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Gastrointestinal > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Parotid glands deliver saliva via the

A

Duct of Stensen

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2
Q

Submandibular glands deliver saliva via the

A

Duct of Wharton

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3
Q

Sublingual glands deliver saliva via the

A

Duct of Rivinus & common Bartholin

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4
Q

Point at which saliva enters the mouth (under the tongue)

A

Sublingual caranucla

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5
Q

Most common type of oesophageal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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6
Q

Example sociological determinants of health

A

Gender, age, marital status, education, socioeconomic status, income, ethnicity

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7
Q

Influences on dietary change

A

Awareness, access, acceptability, affordability.

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8
Q

5 stages of behavioural change counselling:

A

1) Ask
2) Assess
3) Advise
4) Agree
5) Assist

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9
Q

Innervation of the muscles of mandible

A

CN V3. (Trigeminal)

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10
Q

The temporalis muscles (open/close) the jaw. They connect from the _____ process to the _____ fossa.

A

Close, coronoid, temporal.

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11
Q

The masseter muscles (open/close) the jaw. They connect from the ____ of the mandible to the _____.

A

Close, angle, zygomatic arch.

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12
Q

The medial pyteroid muscles (open/close) the jaw. They connect from the _____ of the mandible to the _____ _____ of the _____ bone

A

Open. Condyle. Pyteroid plate. Sphenoid.

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13
Q

The lateral pyteroid muscles (open/close) the jaw. They connect from the ____ of the mandible to the _____ of the _____ bone

A

Close. Angle. Pyteroid plate. Sphenoid bone.

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14
Q

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve supplies motor/sensory/both types of nerves?

A

Both

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15
Q

Where is CN V3 attached to in the brain?

A

Pons

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16
Q

Describe the intracranial passage of CN V3

A

Inferior to the edge of the tentorium cerebelli, between the posterior and middle cranial fossae.

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17
Q

Which part of the base of the skull does the CN V3 pass through?

A

Foramen ovale in the sphenoid bone.

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18
Q

The posterior third of the tongue is in which cavity

A

Oropharynx

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19
Q

Taste and general sensation of the posterior part of the tongue is transmitted via which CN?

A

CN IX (AKA glossopharyngeal)

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20
Q

Taste in the region of the anterior part of the tongue is transmitted through which cranial nerve?

A

CN VII (AKA Facial) via the chorda tympani.

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21
Q

General sensation of the anterior part of the tongue is transmitted via which cranial nerve?

A

CN V3.

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22
Q

Which type of papillae have taste buds present?

A

Foliate and vallate.

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23
Q

Which type of papillae sense temperature and touch?

A

Filiform.

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24
Q

The facial nerve connects to the brain at….

A

The junction between the pons and medulla

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25
Q

The intracranial path of the facial nerve is….

A

Directly into the acoustic meatus in the posterior fossa.

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26
Q

The base of the skull path of the facial nerve is

A

Through the stylomastoid foramen in the temporal bone.

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27
Q

Sensation in the SUPERIOR part of the oral cavity is provided by which cranial nerve?

A

CN V2

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28
Q

Sensation in the INFERIOR part of the oral cavity is provided by which cranial nerve?

A

CN V3

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29
Q

The sensation of the gag reflex is carried by which CN?

A

CN IX

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30
Q

The motor fibers of the gag reflex are carried by which CN?

A

CN IX and X. (9 and 10 gag again)

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31
Q

Spraying local anesthetic at the oropharynx will block which CNs?

A

V2, V3, VII, IX.

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32
Q

CN V2 is which division of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Maxilllary

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33
Q

CN V2 passes through which foramen in the base of the skull?

A

Foramen rotundum

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34
Q

CN IX plugs into which region of the brain

A

Medulla

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35
Q

CN IX passes through which structure at the base of the skull

A

Jugular foramen, in the notch between the occipital and temporal bones.

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36
Q

CN IX supplies sympathetic/parasympathic innervation to parotids

A

Parasympathetic

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37
Q

CN IX passes along the anterior/posterior wall of the oropharynx

A

Posterior

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38
Q

The parotid gland secrets into the mouth at which point

A

Upper 2nd molar

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39
Q

The submandibulgar glands secretes via which structure

A

The lingual carnucle.

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40
Q

The sublingual gland secrets via which structures

A

Ducts of Rivinus and common Bartholin

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41
Q

Parotid innervation is provided by which CN?

A

CN IX

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42
Q

Submandibular innervation provided by which CN?

A

CN VII

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43
Q

Sublingual innervation provided by which CN?

A

CN VII.

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44
Q

The tongue is suspended by how many pairs of muscles?

A

4

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45
Q

Extrinsic muscles of the tongue do what?

A

Change the position of the tongue during speech/mastication

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46
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the tongue do what?

A

Move tongue mainly dorsally and modify the shape of the tongue

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47
Q

All muscles of the tongue are innervated via CN __ EXCEPT the ______

A

CN XII (Hypoglossal). Palatoglossus.

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48
Q

CN XII plugs into where of the brain?

A

Rootlets which attach to the medulla oblongata

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49
Q

CN IXX travels along the ____ ____ at the anterior wall of the foramen magnum

A

Hypoglossal canal

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50
Q

The pharynx muscles are innervated by CNs

A

CN X and CN IX.

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51
Q

The pharynx muscles insert into the

A

Midline raphe.

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52
Q

Which CN prevent drooling

A

CN VII

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53
Q

Which CN controls tongue and pushes bolus posteriorly?

A

CN XII

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54
Q

Cn of pharyngeal muscles

A

CN X and CN IX

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55
Q

Sympathetics have which effect on peristalsis

A

Speed up

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56
Q

The constriction of the upper oesophageal sphincter is due to which muscles?

A

Cricopharyngneus muscles

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57
Q

The oesophagus begins at which structure? What’s the corresponding vertebral level?

A

Cricopharyngenus muscles. C6.

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58
Q

The change in the mucosa from oesophageal to gastric is termed the _ ______

A

Z-line

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59
Q

The stomach lies mainly in which regions

A

Left hypochondrium, epigastric, umbillical.

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60
Q

Digestable carbohydrates provide which % of energy requirement?

A

45%

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61
Q

Amylose has which type of linkages

A

Straight chained alpha 1-4

62
Q

Sucrose is better known as what and is made of which constituent monosaccharides?

A

Table sugar. Glucose + Fructose.

63
Q

Lactose is better known as what and is made of which constituent monosaccharides?

A

Milk sugar. Glucose + lactose.

64
Q

Can poly/di-sacharride molecules be absorbed?

A

No

65
Q

Starch is digested by which enzyme?

A

Amylase. Into maltose.

66
Q

Lactase breaks glucose into what?

A

Galactose.

67
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of the assimilation of lactase?

A

Hydrolysis.

68
Q

Lactase activity is generally lost at which stage in mammals?

A

At weaning

69
Q

The gene which regulates lactase persistence?

A

MCM6

70
Q

Gut microflora produce these in response to undigested lactose entering the colon (4)

A

Hydrogen ions, short-chain fatty acids, carbon dioxide, methane.

71
Q

Absorption of carbohydrates occurs mainly in the

A

Duodenum and jejenum.

72
Q

Entry of carbohydrates into the blood is in a ___ step process

A

Two step

73
Q

Glucose and galactose are absorbed by which transporter

A

SGLT1

74
Q

SGLT1 relies on K/Na which increases/decreases glucose affinity

A

Na, increases

75
Q

Fructose is absorbed by which type of diffusion

A

Facilitated diffusion

76
Q

The exit for all monosacharrides is mediated by which transporter?

A

GLUT2

77
Q

How many pathways exist for protein digestion?

A

Four

78
Q

Optimum pH for pepsin

A

1.8 to 3.5

79
Q

Pancreatic enzymes are (5)

A
  • trypsin (endopeptidase)
  • chymotrypsin (endopeptidase)
  • elastase (endopeptidase)
  • procarboxylase A (exopeptidase)
  • procarboyxlase B (exopeptidase)
80
Q

How much protein is digested by the pancreatic proteases?

A

70%

81
Q

How many different brush border mechanisms for protein absorption are there? How many are Na dependent?

A

7 - 5 dependent on Na, 2 independent.

82
Q

BAT1 is an example of an Na independent/dependent system which mediates uptake of neutral/charged AAs. Dysfunction results in ______

A

Na dependent. Neutral AAs. Hartnup’s Disease

83
Q

BAT system is an example of an Na independent/dependent system which mediates uptake of neutral/charged AAs. Dysfucntion results in __________

A

Na independent. Cationic AAs. Cystinuria.

84
Q

Basolateral membrane has how many systems for transporting protein? How many are efflux/influx?

A
  1. 3 are efflux (Na-independent), 2 are influx (Na dependent).
85
Q

Larger peptides (di/tri/tetra) are transported how?

A

Via H+ dependent mechanism at brush border. They are further hydrolysed within the enterocyte.

86
Q

Lipids provide approximately what percent of the daily energy requirement?

A

55%

87
Q

Key area of lipid metabolism?

A

Small intestine

88
Q

Emulsification begins where

A

Stomach

89
Q

What buffers the duodenum?

A

Bicarbonate

90
Q

Bile salts are secreted into the duodenum in response to ___

A

CCK

91
Q

Fat malabsorption results in

A

Steatorrhoea.

92
Q

Bile salts are ampiphathic. True/false?

A

True

93
Q

What is the polypeptide which works to allow lipase access to smaller glycerides?

A

Colipase

94
Q

TAGs are digested to what (2)

A

2-monoglyceride and 2x fatty acids

95
Q

Free fatty acids and monoglycerides are absorbed by active/passive diffusion

A

Passive

96
Q

Cholesterol is mainly transported into the cell how?

A

By endocytosis in clathrin coated pits. In NPC1L1 protein.

97
Q

Ezetimibe works how?

A

Binds to NPC1L1 to block cholesterol absorption.

98
Q

Calcium is absorbed via both active and passive mechanisms. True/false?

A

True

99
Q

Active transport of calcium only occurs in which region of the SI?

A

Duodenum, jejunum.

100
Q

Calcium absorption is controlled by which hormones?

A

Calcitrol, parathyroid hormone.

101
Q

Iron is only absorbed in which state?

A

Ferrous (Fe2+)

102
Q

Iron is transported into the cell by which carrier?

A

DMT1

103
Q

Iron is transported across the basolateral membrane by which transporter?

A

Ferroportin

104
Q

Absorption of fat soluble vitamins require bile secretion. True/false?

A

True

105
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Failure of LOS to open

106
Q

What is nutcracker oesophagus?

A

Motility disorder of oesophagus related to hypertension, causing spasm

107
Q

What is the principle site of absorption of nutrients?

A

Small intestine

108
Q

Activities of ailmentary canal?

A

Motility, Absorption, Secretion, Digestion. (MASDa).

109
Q

What is present in the mucosa? (5)

A
  • Enterocytes
  • Exocrine cells
  • Endocrine cells
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosae
110
Q

Skeletal muscle is present at which part of the oesophagus?

A

Upper 1/3rd

111
Q

Which cells drive the slow-wave electrical activity in the intestine?

A

Interstitial Cells of Cajal

112
Q

BER in the stomach is what?

A

3 waves/min

113
Q

BER in the S.I is what?

A

12 waves/min in duodenum, 8 waves/min in the ileum

114
Q

BER in the large intestine is what?

A

8 waves/min in the proximal colon, 16waves/min in distal colon

115
Q

Enteric nervous system is comrpised of which plexuses?

A
  • Myenteric

- Submucosa

116
Q

The submucosa plexus mainly regulates which functions?

A

Blood flow and epithelia activity

117
Q

The myenteric plexus mainly controls what?

A

Sphincter activity

118
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of the GI tract causes?

A

Increased gastric, pancreatic and small intestine secretion.

119
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of GI tract causes?

A

Decreased motility/secretion/blood flow.

120
Q

Segmentation involves the use of which muscle layer?

A

Circular

121
Q

Segementation normally occurs in the ____ in fed state and ____ in haustration

A

Small intestine, large intestine

122
Q

Name the 6 sphincters of the GI tract

A

UOS, LOS, pyloric sphincter, internal, external, ileocaecal valve.

123
Q

Swallowing is AKA

A

Deglutitation

124
Q

Name 5 satitety signals

A
  • Cholecystokinin
  • Peptide YY
  • GLP-1
  • Oxntomodulin
  • Obestatin
125
Q

Example of a hunger symbol

A

Ghrelin

126
Q

ob/ob mice lack what?

A

Leptin producton —> obesity

127
Q

MoA of liraglutide

A

GLP-1 agonist

128
Q

Most effective option for weight loss?

A

Bariatric surgery

129
Q

The foregut is comprised of (5)

A
  • Oesophagus
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Spleen
  • 1/2 of pancreas
130
Q

The midgut consists of (2)

A

Mid-duodenum, 1/2 of pancreas

131
Q

The hindgut consists of (1)

A

Distal 1/3rd of colon (from transverse to proximal anal canal)

132
Q

Regions of the abdomen on examination

A

Epigastric, umbillicus, pubic, hypochondrium, lumbar, inguinal

133
Q

Which plane separates the structures at the level of navel?

A

Transtubecular plane

134
Q

Example retroperitoneal organs (5)

A
  • Kidney
  • Adrenals
  • Pancreas
  • Ascending colon
  • Descending colon
135
Q

Example intrapertioneal organs (4)

A
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Stomach
  • Spleen
136
Q

Greater omentum runs from the lesser curvature of stomach to transverse colon. True/false?

A

False - greater runs from the greater curvature of stomach to transverse colon

137
Q

The lesser omentum runs from where to where?

A

Lesser curvature of stomach and duodenum to liver.

138
Q

The omenta communicate through which structure? What is its common name?

A

Omental foramen AKA Foramen of Winslow

139
Q

The peritoneal pouch in males is called

A

Rectovesicle pouch

140
Q

The peritoneal pouches in women are called

A

Vesicouterine & rectouterine.

141
Q

Name the different periotneal ligaments (4)

A
  • Hepatogastric
  • Hepatoduodenal
  • Gastroplenic
  • Spelnorenal
142
Q

Drainage of ascitic fluid is called

A

Paracentesis

143
Q

The lateral placement of the drainage needle in paracentesis is to avoid what?

A

Inferior epigastric artery

144
Q

Visceral pain tends to be described as

A

Dull, achy, nauseating

145
Q

Foregut abdominal pain tends to be felt in the _______ region.

A

Epigastric

146
Q

Midgut abdominal pian tends to be felt in the ______ region

A

Umbilical

147
Q

Hindgut abdominal pain tends to be felt in the _____ region

A

Pubic

148
Q

Foregut afferents enter the spine at which levels

A

T6-T9

149
Q

Midgut afferents enter the spine at which levels

A

T8-T12

150
Q

Hindgut structures enter the spine at

A

T10-L2

151
Q

Appendicitis often presents as a _____ region pain, because it plugs into the spine at __

A

Umbilical, T10.

152
Q

Why does appendicitis pain become referred?

A

It plugs into the spine at the same level of other structures (between T8-T10). Eventually irritation of the right iliac fossa causes a somatic peritonitis - much easier to localise.

Gastrointestinal (7 decks)

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