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Highlighted Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissues

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast - form bone; Osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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3
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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4
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen Type 1

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5
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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6
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium & radium

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7
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors such as anxiety, tension or pressure and to age

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8
Q

Bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues?

A

mesenchyme and/or cartilage

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9
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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10
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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11
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The skull

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12
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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13
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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14
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones

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15
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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16
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers of ossification appear before birth; Secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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17
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular

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18
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of bone?

A

the periosteum

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19
Q

What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of bone?

A

The endosteum

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20
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

sexual dimorphism or gender variation

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21
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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22
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

geographic variation or population based variation

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23
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the uniqueness between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

idiosyncratic variation

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24
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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25
Q

Which classifications of bone are characteristic of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Long bones, short bones and sesamoid bones

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26
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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27
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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28
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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29
Q

Which classifications of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton?

A

flat bones, irregular bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones

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30
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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31
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

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32
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal Anatomy?

A

accessory and heterotopic bone

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33
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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34
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bone spurs of vertebrae

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35
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in anon-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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36
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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37
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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38
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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39
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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40
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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41
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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42
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

Spine and process

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43
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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44
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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45
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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46
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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47
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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48
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone

A

foramen or canal

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49
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

Meatus

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50
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

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51
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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52
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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53
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

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54
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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55
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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56
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

The cranium

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57
Q

What is the neurocranium?

A

the bones that support or protect the brain

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58
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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59
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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60
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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61
Q

What is the facial skeleton (Splanchnocranium or visceral cranium)?

A

the bones that support the face or front of the head

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62
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and Zygomatic

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63
Q

By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?

A

the bones that support the face minus the mandible

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64
Q

What bones form the splanchnocranium?

A

vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic

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65
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

1 bone

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66
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx

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67
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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68
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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69
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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70
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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71
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

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72
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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73
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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74
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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75
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

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76
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the cervical region?

A

7 segments

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77
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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78
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

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79
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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80
Q

What is the difference in number of VERTEBRAE between an adult and adolescent?

A

7; 33 adolescent and 26 adult

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81
Q

What does the term “lumber” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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82
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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83
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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84
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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85
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm or 28 inches

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86
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 cm or 25 inches

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87
Q

What is the difference in length between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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88
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 cm or 5 in

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89
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (Both)?

A

28cm or 11 in

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90
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both)?

A

18cm or 7in

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91
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum (both)?

A

12cm or 5in

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92
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both)?

A

58cm or 23in

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93
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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94
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

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95
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

Motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

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96
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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97
Q

How is the vertebral column involved in stabilization of visceral function?

A

integrity of the spinal column enhances appropriate nerve system control of viscera

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98
Q

When does the embryonic disc form?

A

Second week in utero

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99
Q

When does gastrulation occur or a 2-layered embryo form?

A

Third week in utero

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100
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

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101
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column

A

paraxial mesoderm

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102
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column?

A

somites

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103
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

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104
Q

What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

sclerotome

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105
Q

List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

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106
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

The perichordal blastema

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107
Q

The perichordal blastemal gives rise to what processes?

A

Neural processes and costal processes

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108
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

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109
Q

Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastemal will result in what features?

A

a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite

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110
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastemal?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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111
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

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112
Q

The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature?

A

the intervertebral disc

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113
Q

What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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114
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

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115
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastemal?

A

the segmental artery

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116
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastemal?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

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117
Q

What is the name given to thte replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

Chondrification

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118
Q

Chondrification is first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

The cervical region

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119
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastemal?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

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120
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastemal?

A

six….2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for the transverse process

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121
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

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122
Q

Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

the lower cervical-upper thoracic region

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123
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers; 5 secondary centers

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124
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra>

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

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125
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

three…1 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches

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126
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?

A

cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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127
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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128
Q

What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

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129
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

five..1 for the tip of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate

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130
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

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131
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

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132
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra>

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

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133
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

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134
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

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135
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

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136
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

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137
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the pedicle

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138
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the lamina

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139
Q

What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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140
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral; thoracic - posterior, slight lateral; lumbar - posterior

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141
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

posterior and median

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142
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

shingling

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143
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

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144
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

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145
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular process represent?

A

accessory bone

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146
Q

What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

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147
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

the apophyseal regions

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148
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

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149
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

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150
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

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151
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

The transverse tubercle

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152
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and down ward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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153
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its intitial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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154
Q

What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?

A

the articular facet

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155
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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156
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular facet

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157
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygaphophysis?

A

the inferior articular facet

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158
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the _____

A

pre-zygapophysis

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159
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ______

A

post-zygapophysis

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160
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

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161
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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162
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly; thoracic - noticeable angel inferiorly; lumbar - no inferior angle

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163
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

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164
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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165
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

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166
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

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167
Q

What name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure?

A

the vertebral foramen

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168
Q

The union of all vertebral foramina forms an apparent vertical cylinder called the ______

A

the vertebral canal or spinal canal

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169
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges.

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170
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacrum - triangular

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171
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

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172
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

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173
Q

Identify all segmental arteries of the vertebral column.

A

vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercosgtal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral

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174
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

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175
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

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176
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

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177
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

178
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

179
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

180
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

181
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

182
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

183
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

184
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

185
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

186
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

187
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

188
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

189
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

190
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

191
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

192
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

193
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

194
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

195
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

196
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

197
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

198
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

199
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

200
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

201
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

202
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

203
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

204
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

205
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

206
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

207
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

208
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior spinal arteries, posterior spinal arteries and communicating arteries

209
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

210
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

211
Q

What artery gives off the ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries?

A

the anterior spinal artery

212
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

213
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

214
Q

What is the source for pial perforating arteries?

A

the pial plexus

215
Q

What arteries form the pial plexus?

A

the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries

216
Q

What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial vasa corona along the cord?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

217
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

218
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

219
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins

220
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

221
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

222
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?

A

posterior radicular veins

223
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

224
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

225
Q

What luminal feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels may function like valves of typical veins?

A

trabeculae

226
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

227
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

228
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

the lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

229
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

230
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A

Dura mater - tough mother; arachnoid mater - spider mother;

pia mater - tender or delicate mother

231
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).

A

epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

232
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

233
Q

What are the neural contents of the epidural space?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

234
Q

What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligament

235
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein

236
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

237
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

238
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space-between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

239
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

240
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

241
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

242
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

243
Q

What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?

A

dentate/denticulate ligament

244
Q

What contents of the subarachnoid space are change below the level C6?

A

the arterial vasa corona consists of 1 anterior spinal artery, 2 posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries

245
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate) ligament

246
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

the lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

247
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

Transverse

248
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

249
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

250
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?

A

midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

251
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

252
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T 12 vertebra

253
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

254
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5, and Co1

255
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

256
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

257
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

258
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

259
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

260
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

261
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

262
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

263
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale eternum

264
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

265
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

266
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord

267
Q

At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?

A

in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3

268
Q

At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?

A

in the thoracic and lumbar spine and for the sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception to this rule). T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7

269
Q

What is the relationship between rib number and vertebral numbers at the costocentral joint?

A

rib number always equates to same vertebral number at the costocentral joint rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with T2 segment; only ribs 1, 11 and 12 typically joint with a single segment

270
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

271
Q

What osseous modification is observed to the front of the anterior arch of C1?

A

the anterior tubercle

272
Q

What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

the fovea dentis

273
Q

What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?

A

the lateral mass

274
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

275
Q

What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

276
Q

What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?

A

groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery

277
Q

What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the arcuate rim

278
Q

What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of atlas?

A

a complete ponticulus posticus

279
Q

Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

280
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

281
Q

What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the inferior vertebral notch

282
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the costal element

283
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

284
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

the dens or odontoid process

285
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the odontoid process of C2?

A

facet for fovea dentis

286
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the odontoid process of C2?

A

groove for transverse atlantal ligament

287
Q

What feature is identified on the superolateral margins of the odontoid process of C2?

A

attachment sites for the alar ligaments

288
Q

What feature is identified on the tip of the odontoid process of C2?

A

attachment site for the apical-dental ligament

289
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?

A

the longus colli muscle attachment

290
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the anterior lip

291
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the posterior lip

292
Q

What features are present at the at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

right and left lateral grooves

293
Q

What features arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?

A

the pedicles

294
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the superior articular process

295
Q

What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?

A

on the lamina-pedicle junction

296
Q

What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

297
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C2?

A

the costal element

298
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C2?

A

the true transverse process

299
Q

What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C2?

A

the posterior tubercle

300
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?

A

it is bifid

301
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinated processes

302
Q

What are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

uncinated process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

303
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

304
Q

What attaches to the posterolateral margin and in the center of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the pedicle

305
Q

What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?

A

the articular pillar

306
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the end of the articular pillar?

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

307
Q

What bone feature is attached to the posterior part of the articular pillar?

A

the lamina

308
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

309
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular processes

310
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

311
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

312
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

313
Q

What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinated processes

314
Q

What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7?

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervicals

315
Q

What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

316
Q

What are the features of the spinous process of C7?

A

long, horizontal, nonbifid

317
Q

What features will allow discrimination between T2-4 and T5-8 segmental groups?

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process

318
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T2-4 group?

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides

319
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5-8 group?

A

the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex

320
Q

What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-8?

A

the aortic impression

321
Q

What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-8?

A

the left side superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

322
Q

What is present at the tip of the transverse process of a typical thoracic

A

the transverse tubercle

323
Q

What is the distance between the transverse tubercles in the typical thoracic region?

A

from T2 each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior

324
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic?

A

the transverse costal facet

325
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-4 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

326
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-8 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

327
Q

What name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics?

A

the pars interarticularis

328
Q

What is the pars interarticularis?

A

the region between the superior and inferior articular processes

329
Q

What part of a vertebra arises laterally from the pars interarticularis?

A

the transverse process

330
Q

What part of a vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis?

A

The lamina

331
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic?

A

they slant backward and downward

332
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process of T2-4?

A

the undersurface of T2-4 spinous processes will angle up to forty degrees from the horizontal plane

333
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process of T5-8?

A

the undersurface of T5-8 spinous processes will angle up to sixty degrees from the horizontal plane

334
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T9?

A

right and left superior costal demi-facets; right and left inferior costal demi-facets

335
Q

Which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

336
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of T9?

A

the transverse costal facet

337
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T9?

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

338
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

339
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

340
Q

What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body of T10?

A

the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally

341
Q

What part of the transverse process may be absent on T10?

A

the transverse costal facet

342
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T10?

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

343
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T11?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

344
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T11?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

345
Q

What part of the transverse process is absent on T11?

A

the transverse costal facet

346
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T11?

A

posterior and horizontal along the undersurface

347
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

348
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T11?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

349
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the transverse process?

A

the lateral tubercle

350
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbars?

A

the superior tubercle

351
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbars?

A

the inferior tubercle

352
Q

What joint surface of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent on T12?

A

the transverse costal facet

353
Q

What is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12?

A

they are significantly convex

354
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T12?

A

posterior and horizontal

355
Q

What is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process?

A

accessory process

356
Q

What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical lumbar vertebrae?

A

pars interarticularis

357
Q

What is characteristic of the L1-L4 articular processes?

A

The transverse diameter (width between/distance between) superior articular processes of an L1-L4 segment will be greater than the transverse diameter (width between/distance between) the inferior articular processes of that same segment

358
Q

What is the name given to the projection on the lumbar superior articular process?

A

mammillary process

359
Q

What characteristic of the L1-L4 pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment? Be specific and complete as the difference(s) on a segment from each group.

A

On cranial view, the lateral surface of the pedicle is apparent on a L1-L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina-pedicle region

360
Q

What is the generic direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process?

A

it is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes

361
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum?

A

5 segments

362
Q

What forms the median sacral crest?

A

fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles

363
Q

What forms the intermediate sacral crest?

A

fused articular processes and their facets

364
Q

What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?

A

the mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5

365
Q

What does the sacral cornu represent?

A

the inferior articular process and facet of S5

366
Q

What is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal?

A

the sacral hiatus

367
Q

What forms the lateral sacral crest?

A

the fused transverse processes and transverse tubercles from S1 to S5

368
Q

What is the sacral tuberosity?

A

the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2

369
Q

What feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5?

A

the inferior and lateral (inferolateral) sacral angle

370
Q

From the anterior view, the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature?

A

transverse ridges

371
Q

What feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1-S3?

A

auricular surface

372
Q

What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?

A

the sacral promontory

373
Q

What is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the S1 vertebral body looking from the base view?

A

sacral ala

374
Q

What forms the sacral ala?

A

the costal element and true transverse process

375
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx?

A

4 segments

376
Q

What bony features are present on the coccyx?

A

all segments are represented by a “vertebral body; in addition, Co1 has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process

377
Q

What is the homolog of the superior articular process and facet on Co1?

A

coccygeal cornu

378
Q

What feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni?

A

jugular notch (suprasternal notch)

379
Q

What is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni?

A

clavicular notch

380
Q

What names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib?

A

costal notch I for the first rib costal cartilage;

costal notch II for the second rib costal cartilage

381
Q

How many sternabrae for the corpus sterni?

A

4 sternabrae

382
Q

What surface feature on the corpus sterni identifies the location of the old synchondroses?

A

transverse lines

383
Q

What articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni?

A

costal notches II-VII

384
Q

What are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib?

A

the head, neck and tubercle

385
Q

What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location?

A

superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet

386
Q

What feature of the head of a rib separates the superior from inferior articular surface/facet?

A

the interarticular crest

387
Q

What features may be identified on the neck of a typical rib?

A

the crest of the rib

388
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib?

A

the articular surface of the tubercle

389
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib?

A

the non-articular surface of the tubercle

390
Q

What features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove

391
Q

What is present on the head of the first rib?

A

a single articular surface

392
Q

Is there a crest on the neck of the first rib?

A

not a well-developed on like on the typical rib

393
Q

which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close the to the vertebral end?

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

394
Q

Which groove on the body (corpus of shaft) of the first rib is close to the sternal end?

A

the groove for the subclavian vein

395
Q

Is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib?

A

Neither the costal angle nor the costal groove are apparent on the first rib

396
Q

What features may be identified on the head of rib 2?

A

two articular surfaces and the interarticular crest

397
Q

What feature may be identified on the neck of rib 2?

A

the crest of the rib

398
Q

What features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of rib2?

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior, the costal angle and the costal groove

399
Q

What distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 from typical ribs?

A

the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present, consists only of a non-articular surface

400
Q

What features may be present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the eleventh rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are under-developed

401
Q

What helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the twelfth rib from other ribs?

A

the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is poorly developed, the tubercle is absent

402
Q

What is the condition of the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 12?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all ribs

403
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

404
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

405
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

406
Q

What were the three latin classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

407
Q

What is the classification of a plane or gliding synovial joint?

A

arthrodia

408
Q

What is the classification of a knuckle type synovial joint?

A

condylar or bicondylar

409
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

410
Q

What examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints occur along the vertebral column?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column

411
Q

What is an example of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints along the vertebral column?

A

median atlanto-axial joint

412
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

413
Q

What example of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joint is identified along the spine?

A

the join of Luschka of typical cervicals is a modified sellar joint

414
Q

What example of the diarthrosis condylar joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint

415
Q

What example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint

416
Q

Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

417
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three toed sloth

418
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two toed sloth, manatee

419
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

420
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

421
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

422
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinater process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

423
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

424
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior longitudinal ligament-anterior groove articulation>

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

425
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior longitudinal ligament-posterior groove articulation>

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

426
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

427
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

428
Q

How many total joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

10

429
Q

How many total synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

four

430
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine

431
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longus colli muscle

432
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

433
Q

What is the direction of projection of the cervical lamina?

A

posteromedially

434
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

435
Q

What joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachment?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

436
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular processes

437
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone?

A

accessory bone

438
Q

Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?

A

transverse

439
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at ______?

A

C6

440
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

441
Q

What osseous parts form the typical cervical vertebra transverse process

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

442
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransversarii

Spinal (10 decks)

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