralisation of bones in order to increase serum [Ph]

388
Q

How do you test for bone disease of prematurity

Mx?

A

Ix: test blood ALP and urine Phosphate levels

Mx: Ph and Ca supplements

389
Q

When do you expect each of the following shunts to close:

  1. Ductus venous
  2. Foramen vale
  3. Ductus arteriosus
A
  1. Ductus venosus
    - Over 3-7 days
  2. Foramen ovale
    - Functionally closes in first few breathes of life (but is not fully closed in 50% children by 5yo)
  3. Ductus arteriosus
    - 3-4 days in 95% term babies
390
Q

Causes of apnoea in premies

A
  1. Apnoea of prematurity is most common in otherwise well bubs (caffeine as Mx)
  2. Infection (empirical antibiotics until infx is ruled out!)
  • lung disease
  • hypoxia
  • academia
  • drugs
  • metabolic disturbances (hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hyper/hypomagnasaemia)
  • Intracranial haemmhorage
  • polycythaemia w hyperviscosity
  • Necrotising enterocolitis
  • CHD (PDA)
391
Q

RFs for prematurity

A

1/2 of premature births don’t have RFs

  1. Maternal factors
    - previous preterm
    - extremes of maternal age
    - low pre-pregnant weight/malnourished
    - acute illness
    - pre-eclampsia/eclampsia
    - previous miscarriage or termination of pregnancy
    - HX infertility
    - IVF
  2. Fetal factors
    - fetal anomalies
    - polyhydramnios
  3. Placenta and membrane difficulties
  4. Social
    - Low SES
    - psychological stress
    - Alch, drugs, smoking
392
Q

Complications of prematurity (acute)

A

Resp

  • RDS/HMD
  • apnoea of prematurity

Cardiac
-PDA

Neurological

  • intraventricular haemmhorage
  • periventricular leukomalacia
  • Cerebral palsy

Hepatic

  • Hypo/hyperglycaemia
  • Jaundice

Renal

  • Bone disease of prematurity
  • electrolyte imbalances (hypo/hypernatraemia, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis)

GI

  • feeding difficulties
  • NEC

Infection due to immature immune system

Temp instability

393
Q

Late/chronic effets of prematurity

A

Delayed growth (usually catch up

Retinopathy of prematurity

Chronic lung disease of prematurity

Neurodevelopment delay (CP, blindness, deafness)

394
Q

Most common cause for IUGR?

A

placental compromise

395
Q

Gross Motor milestones

A

Head lag minimal at 6-8 weeks

Rolling at 3-5 mo

Sitting at 6 months

Crawling at 9 mo

Walking at 12 mo

Jumps BY 3 years

Balances on one foot BY 4.5 years

396
Q

Red flag for gross motor

A

Not walking by 18mo

397
Q

Fine motor milestones

A

Palmar grasp by 6mo

Inferior pincer by 9mo

Pincer grip, stacks 2 cubes ~ 12mo

Handedness 18mo

Spontaneous scribbling by 2years

Imitates vertical line by 3 years

Copies face/ladder by 4.5 years

398
Q

Social and daily living skills milestone red flags

A

No interest in other children/help w dressing at 24 months

NO interactive play with peers at 3 years

No imaginative role play by 4 years

399
Q

Paracetamol overdose treatment in kids

A
  1. If dose ingested is possibly >10g or >200mg/kg, start NAC
  2. measure paracetamol concentration 4 hours post-ingestion
  3. If above treatment threshold, continue NAC
  4. repeat paracetamol concentration, UECs, LFTs on completion.
400
Q

Main infectious agents of cellulitis

Ix

Mx

A

S aureus and Strep progenies (consider HIB in unimmunised children <5yo)

Ix: blood cultures

Mx: Flucloxacillin po or IV if fever, rapid progression
+/- ceftriaxone to cover HIB if unimmunised, <5yo

401
Q

What is Prader-willi syndrome?

A

Behaviourial/developmental disability featuring food seeking, ODD and OCD, mild features of ASD as children
- incr risk of psychosis, T2DM, OSA, scoliosis as adults

Excessive appetite and lack of satiety -> risk of obesity

Genetic - loss of paternally expressed genes

402
Q

Features of autism

A
  1. Problems w socialisation
    - poor eye contact
    - difficulties w gestures
    - not responding to name
    - failure to socialise w others
  2. Problems w communication
    - limited use of language
    - no imaginative play or social imitative play
  3. Repetitive or obsessive behaviours
    - repetitive play
    - inflexible, repetitive use of language
    - unusually obsessions w inflexible and limited interests
    - self-stimulating behaviours (toe walking, hand flapping, jumping in place, making sounds, grinding teeth etc)
403
Q

What is ‘croup’?

Presentation

Aetiology

MX

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

Presentation: barking cough +/- stridor on exertion (at rest = severe)

Aetiology: Parainfluenza

Mx: supportive treatment for most kids
- If stridor at rest, single dose of oral DEX then Observe for half an hour post steroid administration. Discharge once stridor-free at rest.

  • If severe: O2, IM/IV dex, neb adrenaline, intubation or tracheostomy

If good improvement, observe for 4 hours post adrenaline. Consider discharge once stridor free at rest.
If deterioration/no improvement, give further adrenaline and consider admission or transfer as appropriate.

404
Q

Complications of viral URTIs

A
  • Otitis media
  • Acute sinusitis
  • Bacterial superinfection
  • Progression to LRTI (bronchitis, croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia)
  • Asthma exacerbation
405
Q

What are the bag bugs you have to watch out for that can cause pharyngitis?

Defining features

A
  1. EBV
    - exudative tonsillitis assoc w cervical lymphadenopathy and generalised flu-like SX
  2. HSV-1
    Mucosal ulceration
  3. Enteroviruses (Coxsackie A/B, echoviruses)
    - assoc w oral ulcers and rash
  4. Strep throat (pyogenies)
    - exudative tonsilitis, strawberry tongue, widespread erythematous rash, tender enlarged cervical lymph nodes, high fever
406
Q

Presentation: bilateral swelling, tenderness, pain in parotid glands

What is the diagnosis?

A

Mumps.

407
Q

Most common causative agent of acute otitis media.

What would you see on ear exam?

How do you treat?

A

Strep pneumonia most common (H. influenza and moraxella catarrhalis)

See red bulging TM, presence of middle ear fluid

Analgesics. Limited value in treating w antibiotics as pain resolves in 2-7days

408
Q

Maintains of MX of URTIs

A
  • self-limiting and don’t require pharm. intervention unless they are complicated
  • influenza and pneumococcal vaccine as prevention
  • reduce exposure to tobacco smoke
  • hygiene to reduce transmission rates
409
Q

Features of asthma

SX

Signs

A

SX:
Wheeze and SOB
Responsive to salbutamol
Chest tightness, coughing (worse at night and in morning)

Signs:

  • tracheal tug, WOB
  • prolonged exp. phase
  • exp wheeze
  • tachypnoea
  • decr RR and absent wheeze, decr breathe sounds in severe asthma
410
Q

Asthma management plan (and what features define each stage?)

  1. mild
  2. moderate
  3. severe
  4. critical
A

1 dose salbutamol: 6 puffs if <6yo or 12 puffs if >6yo

  1. mild: 1 dose salbutamol and review after 20min. If good response, D/C on salbutamol PRN. Poor response, treat as moderate
  2. Moderate (incr WOB, disrupted sentences, tachycardia): Salbutamol 1 dose every 20min for 1 hour. review 10-20 min after 3rd dose to determine freq of next dose.
    O2 if saO2<92%
  3. Severe (agitated/distressed, marked WOB and limitation of speaking ability): Salbutamol 1 dose every 20min for 1 hour -> if responding, incr time between doses. If not responding, continue dosing even 20min.
    + o2 as above.
    +/- atrovent via MDI/spacer every 20min for 1 hour only.
    +/- IV Mg sulfate
    +/- IV aminophylline
  4. Critical (silent chest, confused/drwosy, no talking)
    - O2
    - Continuous nebuliser salbutamol
    - Nebulised iprotropium (3x in 1st hour only)
    - IV methylpred
    - IV Aminophylline and MgSulfate
    +/- ICU admission

+ 3 days oral pred with each (2mg/kg `day 1 then 1mg/Kg day2,3)

411
Q

Signs of salbutamol toxicity?

A

Tachycardia, tachypnoea, metabolic acidosis. Can occur with both IV and inhaled therapy. Lactate commonly high.

412
Q

Stridor
-differentials

  • Inx?
A

Acute

  • most common acute cause in kids is CROUP
  • retropharyngeal abscess
  • peritonsillar (quinsy) abscess
  • laryngeal trauma

Persistent

  • laryngomalacia most common cause of persistent stridor
  • subglottic stenosis
  • subglottic haemangioma

INX: only if stridor is persistent with an expiratory component (severe) = bronchoscopy

413
Q

Differentials for wheeze

A

Since birth:
- airway malacia (tracheomalacia or bronchomalacia)

Gradual onset SX

  • Asthma
  • Recurrent viral-induced wheeze
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Cardiac causes

Sudden onset SX

  • LRTI (bronchiolitis, viral pneumonitis, bacterial bronchitis)
  • Inhaled foreign body
414
Q

RF for TB infection

A
Emigrants from developing countries
Low SES
Indigenous
Immunodeficiency 
<5yo
415
Q

Chronic cough DDX and first line IX

A

Asthma

Viral or bacterial URTI or LRTI

Cardiac (pulm HTN, pulm oedema)

Bronchiectasis (CF, primary ciliary dyskinesia, immunodeficiency, foreign body etc)

Aspiration

Chronic/less common infx (Tb, pertussis, mycoplasma, atypical pneumonia)

Interstitial lung disease (rheumatic diseases, cytotoxic, drugs, radiation)

GOR

Psychogenic

FIRST line Ix: CXR and spirometry if >6yo

416
Q

Presentation of bronchiectasis

A

□ Chronic moist or productive cough, WORSE in mornings
□ Clubbing
□ Chest wall abnormalities (hyperinflation, pectus carinatum)
□ Inspiratory creps

417
Q

Mx of cystic fibrosis

A
  1. Antibiotics to reduce bacterial colonisation and biofilm formation of resp tract
  2. Physio to promote mucociliary clearance
  3. Vaccines: pneumococcal and influenza
  4. High energy diet and pancreatic supplements (Creon)
  5. Vitamin and salt supplements

+/- lung and liver transplants at end-stage

418
Q

DDX diarrhoea

A

Osmotic

  • IBS
  • Laxatives

Secretory
- Gastro (ETEC, cholera)

Inflammatory

  • IBD
  • Surgical (appendicitis, interception)
  • Sepsis, UTI
  • NEC

Motility

  • Hyperthyroid
  • Diabetic neuropathy

Malabsorption

  • Coeliac
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Giardia
  • CMPA
419
Q

Red flags for diarrhoea

A

SX of Dehydration (dizzy, decr urine output, lethargic)

Prolonged diarrhoea

Blood in stool

Systemically unwell

FTT

Bilious commits

Acute abdo (severe abdo pain and tenderness)

420
Q

When do do a renal U/S for kids w UTIs

A

If <6mo: U/S during acute infection if atypical UTI or recurrent UTI OR within 6 weeks if responds to treatment within 48 hrs

If >6mo: U/S during acute infection if atypical UTI only OR within 6 weeks if recurrent UTI only . If responds to treatment within 48 hrs no need for imaging.

421
Q

Features of atypical UTIs

A
  • Seriously ill/septicaemia
  • Poor urine flow
  • Abdo or bladder mass
  • Raised creatinine (deranged renal fun)
  • Failure to respond to Ab treatment within 48 hours
  • Non-ecoli isolated
422
Q

Acute management of UTIs

A

<3mo: IV antis

> 3mo, pyelo/upper UTI: PO cephalosporin or augmentin (7-10days)

> 3mo, cystitis/lower UT: PO cephalosporin, trimethoprim (3 days)

423
Q

Causes of non-blanching rashes

A

Viral most common (but higher % bacterial than w blanching rashes) - enterovirus, influenza

N. Meningitidis 
Other bacteria (Strep pneumonia, HIB)

HSP, ITP, DIC

Leukaemia

Mechanical trauma

424
Q

Causes of blanching rashes

A
VIRAL most common cause
Enterovirus
Adenovirus
Coxsachie virus
Rhinovirus
RSV
Measles 
Parvovirus B19 (itchy)
Bacterial  - toxic shock syndrome
425
Q

How does parvovirus cause fetal anaemia?

A

bone marrow suppression which decr production of erythrocytes

426
Q

what about fevers can cause febrile convulsions?

A

Rate of temp rise rather than the degree of temperature itself

427
Q

Steven Johnson syndrome results due to what causes?

what is the classic presentaiton

A

Flu-Like symptoms as prodrome followed by red/purple rash that spreads and forms blisters (skin, mucous membranes, genitals, eyes)

Main cause: mycoplasma infection
- drug reactions (anti epileptics)
-

428
Q

Causative agents of osteomyelitis/septic arthritis

Management?

A

Staph aureus #1!!
Strep pyogenies and haemophilus influenzae

Mx:

  1. REFER TO ORTHO for aspiration +/- athrotomy and washout
  2. IV fluclox
  3. Elevate and immobilise limb
429
Q

Rule of 2s of Meckel’s diverticulum

A
2% population
2:1 male:female
2 feet above ileocecal valve
2 inches long
2% patients develop complications over lifetime, typically before age of 2.
430
Q

How can mocker’s diverticulum present?

A
Abdo pain (Related to bowel obstruction, Meckel's diverticulitis or perforation)
GI bleeding 
SX of bowel obstruction
431
Q

What does a high reticulocyte count indicate?

Low reticulocyte count?

A

® Incr -> indicates marrow response to ?haemolysis

® Decr -> indicates lack of marrow response -> ? Deficiency in necessary iron or vitamins OR ? Inability to respond (marrow aplasia or infiltration)

432
Q

Causative agents of osteomyelitis/septic arthritis

Management?

A

Staph aureus #1!!
Strep pyogenies and haemophilus influenzae

Mx:

  1. REFER TO ORTHO for aspiration +/- athrotomy and washout
  2. IV fluclox
  3. Elevate and immobilise limb
433
Q

Rule of 2s of Meckel’s diverticulum

A
2% population
2:1 male:female
2 feet above ileocecal valve
2 inches long
2% patients develop complications over lifetime, typically before age of 2.
434
Q

How can meckel’s diverticulum present?

A
Abdo pain (Related to bowel obstruction, Meckel's diverticulitis or perforation)
GI bleeding 
SX of bowel obstruction
435
Q

What is HUS?

A

STEC (also known as VTEC) infection can cause bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdo pain, vomiting and sometimes haemolytic uraemic syndrome. Infection usually results from consuming contaminated food or water, or from contact with infected animals or people.

HUS is a severe condition characterised by kidney failure, bleeding and anaemia. It can sometimes be fatal. -> bruising/petechial rash (low Plts), haemolytic anaemia, reduced consciousness, reduced urination, HTN, seizures.

436
Q

Definition of failure to thrive

A

Infant’s weight below 3rd centile or >2SD below population mean

Weight crossing 2 major centile lines with time

437
Q

Risk factors for FTT

A

Prematurity

IUGR

438
Q

Causes of FTT

What 2 are most common

A

Reduced intake (most common)

  1. Inadequate caloric intake (poor feeding etc)
  2. Psychosocial
    - maternal depression/poor maternal-child bond
    - difficulties at home

Incr metabolism
- Chronic or intercurrent illness, infections (UTI, Thyroid, CF, CHD, CRF, chromosomal, atopy, Tb, HIV etc)

Reduced nutrient absorption

  • Coeliac
  • CMPA
  • IBD
439
Q

What are some methods of increasing caloric intake in infants with FTT

A

Dietary advice and monitoring

Breast-fed infant:
Supplementing breastfeeds with EBM or formula afterwards

Formula-fed infant:

  • Increase forumla concentration or add glucose polymer (extra calories) to bottle
  • introduce solids or add calories to solids
440
Q

Indications for an epipen

A
  • anaphylaxis
  • also has asthma as well as allergy
  • geographical distance from emergency medical services
441
Q

Indications for Food challenge

A
  • uncertain HX

- borderline skin prick testing (~3mm)

442
Q

What organism causes meningococcaemia?

What is different about managing this condition as a cause for sepsis and/or meningitis?

A

Neisseria Meningiditis

Notifiable disease!

  • patient req isolation until 12hours IV antis
  • notify the Department of Human Services
  • Rifampicin prophylaxis to all close contacts (household, day-care, intimate relations in pst 7 days)
443
Q

Emergency management of severe anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline - 0.5mc Adrenaline IM, give every 5 min if not responding

Airway - intubation + neb adrenaline if required
+/- oral corticosteroids and nebulised salbut for bronchospasm
B - high flow O2
C - circulation (supine w legs elevated to prevent collapse)

Exposure - H2 antagonists for skin involvement

444
Q

DX and MX of eosinophilic esophagitis

A

DX: gastroscopy and biopsy histology
MX: food avoidance (dairy, wheat, egg, soy triggers), swallowed aerosolised CS

445
Q

Emergency fluid rhesus in shocked patients

A

Give boluses of 10-20ml/kg of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), which may be repeated once (Give second 20ml/kg bolus if required to a total vol of 40ml/kg)

® If persisting hypotenseion after second bolus, give inotropes (Adren/NA in 500ml 0.9% normal saline)

446
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics for sepsis

A

<1mo: benpen and cefotaxime

>1mo: flucloxacillin and ceftriaxone

447
Q

What is HSP and how does it typically present?

A

Most common vasculitis of childhood

Purpura + abdo pain + arthralgia +/- renal involvement (haematuria/proteinuria/hypertension)

Often preceded by viral URTI

448
Q

Dx and Mx of HSp

A

Dx: urine test

Mx: supportive (paracetamol +/- NSAIDs, oral or IV corticosteroids relieve joint and abdo pain)

449
Q

features of colic

A

Completely benign, normal part of development

Peaks at 2 months (Begins: 2 weeks of age and continues until about 3-4 months of age).
Unexpected
Resists soothing (INCONSOLABLE crying) 
Pain-like face 
Long-lasting (up to 5 hours of crying)
Evening
450
Q

Newborn that appears normal but has resp distress when NOT crying. Pink when crying but makes vigorous resp efforts and becomes dusky when stops crying.

What is the likely explanation and how would you diagnose this?

A

Choanal atresia. Infants are obligate nose breathers until 4 months of age - choanal atresia occurs when an infant has a structurally non-patent nose.

DX by inability to pass a feeding tube through nostril or clouding of cold metal under infant’s nose?

451
Q

Contraindications to vaccines

A

Known allergy to ingredient
Previous anaphylaxis
Immunocompromised