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ADAMS > Intracranial Neoplasms and Paraneoplastic Disorders > Flashcards

Intracranial Neoplasms and Paraneoplastic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Germ Cell Tumors (6)

A 
Germinoma
Embryonal Carcinoma
Yolk Sac Tumor (Endodermal Sinus Tumor)
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma
Mixed Germ Cell Tumors
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2
Q

Most common forms of glioma

A

astrocytic tumors

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3
Q

Grading represent a spectrum in terms of growth potential

A

degree of nuclear atypia
cellularity mitoses
vascular proliferation

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4
Q

features of glioblastomas (2)

A

necrosis and anaplasia of nonneural elements

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5
Q

subdivision of ependymomas (4)
2C
2M

A

cellular
myxopapillary
clear cell
mixed types

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6
Q

classifications of meningiomas (4)
based on cytoarchitecture and genetic origin

MFAM

A

meningothelial or syncitial
fibroblastic
angioblastic
malignant

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7
Q

histology: hypercellularity with pleomorphism of cells and nuclear atypia
identifiable astrocytes with fibrils in combination with primitive forms in many cases
tumor giant cells and cells in mitosis
hyperplasia of endothelial cells of small vessels and necrosis hemorrhage and thrombosis of vessels

A

GBM

variegated appearance distinguish GBM from anaplastic astrocytoma

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8
Q

Genetic Changes in GBM for

  1. old pts
  2. young
A
  1. amplification of the EGFR gene

2. mutations of the p53 gene

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9
Q

True of False

progression of astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas to more malignant forms has been related to the enzyme isocitrate degydrogenase , encoded by genes IDH1 and IDH2

A

True

p645
presence of mutations in the genes that code for IDH 1 and 2 relates to less tumor progression and better outcomes

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10
Q

natural history in GBM

A

<20% survive one year after onset of symptoms

10% live beyond 2 years

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11
Q

survival with anaplastic astrocytoma in years

A

3-5 years

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12
Q

cranial irradiationto a total dose of 6000cGy increases survival by ___ months

A

% months

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13
Q

Stupp trial temozolomide

A

median survival of 14.6 months with radiation and tmz
12.1 months with radiation

2 year survival 10 to 27%

drug is administered daily 75mg/m2 concurrently with RT and after a hiatus of 4 weeks given 5 d every 28 d for 6 cycles

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14
Q

complications of TMZ

A

thrombocytopenia and leukopenia in 5 to 10% of patients

rare cases of pneumocystis carinii

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15
Q

response to TMZ if with high levels of methyltransferase protein (MGMT)

A

resistant to chemo

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16
Q

True or False

Almost all GBM recur within 2cm of their original site and 10 percent develop additional lesions at distant locations

A

True

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17
Q

Antiangiogenic agents, VEGF inhibitor, sometimes given in combination to chemo may delay progression and greaty reduce cerebral edema

A

bevacizumab

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18
Q

Median survival for anaplastic astrocytoma

A

2-5 years or longer

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19
Q

histologic classifications of astrocytoma (4)

A
  1. protoplasmic/ fibrillary
  2. gemistocytic (enlarged cells distended with hyaline and eosinophilic material)
  3. pilocytic (elongated bipolar cells)
  4. mixed astrocytoma-oligodendroglioma
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20
Q

T/F

cerebral astrocytoma is a slowly growing tumor of infitrative character with a tendency in some cases to form large cavities or pseudocysts

A

True

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21
Q

T/F
fine granules of calcium may be deposited in parts of the tumor, but calcium in a slow-growing intracerebral tumor is more characteristic of an oligodendroglioma

A

True

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22
Q

survival rate after excision of cystic astrocytoma of cerebellum

A

5 yera survival of greater than 90%

outcome is less assured when the tumor involves the brainstem

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23
Q

prognosis of low grade supratentorial tumors

A

10 year survival after operation was from 11-40% if with 5,300cGy given postopt

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24
Q

high grade glioma, diffuse infiltration of neoplastic glial cells involving much of one or both cerebral hemispheres with sparing of neuronal elements but without a discrete tumor mass

A

Gliomatosis cerebri

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25
Q

True or False

Imaging gliomatosis cerebri
contrast enhancement is scant

A

true

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26
Q

constitute 5 to 7 % of intracranial gliomas
derived from oligodendrocytes or their precursor cells
may occur at any age, most often 30-40
earlier peak at 6-12 yrs

A

Oligodendroglioma

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27
Q

pink gray color, multilobar relatively avascular and firm (tougher than surrounding brain)
tendency to encapsulate and form calcium and small cysts

A

Oligodendroglioma

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28
Q

most common site for oligodendroglioma, often deep in white matter with one or more streaks of calcium but little or no surrounding edema

A

frontal and temporal lobes 40-70 %

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29
Q

intratumoral calcification can be seen in more than half of theses cases

A

oligodendroglioma

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30
Q

differentials for oligodendroglioma with calcification seen on scan but with the context of seizures

A

AVM or low grade astrocytoma

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31
Q

oligodendroglioma
loss of certain alleles on chromosome ____ has been predictive of a high degree of responsiveness to _____ chemo regimen

similar loss of chromosome ____ has been associated with longer survival

A

chrom 1p - responsive to chemo
PCV procarbazine, cyclophosphamide, vincristine)

chrom 19q - with longer survival

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32
Q

type of ependymoma localized exclusively in the filum terminale

A

myxopapillomatous

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33
Q

Most common glioma of spinal cord

A

ependymoma

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34
Q

most common cerebral site for ependymoma

A

4th ventricle

grayish, pink, firm, cauliflower-like growths

in the cerebrum (lateral ventricle) reddish gray, softer and more clearlyd emarcated

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35
Q

originates from the dura mater or arachnoid

A

meningioma

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36
Q

cells of meningiomas are relatively uniform with round or elongated nuclei, visible cytoplasmic membrane and a characteristic tendency to encircle one another forming

A

whorls and psammoma bodies

*notable electron microscope characteristic - formation of very complex interdigitations between cells and the presence of desmosomes

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37
Q

most common type of meningioma

A

meningothelial or syncytial

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38
Q

Most common locations of meningiomas

A

dural folds

frontoparietal parasagittal convexities, falx, tentorium cerebelli, sphenoid wings, olfactory groove, tuberculum sellae

90% are supratentorial

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39
Q

Grading of astrocytoma tumors

A

Grade I: pilocytic astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas, subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
Well-differentiated astrocytoma Grade II
Anaplastic Astrocytoma Grade III
GBM Grade IV

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40
Q

astrocytoma associated with Tuberous sclrerosis

A

subependymal giant cell astrocytomas

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41
Q

choroid plexus tumors divided into two classes

A

papillomas and carcinomas

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42
Q

50% of astrocytomas have deletions within this gene

A

tumor suppressor gene p53

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43
Q

After development of astrocytoma, progression to a more malignant grade may be triggered by defects in the: (3)

A

p16-retinoblastoma gene signaling pathway
Loss of chromosome 10 (90% of high-grade glioma)
over expression of Epidermal Growth Factor gene

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44
Q

T/F

Oligodendrogliomas that have combined deletions in
chromosomes 1p and 19q respond well to chemotherapy
and this property increases survival.

A

True

p645

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45
Q

Which of the ffg means good survival/less tumor progression

a. mutations in the genes that code for IDH 1 and 2 in gliomas and oligodendrogliomas
b. combined deletions in chrom 1p and 19q in oligodendrogliomas
c. amplifications of MYCN gene
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

D. A and B

amplification of MYCN oncogene - aggressive course, poor outcome in neuroblastoma and medulloblastoma

p645

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46
Q

VEGF is found in extremely high concentrations in

A

Meningiomas

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47
Q

Imaging findings of vasogenic vs cytotoxic edema

A

both cytotoxic and vasogenic
decreased attenuation on CT
hyperintensity on T2 MRI

cytotoxic : reduced diffusivity on DWI (increased anisotropy)
vasogenic: elevated diffusivity (reduced anisotropy)

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48
Q

dosing of Mannitol 25% solution

A
  1. 5 to 1.0g/kg over a period of 2 to 10 mins

* hyeprtonic saline are equally effective, 3,7, 23 %

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49
Q

characteristics of headache in brain tumor

A

slight, dull, episodic
dull or sharp, intermittent

nocturnal occurrence, presence on first awakening, deep, nonpulsatile quality

BUT these are not specific

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50
Q

Convulsions have of been observed in ___ to ____% of all patients with cerebral tumors

A

20-50%

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51
Q

T/F

A first seizure during adulthood is always suggestive of brain tumor and, in the authors’ experience, has been the most common initial manifestation of primary and metastatic neoplasm.

A

True

p649

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52
Q

T/F
In high grade gliomas

Malignant cells carried in the CSF may rarely form distant foci on spinal roots or cause a widespread meningeal gliomatosis.

A

True

p.650

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53
Q

T/F

In high grade gliomas

Extraneural metastases involving the bone and lymph nodes are common.

A

False

very rare
p650

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54
Q

How many percent of GBM

occupy more than one lobe of a hemisphere?
show multicentric foci of growth, simulating metastases

A

occupy more than one lobe of a hemisphere - 50%

show multicentric foci of growth, simulating metastases - 3-6%

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55
Q

Management in GBM

A

feasible resection, combined with chemo and RT

chemo - carmustine or lomustine increase survival slightly
cisplatin, carboplatin
-GMT group: clear but small benefit of chemo

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56
Q

tyrosine kinase inhibitors for GBM

A

erlotinib, gefitinib

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57
Q

Survival in GBM with

aggressive surgical removal and radiotherapy
no treatment

A

aggressive surgical removal and radiotherapy - 12 months

no treatment - 7-9 months

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58
Q

how many percent of patients with astrocytoma present with seizures

A

70%

2/3

59
Q

imaging pilocytic vs fibrillary astrocytoma

A

pilocytic
T1 - iso, hypointense,
T2 - hyperintense
sharply demarcated with smooth borders,marked enhancement of nodular solid

Fibrillary
T1 - hypointense
T2 - hyperintense
less well-defined borders and little or no contrast enhancement

60
Q

T/F

The natural history of the low-grade gliomas is to
grow slowly and eventually undergo malignant transformation.

A

True

p653

61
Q

Low and Intermediate Grade Astrocytome
A number of studies have come to the conclusion
that delaying radiation in younger patients may
avoid the consequences of

A

dementia

hypopituitarism

62
Q

T/F

Prognosis in Gliomatosis cerebri is good.

A

The prognosis is variable but generally poor, measured in months to a few years from the time of diagnosis.

63
Q

T/F

Some of the oligodendrocytes have intense immunoreactivity to GFAP.

A

True

p654

64
Q

accounts for 11% of the series of gliomas, that may metastasize distantly in ventricular and subarachnoid spaces when the tumor extends to the pial surface of ependymal wall

A

Oligodendroglioma

65
Q

characteristics of anaplastic ependymoma

A

high mitotic activity
endothelial proliferation
nuclear atypia
necrosis

66
Q

imaging characteristic of ependymoma

A

heterogenous hyperdense mass with fairly uniform contrast enhancement
calcification and some degree of cystic changes are common in supratentorial tumors

67
Q

T/F

Meningiomas represent approximately 15 percent
of all primary intracranial tumors; they are more common
in women than in men (2: 1) and have their highest
incidence in the sixth and seventh decades of life. Some
are familial.

A

True

p656

68
Q

most frequent acquired genetic defects of meningiomas are truncating (inactivating) mutations in the

A

neurofibromatosis 2 gene (merlin) on chrom 22q

69
Q

imaging findings meningioma

A

ready visualization with contrast-enhanced CT and MRl

which reveal their tendency to calcify as well as their prominent vascularity

70
Q 
preponderance in Men
peak- 5th thru 7th decade
3rd of 4th decade in patients with AIDS
origin: lymphocytes (diffuse large cell type)
tumor cells: B lymphocytes
A

CNS lymphoma

71
Q

T/F CNS lymphoma

  1. may arise in any part of cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem
  2. may be solitary or multifocal
  3. commonly periventricular in location
  4. 2/3 of patients with ocular lymphoma will have cerebral involvement in a year
A

T 1. may arise in any part of cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem - 60% cerebral
T 2. may be solitary or multifocal
T 3. commonly periventricular in location
T 4. 2/3 of patients with ocular lymphoma will have cerebral involvement in a year

72
Q

T/F

CNS lymphoma has a high tendency to developing necrosis.

A

False

p659

73
Q

imaging findings for CNS lymphoma

A

one or several dense (hypercellular), homogeneous, enhancing, infiltrating, nonnecrotic, nonhemorrhagic, periventricular masses is characteristic

74
Q

T/F

Diagnosis of CNS lymphoma is possible with CSF examination.

A

false

p659

75
Q

Preferred method for diagnosis in CNS lymphoma

A

Stereotactic needle biopsy is the preferred method of

establishing the histologic diagnosis in sporadic cases.

76
Q

treatment for CNS lymphoma

A

intravenous methotrexate 3.5g/m2 and citrovorum administered at 2-3 week intervals and at times continued indefinitely if the treatment is tolerated

trial: Batchelor T and Grossman S. (NABTT 96-07) High Dose Methotrexate Alone
MTX IV 8g/m2

77
Q

T/F

Ocular lymphomas is eradicated by radiation therapy.

A

True

p659

78
Q

survival in CNS lymphoma on IV methotrexate approach of treatment

A

non-AIDS survival 3.5 years, 4 years or more if radiation is given subsequently

some patients are alive for 10 years

79
Q

Metastases to the skull and dura are particularly common in

A

breast and prostate

80
Q

The metastatic tumors most likely to be single come from

A

kidney
breast
thyroid
adenocarcinoma of the lung

81
Q

hemorrhagic metastases

A 
melanoma
chroioepithelioma
lung
thyroid
kidney
82
Q

CT with and without contrast will detect metastases with as size of

A

1 cm

subcentimeter - MRI should be done

83
Q

Paraneoplastic disorders in CA

A

sensory neuronopthies and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome - usually with Carcinoma of the Lung

cerebellar degeneration - ovarian and other carcinomas, Hodgkin disease

necrotizing myelopathy

limbic encephalitis
opsoclonus - myoclonus syndrome

84
Q

Treatment options for Brain Mets

A

WBRT
10 doses of 300cGy each

steroids
High-dose focused RT

85
Q

Results of one RT comparing SRS vs WBRT in pts with 1-4 mets

A

No difference in survival

BUT there was a reduction in the frequency of recurrence at other sites in the brain with WBRT

86
Q

T/F

Intrathecal and intraventricular chemotherapy are not
thought to be of value in the treatment of parenchymal
metastases.

A

True

p662

87
Q

The average period of survival in cases of brain metastases, even with therapy

A

6 months

88
Q

CSF findings in carcinomatous meningitis

A

increased CSF pressure
elevated protein
low glucose
lymphocytic pleocytosis up to 100 or fewer

in a few patients CSF findings are Normal

89
Q

Treatment in Carcinomatous Meningitis

A

radiation therapy to symptomatic areas

followed by in selected cases, Intraventricular methotrexate

90
Q

median duration survival after diagnosis of carcinomatous meningitis

A

6 months

91
Q

Involvement of NS in Leukemia

incidence
acute vs chronic leukemia
lymphocytic vs myelocytic

A

more common in acute and lymphocytic

ALL

92
Q

T/F

Extradural compression o f the spinal cord o r cauda
equina is the most common neurologic complication
of all types of lymphoma.

A

True

p663

93
Q

T/F

Systemic lymphoma rarely metastasizes to the brain.

A

True

p663

94
Q

Chromosomal studies of medulloblastomas
reveal a deletion on the distal part of chromosome ____
distal to the p53 region.

A

Chrom 17

accounts for the neoplastic transformation of cerebellar stem cells at various stages of their differentiation into tumor cells

95
Q

in Medulloblastoma

Amplification or overexpression of the transcription factor ______ is associated with poorer prognosis

A

MYCN

96
Q

imaging Medulloblastoma

A

high signal intensity on both Tl- and T2-weighted MRIs heterogeneous enhancement
typical location adjacent to and extending into the fourth ventricle.
fairly well demarcated from the adjacent brain tissue

97
Q

Treatment for Medulloblastoma

A

maximal resection + chemo + RT of the entire neuraxis improves the rate and length of disease-free survival

98
Q

survival in Medulloblastoma

A

combination of Sx, chemo, RT

5-year survival in more than 80% of patients

99
Q

T/F
Medulloblastoma

The presence of desmoplastic features is associated with a poor prognosis independent of the type or treatment.

A

False

Better prognosis

100
Q

most common solid tumor of childhood

arises from the adrenal medulla and sometimes metastasizes widely

A

Neuroblastoma

101
Q

Paraneoplastic complication associated with Neuroblastoma

A

polymyoclonus with opsoclonus and ataxia

102
Q

CNS neoplasms of neuroectodermal origin

A

Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor

103
Q

tumor most often associaten with von-Hippel Lindau disease
dizziness, ataxia of gait, or of ICP from the compression of the 4th ventricle
in some instances with associated retinal angioma or hepatic and pancreatic cysts
tendency later to develop malignant adrenal and renal tumors

A

Hemangioblastoma of the Cerebellum

age of onset 15 - 50 yrs
Blakc whites and asians are equally affected

104
Q

4 types of pineal tumors

A

germinoma
non-germinomatous GCT
pinealoma (pineocytoma, atypical pineocytoma, pineoblastoma)
and a glioma

105
Q

also known as dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma, is a rare tumour of the cerebellum

A

Lhermitte-Duclos Disease

Associated with Cowden Disease ( tumors of breast, thyroid, endometrial)

106
Q

appearance in imaging of dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma

A

indistinnt mass of tiger stripe appearance

as a result of alternating layers of dysmorphic cerebellar cells

107
Q

tumor commonly associated with tuberous sclerosis

A

subependymal giant cell astrocytoma

108
Q

what is an inhibitor of mTOR complex reduces the sie of tumor and ameliorates seizures in Tuberous Sclerosis

A

Everolimus

109
Q

hallmark of NF 2

A

bilateral schwannoma

occurs before age 21
autosomal dominant

110
Q

criteria for NF 1

A

2/7 of the following

  1. Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules =5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and 15 mm postpubertal
  2. Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2 freckles)
  3. Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma
  4. Optic nerve glioma
  5. Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist
  6. Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis
  7. First-degree relative (eg, mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1
111
Q

benign epithelioid tumor
origin: cell rests (remnants of the Rathke pouch) at the junction of the infundibular system and pituitary gland
tumor is oval round, smooth surface
wall of the cysts and solid parts of tumor consists of cords and whorls of epithelial cells

A

Craniopharyngioma

112
Q

imaging Craniopharyngioma

A

increased signal on T1 because of cholesterol content

decreased T2 signal

113
Q

adenomas of the pituitary are most often composed of

A

chromophobe cells

114
Q

acidophil cells in the pituitary produce which hormones

A

prolactin
growth hormone
TSH

115
Q

Basophil cells of pituitary produce which hormones

A

ACTH
B-lipotropin
LH
FSH

116
Q

how many percent of tumors are prolactin secreting

A

60-70%

117
Q

T/F

pituitary tumors usually arise as discrete nodules in the anterior part of the gland or
adenohypophysis

A

True

118
Q

growth hormone antagonist introduced to reduce many of the manifestations of acromegaly

A

pegvisomant

119
Q

Cushing syndrome vs Cushing disease

A

Syndrome - effects of cortisol excess from - excessive administration of steroids, adenoma of adrenal cortex, ACTH-producing bronchial carcinoma, other carcinomas that produce ACTH

Disease - excessive secretion of pituitary ACTH

120
Q

Cushing disease clinical manifestations

A 
truncal obesity
hypertension
abdominal striae
hyperglycemia
osteoporosis
some: mental disorder
121
Q

diagnosis of Cushing Disease

A

demonstration of increased concentration of plasma and urinary cortisol
–these levels are not suppressed by small doses of dexamethasone 0.5mgQID but they are suppressed by high doses 8mg daily

122
Q

dopamine agonist given in prolactinoma

A

bromocriptine 0.5 to 1.25mg daily

123
Q

analogue of somatostatin, given in cases of acromegaly

A

octreotide
200mg/d
increased in divided doses to 1,600mg by increments of 200mg weekly

124
Q

this syndrome occurs as a result of infarction of an adenoma that has outgrown its blood supply
characterized by acute onset of headache that may be retro-orbital, frontal, bitemporal, or generalized ophthalmoplegia, bilateral visual loss, coma

A

Pituitary apoplexy

125
Q

arises from the remnants of the primitive notochord
located often within the clivus (from dorsum sella to foramen magnum) and in the sacrococcygeal region
affects males more than female
locally invasive but do not metastasize

A

Chordoma

126
Q

treatment for chordoma

A

excision and radiation

127
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome, antibody binds to

A

voltage-gated calcium channels at NMJ

128
Q

encephalitic process associated with carcinoma of the bronchus, usually of the small cell type
affects the medial temporal lobes, adjacent nuclei, brainstem, cerebellum or gray matter of SC
subacute, progressive

distinct features: confusiona-agitated state, memory defect, seizures - sometimes focal, hallucinations and dementia

A

Encephalomyelitis associated with Carcinoma and Limbic Encephalitis

129
Q

Most patients with small cell lung cancer and any of
the types of paraneoplastic encephalomyelitis have been
found to harbor circulating polyclonal IgG antibodies
______ that bind to the nuclei of neurons in many regions of the brain and spinal cord, dorsal root ganglion cells, and peripheral autonomic neurons.

A

Anti-Hu

130
Q

paraneoplastic encephalitis
an acute or subacute psychiatric syndrome
consisting of some combination of hallucinations, panic,
delusions, and incoherence, coupled with seizures, memory disturbance and hypoventilation

malaise, fatigue, headache excessive sleepiness, or
low fever
associated with teratoma - ovary or mediastinum
autonomic overactivity

A

Anti-NMDA Encephalitis

131
Q

distinctive syndrome that is associated in most
cases with the anti-Hu antibody
numbness, paresthesias, sometimes painful
lancinating pains at onset
as the illness progresses - all forms of sensation are greatly reduced resulting in disabling ataxia and pseudoathetoid movements

A

paraneoplastic sensory neuronopathy

132
Q

subacute onset and steady progression over a period of weeks to months
symmetrical ataxia of gait and limbs - affecting arms and legs more or less equally - dysarthria, nystagmus, vertigo
dancing eyes- dancing feet
pathologically - diffuse degenerative changes of the cerebellar cortex and deep cerebellar nuclei
purkinje cells are affected prominently

A

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

133
Q

antibodies in Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

anti-purkinje cell antibodies
anti-Yo

anti-Hu may also be present

134
Q

in children, this syndrome is usually a manifestation of neuroblastoma
but more common in adults in relation to breast and small cell lung CA

A

Opsoclonus-Myoclonus-Ataxia Syndrome

also seen in bronchial CA and gastric CA

135
Q

andtibody implicated in Opsoclonus-Myoclonus-Ataxia Syndrome

A

Anti-Ri
in cases of small cell lung CA

not seen in neuroblastoma

136
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
cerebellar degeneration

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-Yo (anti-purkinje cell)

ovary, fallopian tube, lung, Hodgkin disease

137
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
encephalomyelitis including limbic and brainstem encephalitis

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-Hu
(ANNA 1)

small cell, neuroblastoma, prostate, breast, Hodgkin, testicular

Anti-NMDA, anti-mGluR5 ovarian teratoma and other sites

138
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-Ri (ANNA2)

Breast, fallopian tube, small cell lung

139
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
retinal degeneration

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Antirecoverin (Anti-CAR)

small cell lung, thymoma, renal cell, melanoma

140
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
Subacute Sensory Neuropathy and Neuronopathy

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-Hu
(ANNA1)

small cell lung, Hodgkin, other lymphomas

141
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-voltage gated calcium channel (VGCG)

small cell lung, Hodgkin, other lymphomas

142
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
Stiff person syndrome, neuromyotonia

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Antiamphyphysin, Anti-Caspr2, Anti-GAD

breast, lung

143
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
Chorea

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

anti-Hu
Anti-CRMP5

Lung, Hodgkin, others

144
Q

Neurologic Disorder:
Optic neuropathy

Name predominant autoantibody and associated tumors

A

Anti-CRMP-5

Lung

ADAMS (29 decks)

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