Immunosuppression Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Brief overview on T cell activation

A

T cell activation and the proliferation of T cell population relies upon initial antigen presentation by the APC cell with critical secondary signal activation, leading to a fully activated T cell. This cell then synthesizes and releases interleukin 2 (IL-2), which activates adjacent T cells, leading to proliferation and clonal expansion.

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2
Q

When considering the use of immunosuppressive drugs in the context of organ transplant, you will hear the terms induction, maintenance, and rescue used in conjunction with the therapy. What do these terms mean?

A

Induction therapies are given at the time of transplantation, re relatively intense, and prolonged use is toxic. May include donor specific transfusion or irradiation as drug alternativesMaintenance therapies are lower potency drugs that are more tolerable in chronic use but not without side effectsRescue therapies are intense, yet effective. They are chronically intolerable and applied in response to rejection episodes

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3
Q

T or F. There is no single standard regimen for drugs used for induction.

A

T. Each potential recipient has their own medical history which will dictate the potential severity of rejection, should it occur, and this leads to careful selection of these powerful drugs on a needs-basis.

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4
Q

Typical maintenance therapy usually involves what 3 drugs?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor, anti-proliferative, steroid. However, variations in each patient drive preferences of different regimens and low-risk patients may receive only 1 or 2 drugs

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5
Q

What is calcineurin?

A

a phosphatase within a T cell which is responsible for controlling nuclear access of a transcriptional factor known as nuclear factor of activated transcription (NFAT). By inhibiting this factor, the T cell fails to upregulate the production of IL-2.

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6
Q

How is calcineurin activated?

A

When an antigen-presenting cell interacts with a T cell receptor, there is an increase in the cytoplasmic level of calcium, which activates calcineurin, by binding a regulatory subunit and activating calmodulin binding

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7
Q

How does Calcineurin activate NFAT?

A

by dephosphorylating it, thus permitting it to enter the nucleus and up regulate transcription of IL-2.

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8
Q

What drugs are Calcineurin inhibitors?

A

cyclosporine A and Tacrolimus

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9
Q

What does Cyclosporine A do specifically?

A

associates with cyclophilin, a protein which is essential to the functioning of calcineurin .

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10
Q

What does Tacrolimus do specifically?

A

associates with FK binding protein 12, a protein that is essential to the functioning of calcineurin .

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11
Q

Which Calcineurin Inhibitor is more effective, Cyclosporine A or Tacrolimus?

A

Tacrolimus is about 100x more effective

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12
Q

The major problem with calcineurin inhibitors is the development of ____.

A

renal toxicity, somewhat ironic when these drugs are used in conjunction with renal transplantation.Differentiating drug nephrotoxicity from graft rejection is difficult and up to 20% of patients may have bothThis adverse effect has prompted the search for alternatives in immunosuppression, and to the use of calcineurin inhibitor-free drug regimens.

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13
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors cause what to increase in serum?

A

Serum creatinine, BUN, K+, and arterial BP rises

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14
Q

What are some other CNI toxicities?

A

Mild-moderate HTN (50% of renal and most cardiac patients)- renal vasoconstriction with bothNeurotoxicity with tacrolimus- headache, insomnia, tremor, dizziness, paresthesiasHirsutism (a condition of unwanted, male-pattern hair growth in women) or hypertrichosis (xcessive hair growth over and above the normal for the age, sex and race of an individual, in contrast to hirsutism) with cyclosporineGingival hyperplasia (4-16%) with cyclosporineSecondary malignancies (lymphomas and skin cancers) due to suppressed immune response

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15
Q

Describe the regulation of transcription in T cell inflammatory factors (e.g. cytokines, adhesion molecules, etc.).

A

Transcriptional coactivators, such as CREB-binding protein (CBP), have intrinsic histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity. Their action results in acetylation of core histones and consequent increased expression of genes encoding multiple inflammatory proteins.

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16
Q

What do cytosolic glucocorticoid receptors (GR) do?

A

Cytosolic glucocorticoid receptors (GR) bind corticosteroids; the receptor-ligand complexes translocate to the nucleus and bind to coactivators to inhibit HAT activity in two ways: directly and, more importantly, by recruiting histone deacetylase-2 (HDAC2), which reverses histone acetylation, leading to the suppression of activated inflammatory genes.

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17
Q

What effects do glucocorticoids have on the immune system?

A

Corticosteroids leads to a number of effects on the immune system over and above the inhibition of T lymphocyte activity. These drugs produce:1) neutrophilia (via increased production and decreased apoptosis), 2) eosinopenia (via increased apoptosis), 3) monocytopenia (decreased production & differentiation.)

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18
Q

Corticosteroids are one of the most potent classes of anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive drugs that are available clinically. Unfortunately, chronic/prolonged use of these drugs is associated with a number of adverse metabolic effects as a result of their interaction with transcriptional regulation. Give some examples.

A

1) protein metabolism dysfunction (myopathy, impaired wound healing, osteoporosis, bone fractures, stunted growth)2) Increased susceptibility to infection (can reactivate TB)3) Hypercholesterolemia, atheroslerosis, fat embolism, thrombosis, thromboembolism, and phlebitis (inflammation of a vein-usually leg)4) Insomnia, depression, anxiety5) Skin atrophy, impaired wound healing6) menstrual irregularity, hyperglycemia, hypercorticism (cushing’s syndrome)

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19
Q

What drugs are considered mTOR inhibitors?

A

Sirolimus (Rapamune)

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20
Q

How does Sirolimus work?

A

Activation by IL-2 leads to activation of mTOR and the initiation of cell cycling critical to clonal expansion. By inhibiting mTOR with Sirolimus, which like its counterpart tacrolimus, binds to FKBP12, the proliferative signal at the IL-2 receptor has no consequence in terms of cell expansion.Note that the drug target is also expressed in non-immune cells, a fact that can lead to adverse drug effects elsewhere in the body.

21
Q

T or F. Sirolimus has no effect on calcineurin activity.

A

T. But it is synergistic with cyclosporine both in vitro and in vivo

22
Q

In addition to preventing T cell clonal expansion, what does Sirolimus do?

A

prevents B cell differentiation into antibody-producing cells, decreasing levels of IgM, IgG, and IgA and affects proliferation of cells outside the immune system including non-lymphoid tumor cells, smooth muscle cells, hepatocytes, and fibroblasts

23
Q

What is Temsirolimus?

A

a pro-drug for sirolimus, the active metabolic product.

24
Q

What are some of the possible adverse effects of Sirolimus?

A

1) Dose-related hyperlipidemia (patient monitoring needed)2) decreased serum creatinine and GFR (globular filtration rate)3) increased azotemia (abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds (such as urea, creatinine, various body waste compounds, and other nitrogen-rich compounds) in the blood)4) Hypertension5) Hepatotoxicity including fatal hepatic necrosis6) Thrombophelbitis, thromboembolism (pumonary, DVT)As noted before, lack of immune surveillance can give rise to an increased likelihood of opportunistic infections and secondary malignancies.

25
Q

What is micophenolate mofetil?

A

A T and B cell cell-cycle disruptor that inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (which normally catalyzes conversion of inosine monophosphate to guanosine monophosphate during purine synthesis), thereby interrupting DNA synthesis.

26
Q

What is the significance of interruption in the supply of guanosine in T and B cells?

A

T and B lymphocytes are highly dependent on production of this critical building block, lacking as they do the ability to compensate for deficiency via the salvage pathway from guanine.

27
Q

What are some of the advantages of Micophenolate Mofetil?

A

1) Blocks the secondary antibody responses mediated by memory B cells2) Selective effects on lymphocyte proliferation, unlike azathioprine or methotrexate3) No chromosomal breaks

28
Q

What are some of the side effects of Micophenolate Mofetil?

A

1) most common side effects involve GI tract ( because it is lined throughout with a proliferating cell population which is especially sensitive to drugs which inhibit cell cycle)- constipation, diarrhea, vomiting2) myelosuppresion (neutropenia) occurs infrequently3) Opportunistic infections, tumor

29
Q

What is azathioprine?

A

A cell-cycle disruptor

30
Q

What happens to azathioprine when it is ingested?

A

It undergoes extensive metabolic conversion to a number of products, one of which is 6- mercaptopurine (6MP) The ultimate metabolism of azathioprine leads to the production of 6-thioguanine triphosphate

31
Q

What can 6-thioguanine triphosphate do to cells?

A

Possesses the ability to block Co. stimulation of T cells and to promote apoptosis in IL-2 stimulated memory T cells.

32
Q

How is Azathioprine a S-phase specific purine antagonist?

A

fraudulent nucleotide, 6-thio-IMP, is converted to 6-thio-GMP and finally to 6-thio-GTP, which is incorporated into DNA. This results in cell cycle arrest.

33
Q

Why not give 6MP?

A

It appears to be a more potent immunosuppressive agent than 6-mercaptopurine, which may reflect differences in drug uptake or pharmacokinetic differences in the resulting metabolites.

34
Q

What are some of the adverse effects of Azathioprine?

A

1) It is myelosuppressive 2) category D status in regards to the potential for birth defects (fetus lack activating enzymes in early gestation)3) Increased risk of skin cancer, especially with UV exposure 4) Decreases warfarin levels leading to decreased INR values (normal in absence of anticoagulation therapy is 0.8-1.2, in presence of warfarin is 2-3)5) Generally well-tolerated, but may cause GI upset

35
Q

What are some examples of negative drug-drug interactions involving Azathioprine?

A

1) Interaction with Allopurinol results in increased azathioprine toxicity2) TMPT inhibition to convert 6-thio-GMP to methylated metabolites- a side reaction (6-thio-GMP is made from 6-MP via HPRT (deficiency in HPRT causes Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome) and then converted to to 6-thio-GTP) via 5-aminosalicylates like Sulfasalazine, Melamine, and Olsalazine cause increased Azathioprine toxicity

36
Q

What must a patient do before starting Azathioprine therapy?

A

Require routine monitoring of CBCs and liver enzymes, a pregnancy test prior to initiation of therapy, and consideration of thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT) status. For patients who are genotyped as being deficient in this enzyme, dosage reduction is recommended to avoid drug toxicity. Blockage of this metabolic route gives rise to a higher concentration of active species for a given drug dose.

37
Q

What is cyclophosphamide?

A

An S-phase cell-cycle disruptor. Know that this anticancer drug requires metabolic activation to its pharmacologically active form.

38
Q

How does Cyclophosphamide work?

A

It is alkylating agent producing DNA cross-linksIt is a lymphopenic drug, affecting B-cells more than T-cells, thereby having its greatest effect on the humoral immunity.

39
Q

What are some of side effects of Cyclophosphamide?

A

The dose limiting toxicity of this drug is hematologic, but one additional issue is the production of hemorrhagic cystitis by way of a metabolic product called acrolein. There are significant CV (pericardial effusion) and pulmonary (pulmonary fibrosis, and interstitial pneumonia) issues with this drug when it is used at high dose for cancer chemotherapy. Long-term use of this drug is also associated with effects on fertility that may or may not become permanent.Skin cancer risk

40
Q

What is Methotrexate?

A

an anticancer drug that is also commonly used for immunosuppression in conjunction with arthritic conditions, as we will see in the musculoskeletal module. MTX is widely recognized as a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor, the principal mechanism responsible for its anticancer action. However, there is an additional effect that is of great significance in the field of immunosuppression.

41
Q

Describe the entry and efflux of Methotrexate into a cell.

A

Cellular uptake of methotrexate follows the folate pathway; its efflux is by ABC transporters.

42
Q

What happens to MTX once inside a cell?

A

Within the cell, GGH converts the drug to MTXPGs (whose cellular retention is greater than that of methotrexate). MTXPGs impede generation of bioactive forms of folate, inhibit de novo pyrimidine synthesis (by blocking TYMS-thymidylate synthase) and cause accumulation of AICAR in the de novo purine synthesis pathway (by blocking AICAR transformylase) (in addition to inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase). AICAR inhibits ADA and AMP deaminase, causing accumulation of adenosine, which has anti-inflammatory activity. Polymorphisms in genes encoding many of the enzymes in these pathways are thought to modulate methotrexate efficacy and toxicity.

43
Q

What does dihydrofolate reductase do?

A

reduces FH2, dihydrofolate to FH4, tetrahydrofolate

44
Q

How does accumulation of adenosine affect an immune response?

A

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are equipped with adenosine receptors, which on occupation regulate APC function. Adenosine receptor (AR) occupancy on macrophages signals through increase of intracellular cyclic AMP and Ca2+ concentrations and promotes activation of the mitogen-activated protein kinases p38 and p42/44. AR occupancy on macrophages and macrophages diminishes production of the proinflammatory mediators interleukin-12 (IL-12), tumor necrosis factor-a (TNF-a), macrophage inflammatory protein- 1a (MIP-1a), and nitric oxide while augmenting secretion of the anti-inflammatory cytokine IL-10 and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). Adenosine receptor ligation stimulates the chemotaxis of immature dendritic cells (DCs), as well increased production of IL-10 and decreased production of IL-12.. Adenosine acting on A2a receptors suppresses IL-12 production by mature DCs leading to diminished Th1- versus (decreased) Th2-cell (increased) development.

45
Q

What are some of the side effects of Methotrexate?

A

1) Prolonged exposure even at low levels may result in serious toxicity and increased cytotoxicity2) Acute reactions include diarrhea 3) Using this drug as an immunosuppressant produces a number of hematologic effects, including anemia and leukopenia and neutropenia, although their incidence is relatively infrequent (

46
Q

What is the clinical significance of Methotrexate being a male and female teratogen?

A

physicians should stress the use of reliable contraception for at least 3 months post therapy for male patients and for at least 2 menstrual periods post-therapy for female patients.

47
Q

Recent studies have uncovered the new applicant ethnic differences between African-Americans (AA) and Europeans in the pharmacokinetics of several commonly used immunosuppressants including Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, and Sirolimus. AA show decreased bioavailability for all these These drugs are easily measured in the blood and dosing can be adjusted to achieve the required drug concentration

A

Recent studies have uncovered the new applicant ethnic differences between African-Americans (AA) and Europeans in the pharmacokinetics of several commonly used immunosuppressants including Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, and Sirolimus. AA show decreased bioavailability for all these These drugs are easily measured in the blood and dosing can be adjusted to achieve the required drug concentration

48
Q

Why is there so much ethnic variability in these drugs?

A

There are several explanations for the high variability in blood levels of three of these drugs, namely their processing by P-gp and or CYP3A4 in the intestinal wall and in the liver, which impact bioavailability. Given that many drugs employ CYP3A4 for their own metabolism, the potential for drug-drug interactions with these 3 agents is high. Careful monitoring of blood levels is important in guiding drug dosing for these agents. There is presently no recommendation for such careful monitoring for mycophenolate. The interesting accumulation of drugs in erythrocytes, leading to the high erythrocyte-low plasma ratios is the result of high levels of FKB12 protein in these cells to which the drugs bind.

49
Q

What is Basiliximab?

A

An IL-2 receptor blocker