Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychological Psychology > EXAM 3 > Flashcards

EXAM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What happens after 2 night of sleep deprivation?

A

tremors, difficulty focusing eyes, increased sensitivity to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens after 4 nights of sleep deprivation?

A

paranoid delusions, bizarre hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the stages of sleep??

A
  1. Awake: Alpha (smooth/relaxed), Beta (irregular, aroused)
  2. Stage 1 sleep: Theta, sleep spindle, K complex
  3. Stage 2 sleep: Theta, sleep spindle, K complex
  4. Stage 3 sleep: Delta waves (synchronized)
  5. Stage 4 sleep: Delta waves (synchronized)
    REM: Theta & beta (desynchronized), dreaming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the differences between REM and slow-wave sleep?

A

REM: dreams, de-synchrony, lack of muscle tonus, erection/vaginal secretion

Slow wave: synchrony, muscle tonus, absent eye movements, no genital activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why do we need REM sleep?

A
  1. Help with development: highest % of REM sleep = most active phase of brain development.
  2. Help consolidate non-declarative memories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why do we slow wave sleep?

A

Consolidate declarative learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discuss insomnia:

A

can’t fall asleep, treat with benzodiazepines: GABA system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Discuss sleep apnea:

A

stop breathing while asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discuss REM sleep disorder:

A

muscles do not paralyze during sleep, acts out dreams: can be
dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Discuss slow wave sleep problems:

A

bed wetting, night terrors, sleep walking, sleep eating disorder,
EXTREME sleep walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Discuss narcolepsy:

A 
irresistible sleep (orexinergic neurons- in adolescent the immune system 
attacks these neurons and narcolepsy begins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discuss Cataplexy:

A

complete paralysis during waking (sudden emotions) (genetic, autoimmune
disorder attacks neurons responsible for arousal/wakefulness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Discuss sleep paralysis:

A

paralysis before falling asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Discuss hypnagogic hallucinations:

A

vivid dreams before falling asleep (treat with stimulants-

methylphenidate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chemicals involved in arousal?

A

acetylcholine, norepinephrine, serotonin, histamine, and orexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is slow-wave sleep initiated?

A

vIOPA secretes GABA inhibits arousals of NT and we sleep

Flip-flop is “off”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do Orexin neurons promote? sleep or wakefulness? Do they promote REM sleep or non-REM sleep?

A

Wakefulness. REM-off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does adenosine do?

A

Deals with caffeine, caffeine blocks adenosine receptors. Adenosine makes you sleepy and accumulates throughout the day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where in your brain is your biological clock?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus. It’s on top of the optic chiasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens if your internal rhythms and your external cues are off? How can you fix it?

A

Make environment as dark as possible, melatonin: released in to pineal gland and sends messages to SCN to shhhh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are orexin neurons influenced by?

A

Hunger, satiety, time of day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is genotypic sex?

A

determines gonad sex. Which releases specific hormones that determines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is phenotypic sex?

A

the hormones released by genotypic sex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the “sex-determining region” of the Y chromosome?

A

Sry gene. If present: develop testes. If absent: gonads develop ovaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the male duct system and what is the female duct system? Which one develops by default?

A

Male duct system: wolffian duct. Female duct system: mullerian duct.
Mullerian duct develops by default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do the testes secrete to cause the female duct system to regress?

A

AMH (Anti-mullerian hormone) and testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe organizational hormone effects.

A

The permanent effects of hormone exposure that occurs early in development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fill in the blanks: ———– (hormone) gets converted to ——— (hormone) to masculinize the brain.

A

Testosterone, estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What keeps the female brain from becoming masculinized?

A

Alpha fetoprotein which attaches to estrogen and doesn’t allow it to cross over the BBB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Testosterone is converted to estrogen in the male brain by what?

A

aromataste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome =

A

Male genotype (XY) with defective gene for androgen receptors so no T or AMH which leads to no male genitals making them have female phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Persistent Mullerian Duct Syndrome =

A

male genotype (XY), but do not produce AMH, T exposure = male genitals, the uterus never regresses, so they have a male and female phenotype INTERNAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Turner’s Syndrome =

A

only one X, no Y = no male genotype, because no second X = no ovaries, therefore female phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia =

A

secretion of high levels of androgens, XY=develop normally, XX= develop with female internal genitalia and an enlarged clitoris and deformed labia (male EXTERNAL genitalia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Neural control of hormones: ____________ releases ____________ which stimulate _____________ to release _______________ which stimulate ________________.

A

Hypothalmus releases GnRH stimulates pituitary to release gonadotropins to stimulate gonads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Activational hormone effects:

A

TRANSIENT effects of hormone exposure that occur LATER in development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Organizational Hormone Effects

A

PERMANENT effects of hormone exposure that occur EARLY in development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

As of 2011, the range of obesity rates in US states =

A

400 Million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Obesity is a risk factor for which negative health effects?

A

Diabetes, cancer, hypertension, sleep apnea, gallstones, stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What causes obesity?

A

simple imbalance in energy input and output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Salt–

A

Maintain cellular balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sweet-

A

Seek carbohydrates and energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sour-

A

Avoid unripe fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bitter-

A

Avoid plant-based poisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Umami-

A

Reflects protein content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are the different types of taste receptors distributed across the tongue?

A

Evenly distributed, taste bud map not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Miracle berry fruit detects what taste receptors?

A

Sour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What evolutionary process occurs in children ages 2-5 years old, resulting in a dislike for new food?

A

neophobia

49
Q

The ________________ Component = muscular movements.

A

behavioral

50
Q

What are the stages of sleep?

A

Stages 1-4 and REM

51
Q

Explain organizational vs. activational hormone effects

A

Organizational Effects = permanent and early in life

Activational Effects = transient and later in life

52
Q

Which taste receptor recognizes the PTC/PROP chemical?

A

bitter

53
Q

Describe one psychological factor that influences how much we eat.

A

Proximity & visibility, color of food or utensils, portion or utensil size, how well you know the people you are eating with, how much others around you eat, health halo bias, memory, variety, economics, geography, culture

54
Q

The ________________ Response = Provides quick mobilizaton of energy for vigorous movement.

A

autonomic

55
Q

The _______________ Response = Reinforces the autonomic responses.

A

hormonal

56
Q

Where is the amygdala located and what does it do?

A

Temporal lobes and consists of approximately 12 subnuclei

Does: Receives sensory info: neurons are firing

57
Q

What is Aversive Emotional Learning?

A

A conditioned emotional response occurs when a neutral

stimulus is followed by an aversive stimulus.

58
Q

What brain regions is responsible for aversive emotional learning?

A

amygdala

59
Q

How do humans acquire most fears?

A

acquired socially, not through firsthand experience with painful stimuli.

60
Q

What is the process of adapting to an inappropriate emotional response?

A

1) learning: CS is no longer followed by an aversive stimulus
2) result: The CS is extinguished to the aversive stimulus.

61
Q

Does extinction mean forgetting?

A

NO

62
Q

What brain regions is responsible in adapting to an inappropriate emotional response?

A

Medial prefrontal cortex

63
Q

Which neurotransmitter inhibits aggression?

A

5-HT (serotonin) Inhibits aggression

64
Q

Describe the relationship between the vmPFC and amygdala for emotion control/reactivity.

A

vmPFC: important role in the regulation of emotional responses.

Inhibits raw emotional reactivity of the amygdala.

vmPFC executive portion of brain tells primate part (amygdala) we aren’t primates aka calm down.
vmPFC develops last.

65
Q

What happens if the vmPFC is underdeveloped (adolescents) or gets damaged?

A

impacts judgement, endorsing actions nonmoral, impersonal and personal more than one that isnt impacted….etc

66
Q

What hormone facilitates normal aggression in males and can increase aggression in females?

A

organizational and activational effects of Testosterone impact aggressive behaviors.

67
Q

What hormone facilitates maternal aggression?

A

oxytocin

68
Q

What does David Eagleman propose we should do in our justice system to account for the fact that everyone has a different brain and that we often times cannot control our behavior beyond the capabilities of our brain?

A

IMAGINE A SPECTRUM of culpability

69
Q

Are facial expressions species-typical? Are they cross cultural?

A

Evidence from cross-cultures, athletes, bind people, isolated tribes

70
Q

What system of neurons becomes active when we watch other people make facial movements?

A

Mirror Neuron System

71
Q

Where are mirror neurons?

A

Ventral premotor area of the frontal lobe

72
Q

Describe the James/Lange theory of emotion.

A

Our own emotional feelings are based on sensory feedback we receive from the activity of our muscles and internal organs.

Stimulus –> physiology –> we react to the physiology (emotion)

73
Q

What behavior is associated with low levels of 5HIAA?

A

Aggression and anti-social behavior

74
Q

Those with high levels of 5HIAA?

A

live longer. More serotonin

75
Q

Define learning:

A

a long term change in behavior as a function of experience.

76
Q

Define memory:

A

the ability to remember or recall information that has

been learned or experienced.

77
Q

Define learning phases:

A

acquisition –> storage –> retrieval

78
Q

Perceptual:

A

learning to recognize a

particular stimulus.

79
Q

Stimulus response:

A

learning to
automatically make a particular response in the
presence of a particular stimulus

80
Q

Classical conditioning:

A

when a stimulus that initially produces no particular
response is followed several times by an
unconditional stimulus that produces a defensive or
appetitive response (the unconditional response),
the first stimulus (now called a conditional stimulus)
itself evokes the response (now called a conditional
response).

81
Q

Instrumental/Operational conditioning:

A

Learning to associate a behavior with a consequence

82
Q

Reinforcing stimulus:

A

consequences that
increase the frequency of the behavior that
precedes it.
 Appetitive aka good

83
Q

Punishing stimulus:

A

consequences that decrease
the frequency of the behavior that precedes it.
 Aversive aka bad

84
Q

Where is consolidation in the atkinson model?

A

process of converting information from

short-term memory to long-term memory

85
Q

Where is working memory in the model?

A

occur somewhere in here, most

suggest it is a form of short-term memory

86
Q

What us working memory?

A

a system that permits a temporary storage

and MANIPULATION of information

87
Q

the process of converting information from

short-term memory to long-term memory.

A

consolidation

88
Q

• Has limited capacity and duration (like short-term memory)

A

working memory

89
Q

Describe the case of H.M. What did he have removed, why and what were his resulting learning and memory deficits vs. his intact learning and memory abilities?

A

bilateral
temporal lobe lesions to stop seizures

anterograde amnesia: no new memories

90
Q

H.M. had no new learning of ________ memories

A

declarative

91
Q

H.M. had an intact __________ memory

A

procedural

92
Q

Where does procedural learning occur in the brain?

A

Basal ganglia/caudate

93
Q

Skill memory, or the memory of highly practiced behavior. These
memories may not be accessible to conscious awareness.

A

Procedural

94
Q

Where does declarative learning occur in the brain?

A

hippocampus

95
Q

The hippocampus is important for what type of memories?

A

Declarative

96
Q

Where does operational/instrumental conditioning occur in the brain?

A

basal ganglia

97
Q

What is the main neurotransmitter involved in operational/instrumental conditioning?

A

dopamine

98
Q

Once a memory is made, does it leave the hippocampus?

A

Yes it can

99
Q

Where does it go? What do we know from fMRI studies and the Lashley experiments?

A

frontal cortex/gyrus

100
Q

Define spatial memory:

A

a form of declarative memory where one
consolidates information about the location of rooms, corridors,
buildings, roads, and other important items in their environment.

101
Q

What brain structure is important for spatial memory?

A

hippocampus

102
Q

What tests are used in animals to measure spatial memory and how do they work?

A

The Morris Water Maze

Can be used for declarative spatial memory if we vary the “drop
off” location or stimulus response memory if we keep the start
point the same every time. Hippocampal lesioned rats do not
do well.

103
Q

Place cells:

A 
A neuron
that becomes active
when the animal is in a
particular location in
the environment.
104
Q

Grid cells:

A 
show an
evenly spaced
coverage of the entire
environment in which
the animal is located
105
Q

Border cells

A

fire when
the animal is near one or
more boundaries of the
environment.

106
Q

Describe Hebb’s theory –

A

proposes that our experience of an event
activates a neural circuit in the CNS.

Cells that are consistently activated together, produce a strong
connection and response.

“Cells that fire together are wired together”

107
Q

Synapatic plasticity -

A

refers to any lasting (days or weeks) effects of
synaptic strength

is
thought to underlie learning
and memory.

108
Q

ability of axon

to talk to a neuron

A

synaptic strength

109
Q

Long-term potentiation (LTP) –

A

a form of synaptic
plasticity. It is a long term increase in the magnitude of
postsynaptic potentials.

110
Q

What is the first receptor involved in LTP

A

NMDA

111
Q

Requires a —————
of the neuron and
activation of its ————.

A

depolarization, synapses

112
Q

Which receptor is unregulated after LTP?

A

AMPA

113
Q

Is depolarization involved in unlocking the NMDA receptor?

A

Yes to remove the magnesium

114
Q

What blocks the NMDA receptor?

A

Magnesium

115
Q

What neurotransmitier binds to them? Is it inhibitory or excitatory? – Does LTP make synapse stronger, weaker, or no effect?

A

glutamate: excititory , stronger

116
Q

Name two ways a synapse can be made stronger:

A

synaptic placisity, LTP, Use it or lose it

117
Q

Where are the greatest # of new neurons produced in the adult brain:

A

hippocampus

118
Q

What type of test did HM do?

A

mirror-drawing test

119
Q

What type of amnesia did H.M. have?

A

anterograde amnesia

Psychological Psychology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions