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Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

What is the other name for acute INTESTINAL schistosomiasis?

A

Katayama fever

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2
Q

What is Katayama fever a reaction to?

A

Larval worms

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3
Q

When does Katayama fever occur?

A

2-10 weeks post exposure

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4
Q

Which organs are enlarged in Katayama fever and chronic intestinal schistosomiasis?

A

Liver and spleen

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5
Q

What life cycle stage does chronic INTESTINAL schistosomiases occur at?

A

Egg production

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6
Q

How soon after exposure does chronic INTESTINAL schistosomiasis occur?

A

2 months

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7
Q

What is severe INTESTINAL schistosomiasis related to?

A

Site of adult worm pairs

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8
Q

Where are egg granulomas found in chronic INTESTINAL shistosomiasis?

A

Liver

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9
Q

Which kind of schistosomiasis causes portal hypertension?

A

Severe INTESTINAL schistosomiasis

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10
Q

Which kind of schistosomiasis causes Symmer’s pipe stem periportal fibrosis?

A

Severe INTESTINAL

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11
Q

What causes reduced contractility in UROGENITAL schistosomiasis?

A

Fibrotic bacteria

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12
Q

Which disease are women with UROGENITAL schistosomiasis predisposed to?

A

HIV

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13
Q

In what stage of schistosomiases is there bladder calcification and cancer?

A

Severe UROGENITAL

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14
Q

What is the vector of trypanosoma?

A

Tsetse fly

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15
Q

Posh name for a fluke?

A

Trematode

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16
Q

Posh name for a cestode?

A

Tape worm

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17
Q

Which kind of parasite has pseudocoelome with intestine and sexual organs within in and hard inert outer cuticle?

A

Nematode

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18
Q

Which segment of the tapeworm matures into an oncosphere?

A

Proglottis

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19
Q

Which species have an oncosphere?

A

Taenia salium and hymenolepis diminuta

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20
Q

What is formed following oncosphere embedding?

A

Cysticerci

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21
Q

Which part of the tapeworm attaches to the intestine wall?

A

Scolex

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22
Q

Where is the protoscolex found?

A

Inside hydatid cycsts

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23
Q

What is the name of the apical complex in apicomplexa for secretion, attachment and invasion?

A

Conoid

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24
Q

Which rhoptry bulb proteins does the conoid secrete?

A

AMA1 and RONs

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25
Q

What does the rhoptry secrete?

A

Proteins and membrane

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26
Q

When does the rhoptry produce ROMs?

A

During moving junction formation

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27
Q

What does the microneme secrete?

A

Crawling protein

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28
Q

What secretes duffy binding protein?

A

Microneme

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29
Q

What secretes MICs?

A

Microneme

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30
Q

What are MICs attached to during apical attachment?

A

Actin-myosin motor

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31
Q

What does the parasitopherous vacuole protect against?

A

Intracellular damage

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32
Q

Which proteins associate with the parasitopherous vacuole?

A

Rhoptry

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33
Q

What decorates the parasitopherous vacuole with proteins for protection and nutrient scavenging?

A

Dense granules

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34
Q

What does the parasitopherous vacuole inhibit fusion with?

A

Lysosomes

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35
Q

Which is synthesised in the apicoplast?

A

Isoprenoid and fatty acid synthesis

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36
Q

What is the oocyst formed from in toxoplasma?

A

Micro and macrogamete

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37
Q

What is the form in which toxoplasma is shed by cats and taken up by mice?

A

Oocyst

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38
Q

What happens to the oocyst in cat faeces?

A

Undergoes sporogony

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39
Q

What is the oocyst formed from in malaria?

A

An ookinete

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40
Q

Where does the ookinete attach to in malaria?

A

The outside of the mosquito stomach

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41
Q

What is the rapidly diving form of toxoplasma in pseudocysts which can cross the placenta?

A

Tachyzoite

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42
Q

What is the slowly dividing form of toxoplasma found in the tissue cyst?

A

Bradyzoite

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43
Q

What is the bradyzoite infective to?

A

Cats and intermediate hosts

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44
Q

Which tissues are the bradyzoite found in?

A

Muscle and nervous tissues

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45
Q

How many sporozoites are formed within an oocyst following meiosis?

A

Eight

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46
Q

Where are the sporozoites found during malarial infection?

A

The salivary gland

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47
Q

Where do the sporozoites form?

A

Inside the oocyst

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48
Q

Where is the kinetoplast found?

A

Associated with the mitochondria at the basal body of the flagellum

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49
Q

What does the kinetoplast contain?

A

DNA

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50
Q

What kind of DNA does the kinetoplast contain?

A

mDNA

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51
Q

What kind of transcription does the kinetoplast show?

A

Polycistronic

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52
Q

What is the infectious stage for the tsetse fly?

A

Metacyclic trypomastigote

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53
Q

How do metacyclic trypomastigotes enter humans?

A

Injected into bloodstream

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54
Q

What is the circulating form of T brucei?

A

Bloodstream trypomastigotes

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55
Q

Where are procyclic trypomastigotes formed?

A

Fly midgut

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56
Q

How do procyclic trypomastigotes multiply?

A

Binary fission

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57
Q

Which part of the cell becomes active in procyclic trypomastigotes?

A

Mitochondria

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58
Q

What are amastigotes formed from?

A

Promastigotes

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59
Q

In which disease are amastigotes phagocytosed and asexually divide within the phagolysosome?

A

Leishmaniasis

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60
Q

What happens to the phagolysosome in Leishmaniasis?

A

It bursts

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61
Q

What form of T brucei is found repicating in the fly’s salivary gland?

A

Epimastigote

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62
Q

How does the promastigote divide?

A

Asexually

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63
Q

Where does the promastigote migrate to?

A

Sandfly oesophagus

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64
Q

What is the dormant hepatic form of malaria?

A

Hypnozoite

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65
Q

Where are schizonts found?

A

In an RBC

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66
Q

What happens in a schizont?

A

Trophozoites develop into merozoites

67
Q

How many merozoites can be released from hepatocytes?

A

Up to 40,000

68
Q

What do the merozoites do?

A

Invade RBCs

69
Q

How can merozoites also be formed?

A

Following trophozoite development in RBCs

70
Q

How do merozoites bind to DARC?

A

Using DBR

71
Q

What is formed when a merozoite invades RBCs?

A

Trophozoite

72
Q

What do trophozoites develop into?

A

Merozoites again

73
Q

When are micro/macro gametes formed?

A

When some merozoites invade RBCs

74
Q

What do the micro and macrogametes form in a mosquito?

A

Zygote

75
Q

What does the zygote transform into in malaria?

A

Ookinete

76
Q

What is the name for hepatocyte budding vessels which release merozoites into the blood?

A

Merosome

77
Q

What does hemozoin bind to?

A

Fibrinogen

78
Q

Which TLR recognises fibrinogen?

A

TLR4

79
Q

Which is released by schistosoma and penetrates the snail?

A

Miracidium

80
Q

How does the primary sporocyst multiply?

A

Asexually

81
Q

What part of the snail does the primary sporocyst travel to?

A

Hepatopancreas

82
Q

What is the primary sporocyst formed from?

A

Miracidium

83
Q

How does the secondary sporocyst multiply?

A

Asexually

84
Q

What does the secondary sporocyst produce hundreds of?

A

Cercariae

85
Q

What time are the cercariae released?

A

Mid morning

86
Q

How long can the cercaiae survive in water?

A

48 hrs

87
Q

How long do the schistosomulae live in host skin?

A

Several days

88
Q

What do the schistosomulae travel in?

A

Blood and lymphatics

89
Q

What is the larvae of O. volvulus that is ingested by the blackfly called?

A

Microfilariae

90
Q

What is the human-infective third stage O. volvulus larvae called?

A

L3

91
Q

Where does L3 develop into an adult?

A

Subcutaneous tissue

92
Q

How does L3 enter the body?

A

Blood wound

93
Q

What is the first larval stage in the blackfly during O. volvulus infection?

A

L1

94
Q

Which kind of parasites are multicellular?

A

Macroparasites

95
Q

What class of parasite shows antigen switching?

A

Protozoans

96
Q

When can T brucei cross the BBB?

A

Second stage

97
Q

How does the Tsetse fly look lik the host?

A

Acquires blood group antigens

98
Q

What do variable surface antigens inhibit?

A

C3 convertase

99
Q

Which parasite stage are eosinophils effective against?

A

Early stages

100
Q

Which T cell response does a metazoan induce?

A

Th2

101
Q

What is the mutation in HbSS?

A

Val to Glu

102
Q

What happens to HbSS under low O2?

A

Clumps

103
Q

Where are deformed RBCs cleared?

A

Spleen

104
Q

What does HbSS give protective immunity?

A

PfEMP display and adherence are poor

105
Q

Do HbC and E show sickling?

A

NO

106
Q

What is the mutation in HbC?

A

Position 6 glu to lys

107
Q

What is the mutation in HbE?

A

Position 26 Glu to Lys

108
Q

How many loci does the alpha subunit have?

A

2

109
Q

How many loci does the beta subunit have?

A

1

110
Q

What is the thalassemia inheritance?

A

Autosomal recessive

111
Q

Which thalassemia protects against anaemia by increasing RBC count?

A

ALpha

112
Q

What is reduced on the cell surface in alpha thalassemia to prevent rosetting?

A

CR1

113
Q

What is reduced to allow oxidative damage in thalassemia?

A

GSH

114
Q

What is the natural host of P. knowlesi?

A

Long and pigtailed macaque

115
Q

Which one causes UROGENITAL schistosomiasis?

A

Haematobium

116
Q

Which is the animal reservoir of schistosomiasis?

A

Japonicum

117
Q

After egg production, what happens to the T cell response in schistosomiases?

A

Switches from Th1 to Th2

118
Q

Which schistosoma has a lateral spine?

A

Mansoni

119
Q

Which schistosoma is small?

A

Japonicum

120
Q

In chronic schistosomiasis, what happens to the T cell response?

A

Th1 upregulated

121
Q

Which kind of schistosomiases causes varicose veins?

A

INTESTINAL

122
Q

What happens to the CD4 cytokine production in chronic schistosomiasis?

A

Decreases

123
Q

What happens to the size of egg granulomas in chronic schistosomiases?

A

Decreases

124
Q

Which T cell response is sustained in severe schistosomiasis?

A

Th2

125
Q

What cytokine modulates fibrosis in severe schistosomiasis?

A

IL-10

126
Q

Which T cell response acts against granulomas?

A

Th1, CD4

127
Q

What does a too large T cell response cause in schistosomiasis?

A

Too many fibroblasts

128
Q

What is produced in schistosomiasis to block host Igs?

A

IgSF

129
Q

Which protease cleaves iC3b in schistosomiasis?

A

M28

130
Q

What happens to a schistosomiasis infection during reduced Il-13?

A

More infection

131
Q

What happens if there is reduced IFN-gamma during a schistosomiasis infection?

A

Severe fibrosis (Th2 response)

132
Q

What happens if there is reduced Fox3p+ Treg and reduced IFN-gamma during a schistosomiasis infection?

A

Hepatosplenic disease

133
Q

What kind of disease is Ivermectin used for?

A

Filarial

134
Q

Which channels does Avermectin bind to?

A

Glu-gated Cl- channels

135
Q

What does avermectin kill?

A

Parasitic worms and some arthropods

136
Q

What is O. volvulus transmitted by?

A

Simulium

137
Q

How often is Ivermectin treatment used for O. volvulus?

A

Yearly

138
Q

Which kind of Plasmodium can be treated using quinines?

A

Vivax and ovale

139
Q

Which plasmodium is artemisinin used for?

A

Falciparum

140
Q

What does artemisinin inhibiting PfATP6 cause?

A

Calcium accumulation

141
Q

What is DDT only used for now?

A

Indoor residual spraying

142
Q

Where are pyrethroids used?

A

Long lasting insecticidal nets

143
Q

What does CRISPR/Cas9 do?

A

Uses RNA guide to change alleles and made infertile

144
Q

What do schistosoma eggs hatch to release?

A

Miracidia

145
Q

How many weeks post infection can schistosoma eggs be detected?

A

8

146
Q

Do hookworms and ascaris have a direct or indirect lifecycle?

A

Direct

147
Q

Do onchocerca, plasmodium and schistosoma have a direct or indirect lifecycle?

A

Indirect

148
Q

Which protein is involved in sequestering and rosetting infected erythrocytes?

A

PfEMP-1

149
Q

Which kind of development does PfEMP-1 cause development of?

A

Cerebral

150
Q

What can PfEMP bind to on endothelial cells?

A

CD36, ICAM-1, VCAM-1, CSA

151
Q

How often are the fever peaks in Plasmodium?

A

Every 2 days

152
Q

Which parasite causes blackwater fever?

A

Plasmodium

153
Q

Does plasmodium cause hyperglycaemia?

A

No

154
Q

Which T cell response activates macrophages?

A

Th1

155
Q

How does plasmodium cause anaemia?

A

Host immune response

156
Q

How do PfEMP proteins prevent iRBC clearance in the spleen?

A

Binds vascular endothelium so sequestered in the microvasculature

157
Q

Which plasmodium uses DARC?

A

Vivax

158
Q

Is DARC on the parasite or the human?

A

Human

159
Q

Which plasmodium uses DBL?

A

Falciparum

160
Q

What is EBA-175?

A

The erythrocyte binding antigen on falciparum

161
Q

What does EBA-175 bind to?

A

Glycophorin A on teh RBC

162
Q

Where do macroparasites not normally replicate?

A

Definitive host

163
Q

What do liver schizonts release?

A

40,000 merozoites

164
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

Calcified bladder and pressure on kidney

BOD (7 decks)

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